Govt of Andhrapradesh Homeopathy MD Entrance 2000

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Select the most appropriate answer for each of the following 200 multiple choice questions and enter the answer against the corresponding question number in the answer sheet by a THICK HORIZONTAL STROKE in black ink with a sketch pen ACROSS a single correct alphabet a,b,c,d . More than one entry or other type of markings or incomplete markings or erased markings or dots will invalidate the mark for that question.

Time : 3 hours                                     Marks : 200

Example : If (d) is the correct answer

(a)      (b)    (c)  (d)

1. The lowest structure  in the root of the lung is

  • a) Pulmonary artery
  • b) Bronchus
  • c) Pulmonary vein
  • d) Inferior pulmonary vein

2. The hepato pancreatic ampulla opens in to

  • a)  1st  part of duodenum
  • b)  2nd part of duodenum
  • c)  3rd  part of duodenum
  • d)  4th  part of duodenum

3. Illioinguinal nerve

  • a)  Is a branch of lumbar plexus
  • b)  Passes through the deep inguinal ring
  • c)  Its root value is dorsal ramus L1
  • d)  Runs between external and internal oblique muscles of abdominal wall

4. The depressor temporomandibular joint is

  • a) Lateral pterygoid
  • b) Medial pterygoid
  • c) Masseter
  • d) Temporalis

5. The following statement regarding motor speech ( Broca’s area) is true

  • a) It is present bilaterally
  • b) It is supplied by middle cerebral artery
  • c) A lesion in this area results in the paralysis of laryngeal muscles
  • d) It is situated in the temporal lobe of cerebrum

6.The axon reflux is related to

  • a)  Wheal
  • b)  Red reaction
  • c)  Flare
  • d)  White reaction

7. The following are increased during muscular exercise except

  • a) Peripheral resistance
  • b) Cardiac output
  • c) Venous return
  • d) Coronary blood flow

8.The ‘C’ wave in arterial pressure tracing is due to

  • a) Atrial filling
  • b) Atrial systole
  • c) Ventricular filling
  • d) Ventricular systole

9. Mammalian RBC are biconcave, therefore

  • a)   They can easily pass through capillary
  • b)   They are flexible
  • c)   Their surface area is more compared to sphere of the same diameter
  • d)   They can be stacked one over other to form ‘roluex’

10.One of the following statement is true of Rh factor

  • a) Has no naturally occurring antibodies
  • b) Is present only in women
  • c) Is present only in human race
  • d) Is not important for blood transfusion

11.Oxidative phosphorylations is inhibited at cytochrome oxidase by

  • a) Carbondioxide
  • b) Barbiturates
  • c) Carbon monoxide
  • d) Rotenone

12.In Glycolysis ATP synthesis is catalyzed by

  • a)   Hexokinase
  • b)   6 phosphofructo 1 kinase
  • c)   Glyceraldehydes 3 phosphate de hydrogenas
  • d)   Phosophoglycerate kinase

13.Carboxypeptid  B acts as an Exopeptidase and hydrolyses terminal  peptide bonds containing

  • a) Lysine and arginine
  • b) Glycine and leucine
  • c) Leucine arid isoleucine
  • d) Leucine and arginine

14.In which disease of the following organs, LDH1 and LDH will be released in plasma?

  • a)  Kidney, Red cells, Liver
  • b)  Heart, Kidney, Redcells
  • c)  Heart, Kidney, Liver
  • d)  Heart, Lungs, Brain

15.The two nitrogen atom in urea arise from

  • a) Ammonia and glutamine
  • b) Ammonia and aspartic acid
  • c) Glutamine and aspartic acid
  • d) Glutamic acid and alanine

16.The chlorination of water

  • a) Kills all spores
  • b) Kills hepatitis A virus at normal concentration
  • c) Kills polio virus at normal concentration
  • d) Has residual effect

17.The causative agent in epidemic typhus

  • a)  Rickettsia Quintana
  • b)  Rickettsia prowazeki
  • c)  Borellia recurrentis
  • d)  Tunga penetrans

18.The bacteria that are involved in nosocomial (hospital associated) infections are transmitted most often by

  • a)  Airborne route
  • b)  Fomites
  • c)  Indwelling catheters
  • d)  Direct contact via hands

19.The safe limit of fluorine level in drinking water

  • a) 0.5 to 0.8 mg/litre
  • b) 1.0 to 1.5 mg/litre
  • c) 2.0 to 2.5 mg/litre
  • d) 3.0 to 3.5 mg/litre

20.The disease transmitted by hardtick is

  • a) Viral hemorrhagic fever
  • b) Epidemic typhus
  • c) Malaria
  • d) Relapsing fever

21.‘Q’ fever is caused by

  • a) Streptococcus pyogens
  • b) Aspergilla
  • c) Coxiella burnetti
  • d) Dipetalonema strepocerca

22.The antigenic source of farmer’s lung is

  • a)  Unharvested paddy field
  • b)  Fresh cut hay
  • c)  Mouldy hay
  • d)  Paddy or rice husk

23.The following statement about breast feeding are true except

  • a) The incidence of infection is greater than bottle fed than in breast fed infants
  • b) Breast milk promote bonding between mother and infant
  • c) Breast milk provide about 115 K cal per 100 gms
  • d) It provides about 3.5 gms fats per 100 gms

24.The vector for dengue haemorrahgic fever is

  • a) Culex tritaeneorynchus
  • b) Phlebotomus papatasi
  • c) Aedes aegypti
  • d) Culex vishnui

25.In drinking water minimum recommended concentration of free chlorine is

  • a) 0.1 mg/litre
  • b) 0.2 mg/litre
  • c) 0.5 mg/litre
  • d) 1.0mg/litre

26.Community health centre’s are

  • a)  Upgraded primary health centres
  • b)  Upgraded health sub centres
  • c)  Upgraded ICDS centres
  • d)  Upgraded district hospitals

27.The working of septic tank is by

  • a) Aerobic digestion
  • b) Anerobic digestion
  • c) Both aerobic and anerobic digestion
  • d) Sedimentation and sludge formation

28.Side effects of oral contraceptive pills include all the following except

  • a) Breakthrough bleeding
  • b) Hypertension
  • c) Pelvic infection
  • d) Thromboembolism

29.One of  the following statements are true about iron requirements  except

  • a)  Human iron requirements are satisfied by cow’s milk
  • b)  Iron requirements of women decrease after menopause
  • c)  Iron requirements are approximately same in adult men and postmenopausal women
  • d)  Iron requirements increase during pregnancy

30.All the following infections are transmitted by sandflies except

  • a) Leishmaniasis
  • b) Sandfly fever
  • c) Chagas disease
  • d) Bartonellosis

31.Alpha feto protein is a marker for

  • a) Cholangio carcinoma
  • b) Angiosarcoma
  • c) Hepatocellular carcinoma
  • d) Leiomyoma

32.The commonest cause of congestive splenomegaly is

  • a) Cirrhosis of liver
  • b) Right heart failure
  • c) Portal vein thrombosis
  • d) Splenic vein thrombosis

33.The syndrome associated with grossly pigmented liver is

  • a) Rotor
  • b) Dubin Johnson
  • c) Gilbert’s
  • d) Crigler – Najjr

34.All the following are parts of triad of causes of thrombosis, except

  • a)  Alteration in blood flow
  • b)  Endothelial damage
  • c)  Thrombocytopenia
  • d)  Hyper coagulability

35.The substance which accumulates excess in Goucher’s disease

  • a)  Sphingomyelin
  • b)  Glucocerbroside
  • c)  Glycogen
  • d)  Glycolipid

36.Off the following intestinal polyp is most likely to undergo malignant change

  • a)  Hyperplastic
  • b)  Hamartomatous
  • c)  Lymphoid
  • d)  Adenomatous

37.Heart failure cells are haemosiderophagus found in

  • a) Heart
  • b) Spleen
  • c) Liver
  • d) Lung

38.The commonest tumor of the uterus is

  • a)  Leiomyoma
  • b)  Endometrial carcinoma
  • c)  Leiomyosarcoma
  • d)  Stromal sarcoma

39.The commonest type of ovarian teratoma is

  • a)  Immature
  • b)  Benign cyst
  • c)  Teratocarcinoma
  • d)  Struma liver

40.The commonest histological type of bronchogenic carcinoma

  • a) Small cell carcinoma
  • b) Adenocarcinoma
  • c) Large cell carcinoma
  • d) Squamous cell carcinoma

41.The following organism are encapsulated except

  • a)  Streptococcus pneumonia
  • b)  Vibrio cholera
  • c)  Haemophilus influenza
  • d)  Klebsiella pneumonia

42.The parasitic infection congenitally acquired is

  • a) Amoebiasis
  • b) Toxoplsamosis
  • c) Giardiasis
  • d) Balantidiasis

43.Direst coomb’s test is done with

  • a)  RBCs
  • b)  Plasma
  • c)  Serum
  • d)  Platlets

44.Cresentic or kidney shaped gametocytes are characteristic of

  • a)  Plasmodium vivax
  • b)  Plasmodium falciparum
  • c)  Plasmodium malaria
  • d)  Plasmodium ovale

45.One of the following causes food poisoning

  • a) Vibrio cholera classical
  • b) Vibrio cholera eltor
  • c) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
  • d) Vibrio cholera 0139

46.The clinical features of acute severe asthma include the following except

  • a)  Marked wheezing and breathlessness
  • b)  Silent chest
  • c)  Respiratory rate over 25 per minute
  • d)  Absence of cyanosis

47.The following features occurs in Dengue fever except

  • a) Saddle back fever
  • b) Cervical lymph adenopathy
  • c) Leucocytosis
  • d) Bradycardia

48.Clinical manifestation of polyneuropathy includes

  • a) Muscle weakness and atrophy
  • b) Brisk tendon refluxes
  • c) Proximal part of limb affected first
  • d) Distal progression as the disorder become severe

49.The following are true in iron deficiency anemia except

  • a) Decrease in iron stores
  • b) Decreased level of serum ferritin to less than 10mg/ml
  • c) Decreased level of free erythrocyte protoporphyrin (FEP)
  • d) Decrease in activity of intracellular enzymes contacting iron

50.One of the following statements regarding AIDS is false

  • a) It is caused by retero virus
  • b) Pneumocystis carinni infection is commonly associated
  • c) Serology is confirmatory for diagnosis
  • d) Virus is resistant to heat and other disinfectants

51.Rasmussen’s aneurysm are found in

  • a) Anterior part of circle of Willis
  • b) Posterior part of circle of Willis
  • c) Tuberculous cavity
  • d) Abdominal aorta

52.The most common urinary abnormality in a patient with acute glomerulonephritis  is

  • a) Macroscopic hematuria
  • b) Microscopic hematuria
  • c) Protenuria
  • d) Significant bacteuria

53.All the following can cause megaloblastic anemia, except

  • a)  Crohn’s disease
  • b)  Diphyllobothrium latum
  • c)  Perinicious anemia
  • d)  Hookworm infestation

54.Factors pre disposing to hyperuricemia and gout are

  • a) Psoriasis
  • b) Myxoedema
  • c) Hyperparathyroidism
  • d) All the above

55.The following are important complications of  chronic bronchitis except

  • a) Respiratory failure
  • b) Rt ventricular failure
  • c) Secondary polycythemia
  • d) Hyperuricemia

56.Following statement regarding senile dementia are true except

  • a) Early personality deterioration
  • b) Late impairment of intellect
  • c) CT shows cortical shrinkage and dilatation of ventricle
  • d) Occurs after 65 years

57.All the following are features of tetralogy of fallot except

  • a) Pulmonary stenosis
  • b) Ventricular septal defect
  • c) Left ventricular hypertrophy
  • d) Over riding of aorta

58.Cutaneous larva migrans occurs in infection with

  • a) Ancylostoma brasilianse
  • b)  Toxocara canis
  • c) Scabies
  • d) Echinococcus granulosus

59.In diabetic patient impotence may be attributed to

  • a) Autonomic neuropathy
  • b) Vascular insufficiency
  • c) Psychogenic origin
  • d) All the above

60.Necrobiosis lipoidica is associated with

  • a) Diabetes mellitus
  • b) Panniculitis
  • c) Hyperthyroidism
  • d) Hyperparathyroidism

61.Reiter’s syndrome is a triad of the following symptoms

  • a) Urethritis, Cervicitis and Salpingitis
  • b) Urethritis, Conjunctivitis and arthritis
  • c) Urethritis, cystitis and pyelitis
  • d) Urethritis, cystitis and proctitis

62.Pigmentation of oral mucosa is diagnostic of

  • a)  Vit A deficiency
  • b)  Secondary syphilis
  • c)  Addison’s disease
  • d)  Lead poisoning

63.All are true regarding adult respiratory syndrome  except

  • a)  Decreased tidal volume
  • b)  Decreased lung compliance
  • c)  Increased respiratory rate
  • d)  Increased pulmonary capillary pressure

64.Macroglossia is seen in

  • a) Amyloidosis
  • b) Addison’s disease
  • c) Motor neurone disease
  • d) Syringiomyelia

65.Creeping eruptions are more commonly seen in infections with

  • a) Ankylostoma duodenale
  • b) Nectar americanus
  • c) Ankylostoma caninum
  • d) None of the above

66.Which one of the pair of polypeptide chains constitute haemoglobin F

  • a)  Alpha 2 Beta 2
  • b)  Beta 2 Gamma 2
  • c)  Alpha 2 Gamma 2
  • d)  Gamma 2 Delta 2

67.One of the following cannot be diagnosed by stool examination

  • a)  Entrobius vermicularis
  • b)  Trichuris trichura
  • c)  Ancylostomiasis
  • d)  Ascariasis

68.Hyper esinophilic syndrome is charectrised by all except

  • a) Peripheral esinophilia
  • b) Parasitic infestation
  • c) Bone marrow esinophilia
  • d) Tissue esinophilia

69.The major criteria in rheumatic fever according to modified Jone’s criteria includes

  • a) Fever
  • b) Arthralgia
  • c) Chorea
  • d) Prolonged PR interval

70.The most effective method for definitive diagnosis of Granuloma venerum is by

  • a) Tissue smear
  • b) Serum tests
  • c) Skin tests
  • d) Culture

71.First grade remedy for cough after measles in Kent’s repertory

  • a)  Carb.veg
  • b)  Arnica
  • c)  Pulsatilla
  • d)  Cuprum met

72.First grade remedy for chorea ameliorated during sleep in Kent’s repertory

  • a) Agaricus
  • b) Actea recemosa
  • c) Helliborous nig
  • d) Mygale

73.Asthma where the patient can only breath by standing up (Allen’s Key note)

  • a) Ignatia
  • b) Mephitis
  • c) Corallium Rub
  • d) Cannabis sativa

74.Epilepsy from valvular diseases of the heart (Allen’s Key note)

  • a) Calc.ars
  • b) Cretagus
  • c) Digitalis
  • d) Cactus Grand

75.Heart disease that had developed from rheumatism or alternate with it, pulse slow, scarcely perceptible (35 -40 per minute) pale face and cold extremities (Allen’s Key note)

  • a) Ledum pal
  • b) Kalmia lat
  • c) Aurum met
  • d) Lilium tig

76.Cysticercosis is a cyst of

  • a) Echinococcus
  • b) Taenia solium
  • c) Dracunlus
  • d) Trichenella

77.The one feature common to all forms of shock is

  • a) Falling right atrial pressure
  • b) Inadequate tissue perfusion
  • c) Reduction in cardiac out put
  • d) Fall in left atrial pressure

78.Gas gangrene is caused by

  • a)  Clostridium perfringens
  • b)  Anaerobic streptococcus
  • c)  Eschericia coli
  • d)  Clostridia difficile

79.Neuroblastoma is a malignant tumor of

  • a) Adrenal cortex
  • b) Adrenal medulla
  • c) Kidney
  • d) Spleen

80.Froment’s sign shows a paralyzed

  • a)   Median nerve
  • b)   Ulnar nerve
  • c)   Radial nerve
  • d)   Circumflex nerve

81.Compound fracture means

  • a) Fracture associated with neurovascular complication
  • b) Comminuted fracture
  • c) Fracture which communicate outside through an open wound
  • d) Double fracture

82.Osteitis fibrosa cystic is due to

  • a) Hyperthyroidism
  • b) Hyperparathyroidism
  • c) Hypoparathyroidism
  • d) None of the above

83.Kretagner’s syndrome is characterized by the following except

  • a) Situs inversus
  • b) Chronic sinusitis
  • c) Chronic mastoditis
  • d) Braonchiectasis

84.Factors delaying wound healing are all except

  • a) Malignant disease
  • b) Hypertension
  • c) Uremia
  • d) Diabetes

85.Regarding ‘peau d orange’ following statements are true except

  • a)  Due to cutaneous lymphatic edema
  • b)  Is a classical sign of early breast cancer
  • c)  Occasionally seen in chronic abscess
  • d)  Resembles orange peel

86.Honey comb liver is a feature of

  • a) Cirrhosis of liver
  • b) Actinomycosis
  • c) Hydatid cyst
  • d) Gumma liver

87.Pipe stem colon is characteristics of

  • a) Ulcerative colitis
  • b) Hirschsprung’s disease
  • c) Diverticulosis
  • d) Amoebic colitis

88.Nerve abscess in leprosy is commonly seen in

  • a)  Median nerve
  • b)  Lateral popliteal nerve
  • c)  Greater auricular nerve
  • d)  Ulnar nerve

89.The tumor of testis which spreads by lymph stream is

  • a) Steroli cell tumor
  • b) Choriocarcinoma
  • c) Teratoma
  • d) Seminoma

90.The most common cause of conjunctivitis is

  • a) Staphylococcal infection
  • b) Trachoma
  • c) Drug irritation
  • d) Contact lens wearing

91.First grade remedy for prolapse of rectum in children in Kent’s repertory

  • a) Podophyllum
  • b) Nux.v
  • c) Ruta
  • d) Aloe. S

92.First grade remedy for crushed and lacerated wounds of finger ends in Kent’s repertory

  • a) Laedum Pal
  • b) Staphysagria
  • c) Hypericum
  • d) Arnica

93.Renal colic, intense pain in ureters with sensation of passing calculus with craving for ice in Allen’s Keynotes of MM

  • a) Medorrhinum
  • b) Verat.alb
  • c) Beriberis Vulg
  • d) Phosphorous

94.Promotes expulsion of foreign bodies from tissue. Fish bone, needles, bone splinters ( Allen’s Key notes)

  • a) Hepar.S
  • b) Merc.sol
  • c) Sulphur
  • d)  Silicea

95.Dry senile gangrene aggravation from external heat ( Allen’s Key notes)

  • a) Secale cor
  • b) Silicea
  • c) Phosphorous
  • d) Antim.crud

96.Precipitated labour can cause all the following except

  • a) Postpartum haemorrhage
  • b) Prolonged labour
  • c) Perennial lacerations
  • d) Cervical incompetence

97.Maternal death in eclampsia occurs due to

  • a) Cerebral haemorrhage
  • b) Pulmonary edema
  • c) Renal failure
  • d) All the above

98.The largest diameter of fetal skull is

  • a) Mentovertical
  • b) Submento bregmatic
  • c) Sub occipitobregmatic
  • d) Occipito frontal

99.Sheehan’s syndrome is caused by thrombosis of vessels supplying

  • a) Anterior pituitary
  • b) Posterior pituitary
  • c) Thyroid  gland
  • d) Adrenal gland

100.Colostrums has more of the following compared to breast milk

  • a)  Calcium
  • b)  Magnesium
  • c)  Iron
  • d)  Copper

101.In a primigravida ith 12 weeks amenorrhea and vaginal bleeding  with internal os admitting a finger, the most likely diagnosis is

  • a)  Threatened abortion
  • b)  Inevitable abortion
  • c)  Incomplete abortion
  • d)  Complete abortion

102.In the histological examination of choriocarcinoma, which one of the following absent?

  • a) Trophoblast
  • b) Haemorrhage into surrounding tissue
  • c) Villi
  • d) Necrosis of adjoining tissue

103. Which one of the following is associated with maximum risk for endometrial malignancy

  • a) Atypical hyperplasia
  • b) Cystic glandular hyperplasia
  • c) Adenomatous hyperplasia
  • d) Proliferative endometrium

104.The karyotype typical of Turner’s syndrome

  • a) 47XXY
  • b) 48XXXY
  • c) 45X
  • d) 47XXX

105.Klinfelter’s syndrome is associated with all the following except

  • a) Gynaecomastia
  • b) XXX chromosome
  • c) Infertility
  • d) Mental defect

106.In a 30 day menstrual cycle, ovulation occurs between the following cycle days

  • a) 11 to 13
  • b) 14 to 16
  • c) 17 to 19
  • d) 20 to 22

107.The most common cause of postpartum haemorrhage is

  • a) Uterine fibroids
  • b) Antepartum haemorrhage
  • c) Mismanagement of 3rd stage of labour
  • d) Coagulation defects

108.Oestrogens are secreted by one of the following

  • a) Cystic teratoma
  • b) Granulose cell tumor
  • c) Dysgerminoma
  • d) Arrhenoblastoma

109.The decubitus ulcer in prolapse of the uterus is due to

  • a) Supravaginal elongation of cervix
  • b) Friction of exposed parts
  • c) Congestion and circulatory changes
  • d) Hyperkeratosis

110.The most common complication in a fibromyoma during pregnancy is

  • a)  Cystic degeneration
  • b)  Red degeneration
  • c)  Calcareous deposits
  • d)  Infection

111.Phlebitis, puerperal after forceps delivery (Allen’s Key notes)

  • a)  Allium cepa
  • b)  Secal cor
  • c)  Cimicifuga
  • d)  Caulophyllum

112.Leucorrhoea, thick bluish white mucus especially or only night (Allen’s Key notes)

  • a) Syphillinum
  • b) Alumina
  • c) Ambra griesa
  • d) Pulsatilla

113.Cold drinks relieves menstrual pain and menstrual flow aggravates on lying down ( Allen’s Key notes)

  • a) Mag.Carb
  • b) Kreosote
  • c) Bovista
  • d) Ammonium mur

114.First grade remedy for abortion from excitement (Kent’s repertory)

  • a) Aconite
  • b) Gelsemium
  • c) Sepia
  • d) Opium

115.Prolapsus uteri, seemingly in hot weather ( Allen’s Key notes)

  • a) Medorrhinum
  • b) Lilium tig
  • c) Kali. Bich
  • d) Nat.carb

116.Convulsions preceded by great restlessness (Allen’s Key notes)

  • a) Ars. Alb
  • b) Rhus. Tox
  • c) Arg.nit
  • d) Aconite

117.Always anticipating, feels matter most positively, before they occur and generally correctly (Allen’s Key notes)

  • a) Ars alb
  • b) Arg nit
  • c) Medorrhinum
  • d) Phosphorous

118.Very forgetful in business, but during sleep  dreams of what he had forgotten (Allen’s Key notes)

  • a) Lachesis
  • b) Selenium
  • c) Anacardium
  • d) Cannabis Indica

119.When symptoms re-appear they change locality or go from one side to other (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Agaricus
  • b) Led.pal
  • c) Anti.crud
  • d) Phytolacca

120.Feels unusually well day before the attack (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Ignatia
  • b) Psorinum
  • c) Thuja.oc
  • d) Hyoscyamus

121.As the coldness of the body increases so also does the ill humor (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Allium Cepa
  • b) Eup.perf
  • c) Podophyllum
  • d) Capsicum

122.Excessively happy,affectionate, ants to kiss everybody, the nest moment in a rage (Allen’s key notes)

  • a)  Ignatia
  • b)  Crocus.sat
  • c)  Murex
  • d)  Lilium tig

123.When child nurses, pain goes from nipple to all over body (Allen’s key notes)

  • a)  Crot.tig
  • b)  Phytolacca
  • c)  Medorrhinum
  • d)  Rhus.tox

124.Enuresis diurnal et nocturna, profuse watery urine, where habit is the only ascertainable cause (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Equisetum hyemale
  • b) Acid.p
  • c) Helonias
  • d) Cantharis

125.Constipation with ineffectual urging ameiolerated by drinking cold milk (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Iodum
  • b) Rhus.tox
  • c) Chelidoneum
  • d) Phosphorous

126.Cataract, gauze before eyes with complaints caused by checked foot sweat (Boerick’s MM)

  • a)  Calc. carb
  • b)  Phosphorous
  • c)  Silicea
  • d)  Baryta carb

127.Small wounds bleed freely and cough after influenza (Boerick’s MM)

  • a)  Lachesis
  • b)  Crotalus.H
  • c)  Kreosote
  • d)  Phosphorous

128.Before menses pain in sacrum, hunger, palpitation and amenorrhea with asthma (Boerick’s MM)

  • a) Cuprum.met
  • b) Lachesis
  • c) Iodum
  • d) Spongia

129.Expectoration gray, thick bloody purulent salty with nocturnal pyuria (Boerick’s MM)

  • a) Phosphorous
  • b) Pulsatilla
  • c) Lycopodium
  • d) Ars.alb

130. Headache if obliged to pass dinner hour, rt sided prosopalgia, constrictive pain in the head and pain return at the same hour. (Boerick’s MM)

  • a)  Ars.alb
  • b)  Lachesis
  • c)   Cactus. Grand
  • d)   Lycopodium

131.Piles with scanty menses at climaxis, strangulated with stitches shooting upwards (Allen’s key notes)

  • a)  Pulsatilla
  • b)  Lachesis
  • c)  Graphitis
  • d)  Collinsonia

132.Frequent urging to urinate, if desire is not attended with sensation of congestion in chest (Allen’s key notes)

  • a)  Lilium tig
  • b)  Cannabis.I
  • c)  Stannum.met
  • d)  Phosphorous

133.Stammering, repeats first syllable three or four times, with abdominal ailments, with helminthiasis (Allen’s key notes)

  • a)  Stramonium
  • b)  Bovista
  • c)  Spigelia
  • d)  Gelsemium

134.Sensation of growing larger in every direction (Allen’s key notes)

  • a)  Asarum Europ
  • b)  Platina
  • c)  Thuja
  • d)  Cannabis ind

135.Sweat, mouldy musty odor, after 4am, every morning,on neck and forehead, very debilitating. (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Stannum
  • b) Silicea
  • c) Psorinum
  • d) Sulphur

136.Can only void  urine while sitting bend backwards (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Kali.carb
  • b) Hep.s
  • c) Zincum.m
  • d) Medorrhinum

137.Circumscribed red cheeks in afternoon, burning in ears, in bronchitis,pneumonia,pthisis (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Sangunaria.can
  • b) Chamomilla
  • c) Sulphur
  • d) Phosphorous

138.Mentally happier when leucorrhoea is worse (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Sepia
  • b) Ignatia
  • c) Murex
  • d) Thuja

139.Avaricious, greedy, miserly, malicious, pusillanimous (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Nux.v
  • b) Lycopodium
  • c) Sulphur
  • d) Calc.carb

140.Cold sensation in larynx on inspiration ameliorated after shaving (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Bromium
  • b) Carb.animalis
  • c) Iodum
  • d) Phosphorous

141.Stitches in the chest, pleurisy with exudation, tendency to gangrene (Boerick’s material medica)

  • a) Kali.c
  • b) Cantharis
  • c) Bryonia
  • d) Squilla

142.Parotid gland swollen with night walking (Boerick’s materia medica)

  • a) Rhus.t
  • b) Belladonna
  • c) Calc.carb
  • d) Silicea

143.Aural vertigo,burning in lower lip in old smokers, lip swollen dry black and cracked (Boerick’s materia medica)

  • a) Aurum met
  • b) Silicea
  • c) China
  • d) Bryonia

144.Great weakness and trembling, tongue trembles while protruding, catches under the lower teeth. (Nash MM)

  • a) Lycopodium
  • b) Lachesis
  • c) Rhus.t
  • d) Sulphur

145.Dyspnoea , agg from sitting, after sleep in room, amel by dancing or walking rapidly (Nash MM)

  • a) Rhus.t
  • b) Psorinum
  • c) Sepia
  • d) Kali.carb

146.Dr.Hahnemann went to Leipzig university to study medicine in the year

  • a) 1779
  • b) 1775
  • c) 1777
  • d) 1782

147.Dr. Hahnemann translated Cullen’s material medica from English in the year

  • a)  1799
  • b)  1790
  • c)  1793
  • d)  1803

148.The theme of dissertation submitted by Hahnemann   to Erlanger University for his MD examination was

  • a)  Experiment on hydrophobia
  • b)  On mineral waters and warm bath
  • c)  The wonderful construction of human hand
  • d)  A view of the cause and treatment of cramps

149.First edition of Dr.Hahnemann’s ‘The chronic disease, their peculiar nature and their homeopathic cure’ was published in the year

  • a)  1790
  • b)  1828
  • c)  1805
  • d)  1819

150.The homeopathic law of nature has been enunciated by Dr.Hahnemann in his Organon aphorism

  • a)   7
  • b)  48
  • c)  26
  • d)  57

151.The true natural chronic disease are that arise from

  • a) Exciting cause
  • b) Maintaining cause
  • c) Chronic miasm
  • d) Material cause

152.The section of Dr.Hahnemann  Organon with we enter  the field of mental disease is

  • a) Aphorism no.184
  • b) Aphorism 201
  • c) Aphorism 210
  • d) Aphorism 78

153.A patient having latent Psora is (H.A.Robert)

  • a) Alert active and quick
  • b) Anxious restless, hysterical
  • c) Depressed and melancholic
  • d) All the above

154.“Amelioration by unnatural elimination through the mucus surface” is a feature of (H.A.Robert)

  • a) Psora
  • b) Sycosis
  • c) Syphilis
  • d) None of the above

155.If a patient suffering from particular disease is attacked by a stronger and dissimilar disease, then which of the following does not happen (Organon. Hahnemann)

  • a) The former disease is cured
  • b) The latter cannot enter body
  • c) The patient is cured both diseases
  • d)  All the above

156.As per Boenninghausen concept, the term QUID pertains to

  • a) Nature and peculiarity of disease
  • b) Personality of the patient
  • c) Cause of the disease
  • d) Modalities

157.In his material medica Prof.Cullen explained that the curative property of  Peruvian bark in the treatment of intermittent fever, was done due to

  • a) Insipid taste
  • b) Tonic effect in the stomach
  • c)  Similarity between the symptoms of intermittent fever and the effect of juice of Peruvian bark on healthy human beings
  • d) None of the above

158.One of the following is not applicable to idiosyncrasy

  • a) Peculiar physical constitution
  • b) A disease state
  • c) Posses a disposition to be affected by certain things
  • d) None of the above

159.To remove a disease in the living organism, a medicinal force is required, which must satisfy the conditions like

  • a) Superior in strength
  • b) Similar in manifestation
  • c) Different in kind
  • d) All the above

160.In sudden poisoning, where imminent death allow no time for the action of a homeopathic remedy, Hahnemann recommended use of antidotes, such as

  • a) Alkalies for mineral acids
  • b) Hep.s for metallic poisons
  • c) Coffee and camphor for opium poisoning

161.During drug proving, the symptoms of the primary action alone of the drugs are to be recorded, Except

  • a) Narcotics
  • b) Aphrodisiac
  • c) Astringents
  • d) Purgatives

162.After the administration of a remedy, if the patient exhibit full time amelioration with out any relief, then he requires (Kent’s philosophy)

  • a) Palliative treatment
  • b) Anti syphilitic medicine followed by anti psoric
  • c) A deep acting anti psoric
  • d) Anti sycotic medicine followed by anti psoric medicine

163.The requisite knowledge on the part of  a physician for being a true practitioner of the healing art, has been enunciated by Hahnemann in the doctrine part in Organon

  • a)  Aphorism 9
  • b)  Aphorism 26
  • c)  Aphorism 3
  • d)  Aphorism 59

164.A method  of curing a given disease by the same contagious principle that produces it, is called

  • a) Enantiopathy
  • b) Isopathy
  • c) Antipathy
  • d) Heteropathy

165.“There are two realms or words, the realms or world of cause and the realms or world of ultimates” this statement was made by

  • a) Dr.H.A.Robert
  • b) Dr.Stuart Close
  • c) Dr.C.Dunham
  • d) Dr.J.T.Kent

166.A symptom brought out by a prover occasionally and which has not been confirmed but verified by curing the sick people is called

  • a) First grade
  • b) Third grade
  • c) Second grade
  • d) None of the above

167.The reaction of the organism to external and internal influences according to Dr.H.A.Robert  is called as

  • a)  Immunity
  • b)  Resistance
  • c)  Sensitivity
  • d)  Susceptibility

168.The treatise captioned “ Samuel Hahnemann his life and work” in two volume has been complied by

  • a)  Richard Hughes
  • b)  Richard Hale
  • c)  Dudgeon R.E
  • d)  William Boerick

169.The most appropriate and efficacious time of administering the medicine in the case of intermittent fever is

  • a) Before the paroxysm
  • b) Immediately after the termination of paroxysm
  • c) 24 hour after the termination of paroxysm
  • d) Just before the next paroxysm

170.What is the word meaning of the couplet of words “Lege artis” by Hahnemann in the introduction of Organon

  • a) Enervating the body to death
  • b) Very opposite of what it should do
  • c) Away from act of employing medicine
  • d) Document or evidences

171.The word Organon was first used by

  • a)  Aristotle
  • b)  Hahnemann
  • c)  Lord bacon
  • d)  Hufeland

172.The only peculiar way to know the peculiar effects of medicines to administer experimentally to

  • a)  Animals
  • b)  Sick person
  • c)  Healthy persons
  • d)  Laboratory testing

173.The modus operandi of homeopathic medicine is explained in Organon in Aphorism

  • a) 25
  • b) 26
  • c) 27
  • d) 29

174.When one sided disease assume the shape of some affections more of  an external kind, it is distinguished by the name of

  • a) Disease proper
  • b) Local maladies
  • c) Iatrogenic disease
  • d) None of the above

175.A typical intermittent  disease, according to Hahnemann satisfy the following

  • a) A morbid state returning at tolerably fixed period
  • b) The feature which return are of unvarying character
  • c) The symptom disappear at an equally fixed period
  • d) All the above

176.Repertory of intermittent fever was published by

  • a)  H.C.Allen
  • b)  T.F.Allen
  • c)  W.A.Allen
  • d)  Minton

177.One of the following chapter in Boger’s repertory incorporates rubric – Apolexy

  • a)  Sensorium
  • b)  Head
  • c)  Sensation & Complaints
  • d)  Circulation

178.Whooping cough belongs to which chapter of Kent’s repertory

  • a)  Generalities
  • b)  Expectoration
  • c)  Chest
  • d)  Cough

179.The cross reference  given for ‘Activity desire for’ in Kent’s Repertory is

  • a)  Workaholic
  • b)  Laborious
  • c)  Busy
  • d)  Industrious

180.Gentry’s concordance repertory was published in the year

  • a) 1886
  • b) 1890
  • c) 1782
  • d) 1990

181.‘Hiccough’ belongs to one of the following sub chapters in Boger’s repertory

  • a) Stomach
  • b) Throat
  • c) Eructation
  • d) None of the above

182.‘Waterbrash’ belongs to one of the following sub chapters in Boger’s repertory

  • a) Eructation
  • b) Nausea
  • c) Mouth
  • d) Abdomen

183.‘Milky Urine’ in Kent’s repertory

  • a) Urine
  • b) Kidney
  • c) Bladder
  • d) Urethra

184.Kneer’s repertory is based on

  • a) Hering;s guiding symptom
  • b) Allen’s encyclopedia
  • c) Material medica pura
  • d) None of the above

185.Rubric ‘Goitre’ is found in which chapter of Kent’s repertory

  • a)  Generals
  • b)  External throat
  • c)  Internal throat
  • d)  Neck

186.In Kent’s repertory, rubric ‘jaundice’ is found in

  • a)  Abdomen
  • b)  General
  • c)  Skin
  • d)  Stomach

187.Pick one symptom among the following that occupy highest value in repertorisation according to Kentian approach

  • a) Weeping disposition
  • b) Poor memory
  • c) Delusions
  • d) Open air ameliorates

188.In Kent’s repertory the section Kidney is placed immediately after

  • a) Bladder
  • b) Prostate gland
  • c) Urethra
  • d) Urine

189.Boenninghausen’s TPB has…… medicines

  • a) 242
  • b) 342
  • c) 442
  • d) 252

190.Thirstless  with desire to drink can be found in Kent’s repertory under

  • a)  Mind
  • b)  Mouth
  • c)  Stomach
  • d)  Generalities

191.The number of sections in TPB

  • a)  33
  • b)  5
  • c)  7
  • d)  9

192.The doctrine of concomitants is the gift of

  • a)  Boenninaghausen
  • b)  William Boerick
  • c)  H.C.Allen
  • d)  C.M.Boger

193.The full name of C.M.Boger is

  • a) Christopher M Boger
  • b) Cyrus M Boger
  • c) Christian M Boger
  • d) Cyriac M Boger

194.Boenninghausen’s repertory of antipsorics with the preface by Hahnemann was published in the year

  • a) 1890
  • b) 1790
  • c) 1835
  • d) 1832

195.One of the following chapters in Boger’s repertory contains the rubric ‘illusion,auditory, voices etc’

  • a) Mind
  • b) Sensation & complaints
  • c) Ears
  • d) Sensorium

196.Repertory is useful

  • a) As a reference book
  • b) To find out group of similar medicines
  • c)  Helps in the study of material medica
  • d) All the above

197.In Kent’s repertory ‘appetite wanting’ is found in

  • a)  Stomach
  • b)  Abdomen
  • c)  Generalities
  • d)  Mind

198.T.F.Allen’s symptom register published in the year

  • a) 1885
  • b) 1882
  • c) 1880
  • d) 1883

199.‘Anthrophobia’ belongs to one of the following in Boger’s repertory

  • a) Mind
  • b) Sensation
  • c) Dream
  • d) Vertigo

200.In Kents’ repertory, the rubric talking sleep in is found in chapter

  • a) Generalities
  • b) Sleep
  • c) Mind
  • d) Mouth
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  • Dr Deepak Najkani

    Kindly provide the answer key.

    • Dr Mansoor

      Not prepared so far

  • Ravi N

    Dr.

    Please Provid ethe Key for the aboveQueston paper.

    Thank in Advance.
    Regards
    Ravi N