Odisha PSC Homoeopathy Medical Officer 2014 Paper-I

Odisha Public Service Commission Homoeopathy Medical Officer Examinations 2014 Paper-I

Courtesy : Dr Gajendra SinghKAIZEN

1. Which is not a method of assessment of obesity?
a. Quetelete’s Index
b. Ponderal Index
c. Gomez Index
d. Skin fold thickness

2. Which is not correct as per Census 2011 of India?
a. Growth rate – 1.64
b. Sex ratio – 933 females per thousand males
c. Population Density – 382/Sq. Km.
d. Literacy rate – 74.04

3. Find out the wrong statement:
a. Vitamin C, Vitamin E, and Beta Carotene are example of dietary oxidant
b. Coconut oil contains very high amount of saturated fatty acid
c. Vitamin B12 is not found in food of vegetable origin
d. Lactation demands about 550 Kcal/day

4. Which one is false statement?
a. Among the pulses soyabean contain maximum fat and protein
b. Linoleic acid is the most essential fatty acid
c. Protein energy ratio is used for the assessment of protein quality
d. Alcohol supplies about 7 Kcan/gram of energy

5. Which is not a correct statement?
a. Drinking water should be moderately hard
b. Comfortably corrected effective temperature is 25 – 270C
c. Soiling index is an indicator of air pollution
d. 75 db is the recommended maximum daily exposure of voice that people can tolerate without substantial damage to their hearing

6. Which one is wrong statement?
a. Strength of sewage is expressed in terms of B. O. D., C. O. D. And Suspended solids
b. Sewage contains 99.9% of water
c. Composting is a method of disposal of refuse and not of nightsoil or sludge
d. In septic tank both aerobic and anaerobic digestion take place

7. Which one is not correct statement?
a. Under E. S. I. Act there are provisions for many benefits for the employee but no benefit for employer:
b. Maximum occupational cancers are skin cancer
c. Dust size 0.53 micron is responsible for pneumoconiosis
d. Pre-placement Examination and Periodical Examination are the examples of medical measure for prevention of occupational diseases

8. Find out the incorrect one:
a. Gobi campaign in programme of UNICEF
b. Millennium development goals (MDG) is a W. H. O. Project
c. Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rule, 1998 prescribed by Ministry of Environment and Forests
d. The Swedish International Development Agency (SIDA) is assisting National Tuberculosis Control Programme in India

9. Which is false statement among the following?
a. At present (2012 – 2017) we are under 13th Five Year Plan
b. Sample registration system is a source of health information in India
c. Mode is an example of measure of central tendency
d. Standard Deviation is an example of measure of Dispersion

10. As per National Health Policy, 2002 which is not a correct goal?
a. Reduction of Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) to 30/1000 live birth by 2010
b. Reduction of Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR) to 100/100000 live birth by 2010
c. Elimination of Lymphatic Filariasis by 2015
d. Elimination of Leprosy by 2010

11. Immunohistochemistry is employed for the following purpose:
a. To distinguish neoplastic from non-neoplastic lesion
b. Te distinguish benign and malignant lesion
c. To localize the cell of origin of tumour
d. To detect autoantibodies in the serum

12. CD4 cell count in crisis phase of HIV according to revised HIV/AIDS classification is:
a. <100/micro litre
b. <200/micro litre
c. <250/micro litre
d. <500/micro litre

13. Lepromin test is positive in:
a. Lepromatous leprosy
b. Borderline lepromatous leprosy
c. Tuberculoid leprosy
d. Intermediate leprosy

14. Hypercalcemia as a paraneoplastic syndrome is observed in the following tumours except:
a. Squamous cell carcinoma lung
b. Small cell carcinoma lung
c. Renal cell carcinoma
d. Breast cancer

15. DNA extraction is pre-requisite for the following molecular techniques except:
a. PCR technique
b. In situ hybridisation
c. Western blot technique
d. Southern blot technique

16. State of hypervitaminosis occurs in:
a. Vitamin A and B
b. Vitamin B and C
c. Vitamin C and D
d. Vitamin A and D

17. The following lipid has highest association with atherosclerosis:
a. Triglycerides
b. Low density lipoproteins
c. Very low density lipoproteins
d. High density lipoproteins

18. All of the following cause left-sided heart failure except:
a. Cor pulmonale
b. Systemic hypertension
c. Mitral stenosis
d. Ischemic heart disease

19. Mallory’s hyaline is seen in the following conditions except:
a. Alcoholic hepatitis
b. Hepatocellular carcinoma
c. Post necrotic cirrhosis
d. Primary biliary cirrhosis

20. Neprocalcinosis is characterized by the deposition of calcium salt at the following locations except:
a. Basement membrane
b. Within mitochondria
c. Lysosomes
d. Cytoplasm

21. Mark the sulcuses that border anterior funiculus of the spinal cord:
a. The right and left anterolateral sulcuses
b. The right and left posterolateral sulcuses
c. The anterolateral and posterolateral sulcuses
d. The anterior median fissure and aterolateral sulcus

22. Atlas vertebrae is unique having:
a. No body
b. A spine
c. Foramen transversarium
d. All of the above

23. Which of the following does not pass through the carpel tunnel?
a. Ulnar nerve
b. Median nerve
c. Flexor pollicis longus
d. Flexor digitorum

24. All of the following cranial nerve control eye movement except?
a. Optic nerve
b. Occulomotor nerve
c. Abducent nerve
d. Trochlear nerve

25. The chromosomal formula of the normal human ovum:
a. 45 autosomes and 2X chromosomes
b. 45 autosomes and 1X chromosomes
c. 22 autosomes and 1Y chromosomes
d. 22 autosomes and 1X chromosomes

26. The shoulder joint is weakest:
a. Above
b. Below
c. Medially
d. Laterally

27. The muscles pair responsible for abducting the humerus to right angle:
a. Deltoid and subscapularis
b. Deltoid and supraspinatus
c. Supraspinatus and subscapularis
d. Teres major and subscapularis

28. The grinning muscle is:
a. Masseter
b. Risorius
c. Zygomaticus major
d. Levator anguli oris

29. The stylohyoid Stercocledomastoid and superior belly of omohyoid bounded the following triangle of neck:
a. Submental
b. Digestric
c. Anterior
d. None of the above

30. The apex of the cubital fossa is formed by:
a. Brachioradialis and pronator teres
b. Brachialis and pronator teres
c. Biceps brachi and supinator
d. Brachioradialis and biceps brachi

31. The surest sign of identity of an individual is:
a. Any birth mark
b. Finger impression
c. Skull size
d. None of the above

32. Exhumation is done by the order of:
a. Police officer
b. Medical officer
c. District Magistrage
d. Concerned Lawyer

33. The edges of incised wound in scrotum is:
a. Retracted
b. Everted
c. Inverted
d. None of the above

34. Strangulation, by holding the neck of the victim in the bend of elbow is:
a. Chocking
b. Mugging
c. Gagging
d. Cafe coronary

35. What is the surest sign of rape below 16 years of age?
a. Spermatozoa in the genital tract
b. Rupture of hymen
c. Tear of cervix
d. None of the above

36. Sexual gratification by seeing some portion of the body of girl:
a. Masochism
b. Fetichism
c. Exhibitionism
d. Incest

37. A child born dead after 28 weeks of pregnancy condition called:
a. Still born
b. Abortion
c. Miscarriage
d. None of the above

38. Takes maximum time to putrefy is:
a. Liver
b. Brain
c. Puerperal uterus
d. Virgin uterus

39. Which of these is a cardiac poison?
a. Yellow oleander
b. Strychnine
c. Cannabis indica
d. Dhatura

40. Best homicidal poison among the following is:
a. Arsenic
b. Aconite
c. Lead poison
d. Dhatura

41. Of the following anticoagulant which can be used both in vitro and in vivo?
a. Heparin
b. Oxalate
c. Citrate
d. Hirudin

42. The hypertrophied ventricle becomes depolarised:
a. Before the normal size
b. After the normal ventricle
c. More rapidly than the normal ventricle
d. As the same time as the normal one

43. Shortly after birth the ductus arteriosus constricts in response to:
a. Increased temperature
b. Increase PO2
c. Decrease PCO2
d. Increased PH

44. Dumping syndrome is mainly due too:
a. Considerable rise in plasmakinin
b. Exaggerated fluctuation of blood glucose
c. Marked increase in lipid of feces
d. All of the above

45. Which of the following constituent of the glomerular filtrate is completly reabsorbed?
a. Urea
b. Uric acid
c. Glucose
d. Protein

46. Chymotrypsin hydrolyses peptide bonds in which carboxyl group is contributed by:
a. Phenylalanine
b. Tyrosine
c. Tryptophan
d. All of the above

47. Loss of thiamin can be decreased by using:
a. Unpolished rice
b. Paraboiled rice
c. Whole wheat floor
d. All of the above

48. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is regulated by:
a. Covalent modification
b. Allosteric regulation
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above

49. Intestinal absorption of calcium occurs by:
a. Active uptake
b. Simple diffusion
c. Facilitated diffusion
d. Endocytosis

50. Predominant fatty acid in meat are:
a. Saturated
b. Monosaturated
c. Polyunsaturated
d. Mono and polysaturated

51. The paraneoplastic syndrome associated with Hodgkins disease is:
a. Nephritic syndrome
b. Retinopathy
c. Cerebellar degenerative disease
d. Acanthosis Nigricans

52. Match list- I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:

List – I (Urine abnormalities) List – II (Diseases)
A.      RBC Casts         I.            Acute Pyelonephritis
B.      WBC Casts       II.            Renal Tubular disease
C.      Broad Casts     III.            Glomerulonephritis
D.     Coarse Granular Casts     IV.            Chronic Renal Failure

A. B. C. D.

53. Loud S 1 in mitral stenosis is caused by:
a. Prolonged flow through mitral valves
b. 1st degree heart block
c. Calcification of mitral valve
d. Immobilization of mitral valve

54. A patient present with malena, normal renal function, hypertension and mononeuritis multiplex. The most probable diagnosis is:
a. Classical polyarteritis nodosa
b. Microscopic polyangitis
c. Henoch – Scholein purpura
d. Burger’s disease

55. Specific test for gout is:
a. Raised serum uric acid level
b. Raised uric acid level in synovial fluid of joints
c. Raised urea level
d. Raised urease enzyme level

56. Life threatening complication of diabetes mellitus are all EXCEPT:
a. Malignant otitis externa
b. Rhinocerebral mucormycosis
c. Emphesematous pylonephritis
d. Emphesematous appendicitis

57. Dancing carotid is seen in:
a. Thyrotoxicosis
b. Hypothyroidism
c. AV Fistula
d. Blow out carotid

58. The most common feature of osteoporosis is:
a. Compression fracture of spine
b. Asymptomatic, detected incidentally by low serum calcium
c. Bowing of legs
d. Loss of weight

59. Match list- I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:

List – I (ECG findings) List – II (Disease)
A.      ST elevation    I.     Right bundle branch block
B.      Shortened QT interval       II.            Torsade de Pointes
C.      Wide QRS     III.  Fresh Myocardial infarction
D.     Prolonged QT interval     IV.       Hypercalcemia

A. B. C. D.
60. Match list- I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:

List – I (Syndromes) List – II (Associated symptoms)
A.      Plummer-Vinson         I.    Right bundle branch block
B.      Cushing’s       II.            Koilonychia
C.      Bechet’s     III.            Central obesity
D.     Brugada   IV.   Recurrent aphthous ulceration

A. B. C. D.

61. A young patient presents with history of dysphagia more to liquid than solids. The first investigation you will do is:
a. Barium swallow
b. Esophagoscopy
c. Ultrasound of the chest
d. CT scan of the chest

62. Blood stained discharge from the nipple indicates:
a. Breast abscess
b. Fibrodenoma
c. Duct papilloma
d. Fat necrosis of breast

63. The commonest site of oral cancer among Indian population is:
a. Tongue
b. Floor of mouth
c. Alveobuccal complex
d. Lip

64. Bedsore is an example of:
a. Tropical ulcer
b. Trophic ulcer
c. Venous ulcer
d. Post thrombotic ulcer

65. A person is brought to the emergency as a case of road traffic accident. He is hypotensive most likely ruptured organ is:
a. Spleen
b. Mesentery
c. Kidney
d. Rectum

66. Brain abscess is due to:
a. Chronic Som
b. Chronic lung abscess
c. Trauma
d. None of the above

67. Pain in acute appendicitis is commonly referred to:
a. Right shoulder
b. Right groin
c. Umbilicus
d. External genitalia

68. Rectal bleeding in a child is likely to be:
a. Fissure
b. Polyp
c. Proctitis
d. Haemorrhoids

69. Under the WHO “Vision 2020” programme, the SAFE strategy is adopted for which of the following disease?
a. Trachoma
b. Glaucoma
c. Diabetic retinopathy
d. Onchocerciasis

70. A 45 years old women presents with a hard and mobile lump in the breast, next investigation is:
b. USG
c. Mammography
d. Excision Biopsy

71. Ranson’s criteria for diagnosis in acute pancreatitis include all except:
a. WBC > 16000 cells/cumm
b. Age over 55 years
c. AST > 250 U/100 ml
d. Serum amylase > 250 IU

72. Diarrhoea with acanthocytosis is seen in:
a. Whipple’s disease
b. Celiac disease
c. Wolman’s disease
d. Ulcerative colitis

73. Hepatitis C virus is associated with:
a. Anti- LKM antibody
b. Scleroderma
c. Cryoglobulinemaia
d. Polyarteritis nodosa

74. Which of the following serum levels would help in distinguishing an acute liver disease from chronic liver disease?
a. Aminotransaminase
b. Alkaline Phosphatase
c. Serum bilirubin
d. Albumin

75. Pontine stroke is associated with all except:
a. Bilateral pinpoint pupils
b. Pyrexia
c. Vagal palsy
d. Quadriparesis

76. The diagnosis of a patient presenting with Seizures, Mental retardation and sebaceous adenoma is:
a. Hypothyroidism
b. Tuberous sclerosis
c. Toxoplasmosis
d. Down’s syndrome

77. All the following statements about diffuse Axonal injury are true EXCEPT:
a. Caused by shearing force
b. Predominant white matter haemorrhages in basal ganglion and corpus callosum
c. Increased intracranial tension is seen in all the cases
d. Most common at junction of grey and white matter

78. Recurrent Giardiasis is associated with:
a. Severe combined immunodeficiency
b. Common variable immunodeficiency
c. Digeorge syndrome
d. C 8 deficiency

79. Which of the following is characteristic of diabetes mellitus?
a. Encephalopathy
b. Myelopathy
c. Myopathy
d. Retinopathy

80. Pseudo-dementia is seen in:
a. Alcoholism
b. Depression
c. Schizophrenia
d. Mania

81. The complication of 3rd stage of labor is caused by:
a. Retained placenta
b. Obstruction of labor
c. Rigid or
d. Elderly primigravida

82. The septate uterus is formed as a result of:
a. Fusion of mullerian duct
b. Incomplete infusion of the duct
c. Non-canalisation of the duct
d. Non-resorption of median septum

83. The precise method of estimation of gestational age during 1st trimester is by measuring:
a. Gestational sac
b. Crown-rump length
c. Bi-parietal diameter
d. Femur length

84. The most common cause of PPH is:
a. Uterine laceration
b. Uterine atony
c. Cervical laceration
d. Vaginal laceration

85. Convelaire uterus is associated with:
a. Placenta previa
b. Abruptio-placenta
c. Vasaprevia
d. All of the above

86. Which of the following is not associated with Oligo-hydramnia?
c. Renal agenesis
d. Down’s syndrome

87. Which of the following is not a manifestation of pelvic relaxation?
a. Uterine prolapse
b. Procidentia
c. Vault prolapse
d. Uterine retroversion

88. What type of abnormal bleeding is associated with endometriosis?
a. Menorrhagia
b. Anovulatory bleeding
c. Amenorrhoea
d. Metropathia haemorrhagica

89. Corpus-luteal insufficiency can be diagnosed from:
a. BBT
b. Endometrial biopsy
c. Progesterone assay
d. None of the above

90. The most common indications of diagnostic laparoscopy in gynaecology is:
a. Chronic pelvic pain
b. Vaginal intra-epithelial neoplasia
c. Genital malformation
d. Gonadal abnormality

91. In a 27 years old male most common cause of a colovesical fistula would be:
a. Crohn’s disease
b. Ulcerative colitis
c. TB
d. Cancer colon

92. Ulcer that may develop in burn tissue is:
a. Marjolin’s
b. Rodent
c. Melanoma
d. Curling’s

93. A male aged 60 years has foul breath, he regurgitates food that is eaten 3 days ago. Likely diagnosis is:
a. Zenker’s Diverticulum
b. Meckel’s Diverticulum
c. Scleroderma
d. Achalsia Cardia

94. A 56 years old woman has not passed stools for the last 14 days, X-ray shows no air/fluid levels. Probable diagnosis is:
a. Paralytic ileus
b. Aganglionosis of the colon
c. Intestinal pseudo obstruction
d. Duodenal obstruction

95. A child presents with an expansible swelling on medial side of the nose likely diagnosis is:
a. Teratoma
b. Meningocele
c. Dermoid cyst
d. Lipoma

96. Identify the wrong statement:
a. Early diagnosis and treatment is the intervention in secondary level of prevention
b. Vitamin A supplementation is an example of general health promotion in primary prevention
c. Lead time is the period between diagnosis by early detection and diagnosis by other means
d. Disability limitation is an intervention in tertiary level of prevention

97. Which one is correct about vector borne transmissions?
a. In mechanical type of transmission no multiplication of a causative agent in a vector can take place
b. Malaria transmission is an example of cyclo-developmental type of biological transmission
c. Filariasis transmission is an example of propagative type of biological transmission
d. Plague transmission is an example of proapgative type of biological transmission

98. Find out the wrong statement among the following:
a. Chicken pox vesicles may form crust without going through the pustular stage
b. Mumps cases are maximum infectious just before and at the onset of parotitis
c. Post auricular and cervical lymphadenopathy appear before rash in Rubella
d. In measles Koplik’s spots are pathognomic of measles and appear in eruptive stage

99. Which one is not a correct statement?
a. Kerala is Filaria free
b. Plasmodium malarae is reported in India from Karnataka only
c. Dieethylcarbamazine (DEC) can be used for therapeutic as well as diagnostic purpose in lymphatic filariasis
d. Secondary infection with Dengue serotype 2 or multiple infection with different serotypes lead to severe form of Dengue, DHF (Dengue Haemorrhagic Fever)/DSS (Dengue Shock Syndrome)

100. Identify the incorrect statement:
a. Tetanus is a disease in which herd immunity does not protect the individual
b. Lepra reactions are due to lepromin test
c. Contact tracing and cluster testing are used for control of STD/STI
d. A person who has recovered from tetanus must be immunized against tetanus actively

Answer Key ODISHA PSC (PAPER I)-2014

1-c. 2-b. 3-d. 4-c. 5-d. 6-c. 7-a. 8-b. 9-a. 10-d. 11-b. 12-b. 13-c. 14-b. 15-c. 16-d. 17-b. 18-b. 19-c. 20-. 21-d. 22-a. 23-a. 24-a. 25-d. 26-b. 27-b. 28-c. 29-d. 30-a. 31-b. 32-c. 33-c. 34-b. 35-a. 36-c. 37-a. 38-d. 39-a. 40-a. 41-a. 42-d. 43-b. 44-d. 45-c 46-d. 47-b. 48-b. 49-a. 50-a. 51-c. 52-d. 53-d. 54-a-. 55-b. 56-d. 57-a. 58-a. 59-b. 60-b. 61-a. 62-c. 63-c. 64-b. 65-a. 66-a. 67-d. 68-b. 69-a. 70-a. 71-d. 72-c. 73-a. 74-d. 75-c. 76-b. 77-c. 78-b. 79-d. 80-c. 81-a. 82-d. 83-b. 84-b. 85-b. 86-a. 87-d. 88-a. 89-c. 90-c. 91-a. 92-a. 93-a. 94-c. 95-b. 96-c. 97-b. 98-d. 99-a. 100-b.

Courtesy : Dr Gajendra Singh Kaizen

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