Model MD Homeopathy Entrance 2005 Paper II

Questions : 150 Marks : 600 Time : 120 Minutes

1. Please read the instructions given in the OMR Answer Sheet for marking answers. Candidates are advised to strictly follow the instructions contained in the OMR Answer Sheet.

2. For each question there are four suggested answers, given against (A), (B), (C) and (D) of which only one will be MOST APPROPRIATE answer. Indicate it in the OMR Answer Sheet.

3. Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to penalization formula based on the number of right answers actually marked and the number of wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded FOUR marks. ONE mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a question will be deemed as an incorrect response and will be negatively marked.                                                           

1)The mechanism of fatty changes in the liver in malnutrition is:

  • a) Inhibition of fatty acid oxidation          b) Decrease in synthesis of lipid acceptor proteins
  • c) Increase in synthesis of triglycerides d) Alteration of mitochondrial function

2) One of the following is a neoplastic giant cell:

  • a) Langhans giant cell  b) Warthin Finkledy giant cell
  • c) Reed Stemberg cell d) Osteoclast

3)Essential features of nephritic syndrome includes all except:

  • a) Increased Urinary excretion b) Hypoalbuminemia
  • c) Peripheral edema                       d) Decreased serum cholesterol

4)Immune complexes located within the basement membrane would most likely be found in a patient with:

  • a) Acute Glomerulonephritis                                     b) Membranous GN
  • c) Type 1 Membranoproliferative GN {MPGN}   d) Type-2 MPGN

5)In AML Chromosomal anomaly is:

  • a) 9 & 22      b) 21 & 9
  • c) 20 & 10    d) 8 & 14

6) Highly selective proteinuria contains:

  • a) fibrinogen and albumin       b) transferin
  • c) transferrin and fibrinogen d) fibrinogen

7) Edward syndrome is due to:

  • a) Chromosome 18 anomaly b) Chromosome 13 anomaly
  • c)Chromosome 11 anomaly d) Chromosome & anomaly

8) Turner’s syndrome is:

  • a) XO       b) XXY
  • c) XXX    d) XXO

9) Ulcerative colitis is characterized by all except:

  • a) Crypt abscess b) Sub mucosal inflammation
  • c) Pseudo polyps seen d) Fistula formation

10) M4 stage of AML is called as:

  • a) Acute myelomonoblastic leukemia b) Acute monoblastic leukemia
  • c) Myelomonocytic leukemia                 d) Monocytic leukemia

11)A patient is performing the movement of flexion of the hip Joint when she:

  • a) Moves the limb away from the midline in the coronal plane
  • b) Moves the limb posteriorly in the paramedian plane :
  • c) Moves the limb anteriorly in the paramedian plane
  • d) Moves the limb towards the median sagittal plane

12) Inversion of the foot is a movement when the sole faces :

  • a) Downwards & Posteriorly b) Medially
  • c) Laterally                                  d) Downwards & Laterally

13) The lines of cleavage or Langer’s lines are:

  • a) Finger Prints
  • b) Skin creases over joints
  • c) The direction of the rows of elastic fibers in the dermis
  • d) The direction of the rows of collagen fibers in the dermis

14) Which of the following statements are true regarding root of right lung…

  • a) The right phrenic nerve passes anterior to the lung root
  • b) The azygos vein arches forward over the superior margin of the lung root.
  • c) The right pulmonary artery lies anterior to the principal bronchus in the lung root
  • d) The right Vagus nerve passes posterior to the lung root

15) The strenocostal surface [anterior] of the heart is formed by the:

  • a) Right atrium b) Right ventricle
  • c) Left ventricle d) Left atrium

16) The following statements concerning the abdominal part of the sympathetic trunk are not true except:

  • a) It enters the abdomen behind the lateral arcuate ligament.
  • b) All the ganglia receive white rami communicantes
  • c) Gray Rami Communicantes are given off to the lumbar spinal nerves
  • d) The trunk passes 6 segmentally arranged ganglia

17) Which of the following are correct?

  • a) The pre aortic lymph nodes drain lymph from the kidneys & supra renals.
  • b) The branches of the superior mesenteric artery serving the jejunum form more arcades than those serving the ileum
  • c) The coronary ligament of the liver lies anterior to the abdominal portion of the esophagus.
  • d) The attachment of the hepatic veins to the inferior vena cava is one of the most important supports to the liver

18)The hilus of the right kidney contains the following important structures

  • a) Branches of the renal artery b) Renal pelvis
  • c) Sympathetic nerve plexus     d) Tributaries of renal veins

19) Which of the following muscles elevate the palate during swallowing?

  • a) Tensor veli palatini b) Levator veli palatini
  • c) Palatopharygeus     d) Palatoglossus

20) A patient is unable to taste a piece of sugar cube placed on the anterior part of his tongue, Which cranial nerve is affected?

  • a)Facial   b) Glossopharyngeal
  • c) Vagus d) Hypoglossal

21) AII the following statements regarding “Protein choline acetyl tiansferase {ChAT} are true except:

  • a) ChAT is an enzyme that is synthesized on ribosome’s located in the nerve terminal of presynaptic neuron.
  • b) ChAT synthesizes ACh from the substrates acetyl coenzyme A {Acetyl COA } & choline.
  • c) ChAT exists on nerve terminals of both central & peripheral nervous system.
  • d) ChAT is responsible for the synthesis of the neurotransmitter acetyl choline before vestibular storage.

22) If a person has a genetic defect in the enzyme that produces N-acetyl glutamate, the most likely clinical finding would be Hyperammonemia with:

  • a) No detectable citrulline b) Elevated levels of arginine
  • c) Elevated levels of urea d) No detectable omithine

23) All the following statements correctly pair a metabolic pathway with its appropriate subcellular location except

  • a) Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in mitochondria
  • b) Fatty acid synthesis occurs in mitochondria
  • c) Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondria
  • d) Ganglioside degeneration occurs in lysosomes

24) All the following statements regarding CARN1T1NE DEFICIENCY is true except:

  • a) Some patients of this autosomal recessive disorder respond to oral camitine therapy.
  • b) A diet restricted to short & medium chain fatty acids will prove useful
  • c) Pathological fatty deposition in muscles are frequently seen
  • d) A deletion mutation in the gene for “camitine palmitoyl transferase “would result in an entirely different phenotype.

25) All the following are cyclic dependent kinase inhibitors EXCEPT:

  • a)p21   b)p27Kip1
  • c)p53  d)p16

26) Which of the following congenital immunodeficiencies involves only a T- cell deficiency?

  • a)Di George’s syndrome                             b) Ataxia- telangiectasia
  •  c) X-linked hypogamma globulimia   d) none of the above

27) Which of the following is true about the enzyme it describes ?

  • a) Aldolase cleaves a carbon – carbon bond to create a carboxyl group.
  • b) Hydroiase adds water to break a bond
  • c) Isomerase hydrolyzes ester linkages to form an acid & an alcohol
  • d) Dehydrogenases adds water to a carbon-carbon bond without breaking the bond, or conversely,removing water to create a double bond.

28) A 80 year old lady with 35 year h/o NIDDM is admitted to a hospital for mental status changes .An arterial blood gas revels a pH of 7.26 & her anion gap is 12.Wnich of the following statements correctly describes her metabolic acidosis due to renal failure ?

  • a) A large anion gap is indicative of better compensation.
  • b) The metabolic acidosis is caused by an excess production of ammonia in the tubular cells
  • c) The large anion gap indicates that her plasma bicarbonate level is elevated.
  • d) This patient has already passed the hyperchloremic phase of her acidosis

29) The cost in high energy phosphate bonds for the formation of 1 mole of glucose from pyruvate is:

  • a) 8moles of ATP    b) 6 moles of ATP
  • c) 4 moles of ATP   d) 2 moles of ATP

30) Which of the statements best charecterize glucose ?

  • a) It usually exits in furanose form                   b) Its a ketose
  • c) It forms part of the disaccharide sucrose d) It is oxidized to form sorbitol

31)ln Wallarian degeneration of a peripheral nerve:

  • a) The axons regenerate at a rate of 1 cm / day.
  • b) Occurs in the distal portion of the broken axon leaving an empty tubule
  • c) Is a feature of neuropraxia
  • d) All the above

32) Surfactant is a substance that:

  • a) Is produced in the liver of new borns
  • b) Is important in the new borns but is of little importance in adults
  • c) Is produced in the basement membrane of lungs
  • d) Helps in prevention of collapse of the alveoli

33) Calcium enters the cardiac cell during:

  • a) Rapid upstroke of the action potential
  • b) Down slope of the action potential
  • c) Plateau phase of the action potential
  • d) Slow diastolic depolarization {phase 4} of the action potential. ;

34) The functional residual capacity of lung is defined as:

  • a) Tidal volume & residual Volume
  • b) Tidal Volume & expiratory reserve volume
  • c) Inspiratory reserve volume & tidal volume
  • d) Residual volume & expiratory reserve volume

35) The metabolic function of parathormone includes all these except:

  • a) Mobilizes calcium from bone
  • b) Decreases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
  • c) Promotes renal production of 1,25 hydroxy cholecalciferol
  • d) Lowers serum phosphate level

36) The need to vitamin B12 & folic acid in the formation of RBC’s is primarily to effect on :

  • a) Synthesis & release of erythropoietin from the kidneys
  • b) Absorption of Iron from GUT •
  • c) DNA synthesis in the bone marrow
  • d) Hemoglobin formation in the RBC’s.

37) Intra pulmonary shunting refers to:

  • a) anatomical dead space b) alveolar dead space
  • c) Wasted ventilation, d) Perfusion in excess of ventilation

38) During regeneration after axonotmesis, the usual delay before the start of growth of axons in the distal direction is about:

  • a) 2 days b) 10days
  • c) 3 weeks d) 2 months

39) Absorption of H2O in PCT is characteristic by all except:

  • a) Vasopressin dependent b) 60% of water is absorbed
  • c) Depends on solutes         d) Vasopressin independent

40) Cerebellar Ataxia is characterized by all except:

  • a) Resting tremor b) Dysdiadochokinesis
  • c) Ataxia                 d) Hypotonia

41) The mosquito, which transmits classical dengue fever

  • (a) Anophelus (b) Culex
  • (c) Stephansi (d) aedes aegypticus

42) The MTP Act was passed in the year

  • (a) 1971 (b) 1973 (c) 1974 (d) 1976

43) Low birth weight baby means weight below

  • (a) 2kg (b) 2.3kg
  • (c) 2.5 kg (d) 2.8 kg

44) The percentage of available chlorine in bleaching powder

  • (a) 30% (b) 33%
  • (c) 43% (d) 45%

45) In drinking water admissible amount of E Coli is

  • (a)nil             (b)10
  • (c)100        (d)20

46) Unit of absorbed dose of radiation is

  • (a) rad    (b) rem
  • (c)rot     (d) roentgen

47) Minimum airspace for each worker as per Indian factories act is

  • (a) 200 cft    (b) 300cft
  • (c) 500 cft     (d) 700 cft

48) Dry weather flow is

  • (a) amount of humidity
  • (b) Velocity of dry air
  • (c) Velocity of humid air
  • (d) Average amount of sewage through the system

49) BMR value of Indian male is

  • (a) 30 Kcal /sqm/hr (b) 28.3kcal/sqm/hr
  • (c) 38.3Kcal /sqm/hr (d) 32kcal/sqm/hr

50) Small pox was eradicated in the year

  • (a)1978    (b)1977
  • (c)1980    (d)1989

51) Adapted to persons of light complexion,blue eyes,blonde in preference to brunettes;tall thin narrow chest;active and precocious mentally weak physically

  • (a) phos    (b) tub
  • (c) brom    (d) calc

52) Adapted to persons with light hair and skin irritable quarrelsome disposition;easily offended at trifles vexed at everything

  • (a)nux v (b)petr
  •  (c) anac (d) plat

53)Easily adapted to diseases of women spasmodic and hysterical complaints complicated with uterine diseases who have suffered for years from attack of indigestion or biliosness

  • (a) sep (b) sab (c) mag carb (d) mag mur

54) For torpid lymphatic constitutions;persons with light hair and complexion slow to act,muscles soft and flabby

  • (a) hep sulph (b) alumina (c)alumen (d)hell

55)For anaemic and dark complexioned dark hair and eyes;thin spare subjects instead of fat

  • (a)sil (b) calc phos (c) lod (d)apis

56) chemical analogue of dulcamara

  • (a)barcarb (b)kali sulph (c) Mag cart) (d) mere

57)lf vertigo and headache be very persistent after natrum …. will relieve

  • (a) bell (b) Glon (c) Bry (d) nux

58) After arnica it hastens the curative process in the joints

  • (a) rhus tox (b) ruta (c) calc phos(d) hep sulph

59) After overaction from repeated doses of bell in whooping cough

  • (a) dros (b) cor rub (c) stram (d) sulph

60)When carefully selected remedies fail to produce a favourable effect in acute diseases it frequently rouse the reactive powers of the system clears the case

  • (a) Op (b) Psor (c)sulph (d) tub

61)’…….. an invaluable gift of god .What does Hahnemann refers to here

  • (a) honest physician (b) Boenninghausen (c) sugar of milk (d) homoeopathic medicine

62) While in a treatment for chronic disease skin was burnt .what is the treatment advised by Hahnemann in ‘chronic diseases’

  • a) do nothing ,wait for the original remedy to act (b) apply a compress of water mixed with Ars in potency
  • (c) apply cold water and cantharis ointment (d) urtica urens

63)When can a cure of pure chronic case of twenty years duration be called cito according to Hahnemann

  • (a)if done in 1-2 years (b) if done by 1st month
  • (c) if done in 1 week (d) no such period can be said

64)which medicine should be smelled by females during menses suffering from too profuse,long lasting menses before she takes the selected similimum

  • (a) no medicine needed,similimum is enough(b) sulphur
  • (c) nux v                      (d) sepia

65 ‘Only journey men,half homoeopaths still,I am sorry to say use such a contradiction in adjecto”.What is being refered to

  • (a) use of mixtures (b) use of low potency medicines
  • (c) frequent repetition (d) blood letting

66) In the daily report of a patient taking antipsoric medicine ,living at a distance the symptom which is underscored once indicates

  • (a) new symptom (b) return of old symptom
  • (c) aggravation of existing symptom
  • d) amelioration of existing symptom

67) Dose of sac lac advised by Hahnemann in chronic diseases

  • (a)1 grain (b) 2 grain (c) 3 grain (d)4 grain

68) In course of a treatment with a medicine of 30th potency ,the amelioration appears stand still but the medicine is still indicated .what is the advice of Hahnemann in ‘chronic disease’

  • (a) give an intercurrent (b)switch to 200th potency
  • (c) switch to 24 th potency (d) switch to 18th potency

(69) What is the medicine to be given first in pseudo syphilis ?

  • (a) mercury (b) sulphur
  • (c) hepar sulph (d) nitric acid

70) The size of the poppy seed globule proposed by Hahnemann in chronic diseases

  • (a)1000th of a grain (b) 300th of grain
  • (c) 200th of grain (d) 100th of grain

71) Infants born to mother of advanced age have a greater risk of

  • a)Downs Syndrome       b)Trisomy18
  • c)Marfan’s Syndrome    d)ASD

72) Defect most commonly occurring in Congenital rubella

  • a)Deafness b)Cataract
  • c)Microcephaly d)All the Above

73) Pleomorphic Rash is a feature of

  • a)Smallpox b)Chickenpox
  • c)Erythyma infectiosum d) Erythyma Subitium

74) Most Virulent form of Shigellosis is caused by

  • a)S.Shigella     b)S.Sonnei
  • c)S.Flexneri    D)S.Boydii

75) Endomyocardial fibrosis is due to

  • a)Tapioca    b)Aflatoxin
  • c)Gluten      d)Fish

76) Bitot’s Spots seen in deficiency of

  • a)Thiamine b)Niacin
  • C)Pyridoxine d)Riboflavin

77) Earliest change in Diabetic retinopathy is

  • a)hard exudate             b)soft exudate
  • c)dot haemorrhage    d)Microaneurism

78) Blue sclera is seen in

  • a)Alkaptonuria                       b)0steogenesis Imperfecta
  • c)Ehler-Danlos syndrome d)Kawasaki Syndrome

79) Smoking most commonly causes

  • a)CA Lung
  • b)TAO
  • c)C/c bronchitis
  • d)Myocardial Ischaemia

80) Commonest site of Multiple Myeloma is

  • a)Long Bone b)Skull c)Rib d)vertebrae

81) Fish head appearance of the vertebral bodies is seen in

  • a)paget’s disease b)Rickets c)osteomalacia d)0steoporosis

82) Commonest recurrent dislocation is seen with

  • a)shoulder b)Patella c)Elbow d)Hip

83) Delusion is not seen in

  • a)Depression b)delirium c)Schizophrenia d)Mania

84) Which hallucination is characteristic of alcoholism?

  • a)visual b)Tactile c)Auditory d) Gustatory

85) Most characteristic of Korsakoffs psychosis is

  • a)visual hallucination b)Peripheral neuropathy c)Long-term memory loss d)Confusion

86) Dementia is produced by vitamin

  • a)A b)D    c)Pyridoxine    d)Niacin

87) Absolute contraindication for ECT is

  • a)Convulsion b)Pregnancy c))CSOL  d)Bleeding disorder

88) Neurotransmitter which is found in increased quantities in schizophrenia is

  • a)Noradrenalin b)Serotonin c)Dopamine d) GABA

89) Nasal allergy is most often due to

  • a)dust b)Pollen grain c)animal dandies d)smoke

90) Commonest cause of suppurative otitis media is

  • a) Streptococcus b)Pneumococcus c)Staphylococcus d)Pseudomonas

91) Commonest symptom of laryngeal CA

  • a)Hoarseness of voice b)Cough c)Dyspnoea d)Hemoptysis

92) Rhinosporidosis is due to

  • a)protozoa b)Bacteria c)Fungus d)Virus

93) Sub mucous resection is done in

  • a)tonsillitis b)nasal polyp c)DNS d)Adenoid

94) The presence of Keyser-Fleischer ring is pathognomonic of

  • a)HTN b)Lew’s syndrome c)Wilson’s/disease d)Hemochromatosis

95) Roth’s spot’s are seen in

  • a)Diabetes b)Chonoretinitis c)Bacterial endocarditis d)HTN

96) Deficiency of which vitamin is not seen in newborn

  • a)E    b)D    c)C   d)K

97) A wide and fixed split second heart sound occurs in

  • a)mitral stenosis   b)ASD
  • c)VSD                        d)Coarctation of aorta

98) Delayed dentition is most characteristic of

  • a)Cretinism      b)Mongolism
  • c)Acromegaly d)Malnutrition

99) In an infant with ASOM, the infecting organism is likely to be

  • a)Pneumococcus b)H.Influenza
  • c)Streptococcus d)Staphylococcus

100) Most common complication of measles in children is

  • a)ASOM     b)Broncho pneumonia
  • c)0rchitis d)Meningitis

101) In bronchial asthma, there is constriction of

  • a)large airway                 b)medium airway
  • c)terminal bronchiole d)respiratory bronchioles

102) Chancroid is caused by

  • a)H.Ducreyi                        b)H.Vaginalis
  • c)Treponema pallidum d)Treponema pertinuae

103) Pitting of nails is seen in

  • a)Lichen ptannus b)psoriasis
  • c)pemphigus        d)leprosy

104) Fir – tree appearance is seen in

  • a)Pityriasis rosea b)Psoriasis
  • c)measles                d)Secondary syphilis

105) Necrobiosis lipoidica is most marked on

  • a)Forearms       b)Face
  • c)Front of legs d)back of legs

106) A flat discolouration in skin of 1cm is called

  • a)plaque b)macule
  • c)papule d)wheal

107) Hang up reflex is seen in

  • a)Thyrotoxicosis               b)Hypothyroidism
  • c) Hypoparathyroidism d)Cushing’s syndrome

108) Torre’s inclusion body is found in

  • a)yellow fever b)Dengue
  • c)KFD                 d)Wiel’s disease

109) Sonogyi phenomena is

  • a)Hypoglycemia followed by hyperglycemia
  • b)Hyperglycaemia followed by hypoglycaemia
  • c)Glycosuria with normal blood sugar
  • d)Reactive hyperglycaemia

110) Satellite lesions is seen in

  • a)Borderiine leprosy       b)Tuberculoid leprosy
  • c)Lepromatous leprosy d) Intermediate leprosy

111) Icterus is most marked in sclera because

  • a)High content of collagen  b)High content of elastin
  • c)it is white                                d)lt is exposed to sunlight

112) Which vitamin prevents development of pernicious anaemia, but doesn’t protect against CNS manifestation

  • a)Pyridoxine    b)B12
  • c)Biotin              d)Folic acid

113) Enzyme raised within hours of Ml and lasting 2-3 days is

  • a)LDH   b)CPK
  • c)AST   d)ALT

114) Most common cardiac involvement in RA

  • a)Pancarditis b)Pericarditis
  • c)Myocarditis d)Endocarditis

115) Parkinsonism may occur due to chronic exposure to

  • a)Chromium b)Manganese
  • c)Molybdenum d)Nickel

116) The most common symptom of primary biliary cirrhosis is

  • a)Pain abdomen b)Fever
  • c)Weakness         d)Pruritis

117) Kimmelstein-Wilson lesions are specific for

  • a)Type I DM b)Type II DM
  • c)MODY         d)DIDMOAD

118) Most common cranial nerve involved in ophthatmoplegic migraine

  • a)ll nerve b)111 nerve
  • c)V nerve d)1V nerve

119) Ochronosis is seen in poisoning with

  • a)Nitric acid b)0xalic acid
  • c)carbolic acid d)acetic acid

120) Whip fash injury refers to that involving

  • a)spine      b)long bones
  • c)skull      d)ribcage

121) section 191 IPC deals with

  • a)Rape                          b)Giving false evidence
  • c) Grievous hurt      d)Assault

122) In typical hanging , the position of Knot on the neck is

  • a)at the nape                                                        b)under the chin
  • c)anywhere other than the back of neck d)just beneath the angle of jaw

123) Avulsion is a type of

  • a)Chop wound b)lncise wound
  • c)Laceration d)None of the above

124) Homicidal hanging is known as

  • a)mugging b)garroting
  • c)burking d)lynching

125) March test is the diagnostic of poisoning with

  • a)Arsenic b}Copper
  • c)Lead      d)Mercury

126) About neutrophils all are incorrect except:-

  • a) 10-20% of all leucocytes, b) Phagocytosis
  • c) Antibody formation d) Increase in chronic infections

127) In leprosy nerve involved is:

  • a) Ulnar Nerve b) Median
  • c) Radial d) Axillary

128) Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is due to:

  • a) oat cell carcinoma b) squamous cell carinoma
  • c) Adenocarcinoma  d} sdenosqumous

129) OIC is caused by all except:

  • a) IUD
  • b) septic abortion
  • c) extramniotic instillation of ethacridine lactate
  • d) Ammiotic fluid embolism

130) Giant cell tumor source of cells is ;

  • a) Osteoclast b) Osteoblasts
  • c)Osteoid c) Unknown

131) Cells in M4AML are:

  • a) Monoblasts & myeloblasts b) Myeloblasts only
  • c) Monocytes & myelocytes d) erythroid cells

132) Most common tumor of appendix is:

  • a) Carcinoid                b) Squamous cell
  • c) Adenocarcinoma d) Argentaffin type

133) Stricture of gut is caused by:

  • a) Typhoid                b) tuberculosis
  • c) Crohn’s disease d) Ulcerative colitis

134) Exchange of genetic material takes place in:

  • a) Prophase -I b) Prophase II
  • c) Metaphase d) Telophase

135) Commonest type of basal cell carcinoma:

  • a)Ulcerated     b)Cystic
  • c) Morphoeic d)Pigmented

136) Parasympathetic stimulation of tissues in walls of bronchioles caus-is:

  • a) Bronchoconstriction b) Bronchodilation
  • c) Increased blood flow d) Dilatation of alveoli.

137) A healthy man is flying in a plane that has been pressurized to 10.0CO feet (523 HG).Which of the following statements regarding effects of this barometric pressure is true ?

  • a) It will cause a modest reduction in arterial Po2 .
  • b) It will not affect alveolar Po2 because inspired 02 remains at 0.21
  • c) Will be associated with significant desaturation of arterial Hemoglobin
  • d) None of the above

138) Of the following cell types, which would contain many mitochondria in the apical portion of the cell?

  • a) Smooth muscle cells   b) Ciliated epithelium cells
  • c) Steroid secreting cell d) Skeletal muscle cells

139) Which of the following statements most accurately describes features of neuromuscular transmission?

  • a) Each muscle fiber contains multiple axon terminals
  • b) The end plate is highly enriched in electrically excitable gates
  • c) Enzymatic degradation of the transmitter can terminate transmission
  • d) Acetyl choline causes chloride channels to open as a result of membrane depolarization.

140) Which of the following statements regarding expiration is correct ?

  • a) At lung volumes close to vital capacity [VC] .expiratory air flow is independent of expiratory effect
  • b)At lung volumes close to VC ,airway resistance is at its peak
  • c) At lung volumes close to VC , expiratory air flow increases with pleural pressures.
  • d) None of the above

141) RNA processing can be best described by which of the following statements?

  • a) It occurs in the cytoplasm
  • b) It includes the methytation of nucleotides in RNA
  • c) It results in the formation of new covalent bonds between RNA & DNA
  • d) It includes the addition of a tail of polyadenylic acid at the 5^end

142) The upstroke of ventricular action potential is primarily due to which one of the following actions?

  • a) An inward flux of Ca2     b) An inward K + current
  • c) An outward K+ current d) inward Na+ Current

143) Which of the statements about acetyt choline release & deactivation i’> true?

  • a) ACH release is blocked by toxin associated with Clostridium tetanae
  • b) Uptake of Ach into the presynaptic receptor is the most important mechanism in terminating the Ach signal
  • c) Inhibitors of the enzyme MAO are important in the treatment of depression because they inhibit the breakdown of ach into its constituents.
  • d) The influx of Ca2+ into the depolarized axon terminal is a prerequisite for the release of stored Ach

144) All the following thalamic nuclei are connected to the basal ganglia except

  • a) Ventrolateral b) medial central
  • c) Pulvinar           d) Ventro anterior

145) All the statements concerning mammalian chromosomes are true except:

  • a) DNase 1 can be used to treat chromosomes to determine inactive regions of DNA.
  • b) Approximately 7% of the sequences contained in the eukaryotic genome are copied into RNA.
  • c) Heterochromatin is a term used for inactive DNA & euchromatin is a term used for these regions of the DNA that are transcriptionally active .
  • d) Both C & D are false,

146) Chromosomal nomenclature is based on :

  • a) Position of the Centre mere
  • b) Staining properties
  • c) Number of chromosones
  • d) Length of the arms

147) Posterior boundary of foramen of Winslow is formed by:

  • a) Aorta             b) Inferior vena cava
  • c) Portal vein  d) Liver

148) Demarcation of duodenum from jejunum is shown by:

  • a) Ligament of Treitz    b) Superior mesenteric artery
  •  c) Falciform ligament d) Tail of pancreas

149) External ear is developed from:

  • a) 1st brachial arch b) 2nd brachial cleft
  • c) 1st brachial cleft d) 2nd brachial arch.

150) Joint at Knee is:

  • a) Synartnrosis         b) Symphysis
  • c) Amphiarthrosis. d) Diarthrosis

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