Monthly Archives: October 2011

IHMA Model MD Homeopathy Entrance 2010 Paper I

Questions : 150             Marks : 600       Time : 120 Minutes

Time Allowed: 2 Hour                               Maximum Marks: 600

1. DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO.

2. Please verify that your test booklet contains 18 pages, including answer sheet.

3. This Test Booklet contains 150 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

4. You have to mark all your responses by shading the bubbles on the separate Answer Sheet provided. DO NOT write anything on the Answer sheet.

5. Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to penalization formula based on the number of right answers actually marked and the number of wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded 4 mark. 1 mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a question will be deemed as an incorrect response and will be negatively marked. No negative marks for un attended questions

6. Please note the matching ROLL NUMBERS given in your question booklet and answer sheet

 1) Hot days and cold nights towards the close of summer are especially favorable to   the action of this medicine

  • (a) Nat sulph
  • (b) Rhus tox
  • (c) Aranea diadema
  • (d) Dulcamara

2) Anaemic children who are peevish,, flabby have cold extremities and feeble digestion; child refuses breast, milk taste salty-these symptoms points towards

  • (a) Phos
  • (b) Calc carb
  • (c) Verat alb
  • (d) Calc phos

3) Patient thinks that his thoughts are coming from his stomach is a symptom of

  • (a) Cann ind
  • (b) Coca
  • (c) Aconite
  • (d) Medorrhinum

4) At puberty; acne in anaemic girls with vertex headache and flatulent dyspepsia relieved by eating-this symptom is seen in

  •  (a) Kali brom
  • (b) Carboneum sulph
  • (c) Calc phos
  • (d) Ferr met

5) Which medicine is prepared from “Papal cross spider”

  • (a) Mygale lassiodora
  • (b) Lactrodectus mactans
  • (c) Theridion
  • (d) Aranea diadema

6) Loquacity, aversion to work, indifference fearlessness –These  symptoms are found in

  • (a) Agaricus
  • (b) Cup .met
  • (c) Stramonium
  • (d) Lachesis

7) Match the following

                                     SYMPTOM                                                                     MEDICINE

  • (A) In writing omits final letters or letters in a word           (1) Medorrhinum
  • (B) Weakness of memory, cannot remember names,         (2) Lycopodium
  •                 words or initial letters.
  • (C)  Writes last letters of words first                                            (3) Xerophyllum
  • (D)  Cannot read what he writes                                                    (4) Lac can
  • (a)  A-4,B-1,C-3,D-2
  • (b) A-4,B-1,C-2,D-3
  • (c) A-1,B-4,C-2,D-3
  • (d) A-1,B-3,C-4,D-2

8) This remedy is serviceable in almost all cases when it is required to dry up milk.

  • (a) Lac caninum
  • (b) Lac defloratum
  • (c) Avena sativa
  • (d) Alfalfa

9) The remedy for habitual abortion from uterine debility is

  • (a) Aurum met.
  • (b) Ammonium mur.
  • (c) Caulophyllum
  • (d) Secale cor.

10) At every menstrual nisus when the throat, mouth and tongue are intolerably dry, especially when sleeping the remedies are;

      (1) Nux Moschata   (2) Pulsatilla   (3) Tarentula cubensis   (4) Bryonia

  • (a) (1) & (2)
  • (b) (2) & (3)
  • (c) (1) & (3)
  • (d) (2) & (4)

11) In children it may be often repeated, in aged people should not be repeated-this statement is true regarding

  • (a) Lycopodium
  • (b) Baryta carb
  • (c) Both
  • (d) Calc carb

12) Which medicine follows Cinchona in haemorrhage and digitalis in dropsy?

  • (a) Ferrum met
  • (b) Hamamelis
  • (c)Phosphorus
  • (d) Acetic acid

13) A gouty, rheumatic diathesis engrafted on a gonorrheal or syphilitic patient-this is true regarding

  • (a) Thuja
  • (b) Ledum
  • (c) Colchicum
  • (d) Benzoic acid

14) Which medicine is to be   given for children and young people inclined to grow fat

  • (a) Calc carb
  • (b) Calc carb & Antim crud
  • (c) Calc carb & Borax
  • (d) Calc carb & Asafoetida

15) Match the following

  • (A) Bush master                           (1) Bothrops
  • (B) Yellow viper                           (2) Elaps corallinus
  • (C) Coral snake                            (3) Lachesis
  • (D) Rattle snake                           (4) Crotalus horridus
  • (a) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4    (b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
  • (c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4    (d) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

16) Match the following

  • (A) Head ache returning in every winter                    (1) Carbolioc acid
  • (B) Head ache as if a tornado in head                            (2) Bismuth
  • (C) Head ache as if a rubber band were stretched    (3) Argent nit
  •                tightly over forehead
  • (D) Head ache with sense of expansion                         (4)) Carbo animalis
  • (a) A-2,B-4,C-3,D-1
  • (b) A-2,B-4,C-1,D-3
  • (c) A-2,B-1,C-4,D-3
  • (d) A-2,B-1,C-3,D-4

17) Medicine for head hot with cold body

  • (a) Arnica
  • (b) Mag.phos
  • (c) Zincum met
  • (d) Rhustox

18) Name the medicine for the symptom decided aversion to coition in both sexes

  • (a) Kali Bich
  • (b) Sep
  • (c) Agnus cast
  • (d) Graph

19) Sexual desire absent in fleshy people is the characteristic symptom of

  • (a) Kali bich
  • (b) Calc carb
  • (c) Graph
  • (d) Caps.

20) Match the following

  •  A) Ulcers bleeding easily sensitive,zigzag irregular edges         (1) Cinnabaris
  • B) Ulcers with punched out edges tendency to penetrate with   (2) Flouric acid
  • C) Very fiery red looking ulcers                                                               (3)Kali.bich
  • D) Ulcers red edges &vesicles  Copious discharge                              (4)Nitric acid
  • (a)  A-4,B-3,C-2,D-1
  • (b)  A-4,B-3,C-1,D-2
  • (c) A-4,B-2,C-1,D-3
  • (d) A-2,B-3,C-1,D-4

21) Medicine for Chilblains’ with gangrenous tendency,purpura haemorrhagica

  • (a) Anthracinum
  • (b) Ars.alb
  • (c) Agaricus
  • (d) Sulphuric acid

 22) Medicine for red pimples or tubercles on forehead cheeks as in brandy drinkers stinging when touched

  • (a) Eugenia
  • (b) Ledum pal
  • (c) Sulphur
  • (d) Kali mur

23) Diarrhoea from high game – indicated medicine :-

  • (a) Crotalus horridus & Pyrogen
  • (b) Crotalus & Aloes
  • (c) Crotalus
  • (d) Crotalus&Zingiber

24) Match the following

  • (A) Constipation from intestinal atony                 (1) Iodum
  • (B) Constipation while traveling                          (2) Ignatia
  • (C) Constipation better by drinking cold milk         (3) Ferr met
  • (D) Constipation from carriage riding                    (4) Platina
  • (a) A-2,B-4,C-1,D-3
  • (b) A-2,B-4,C-3,D-1
  • (c) A-4,B-3,,C-1,D-2
  • (d) A-3,B-4,C-1,D-2

25) Match the followings

  • (A) Colic from cucumbers,salads                1) Ipecac
  • (B) Colic at certain hours each day             2) Kali brom
  •              periodical from gall stones
  • (C) Flatulent cutting colic about umbilicus    3) Allium cepa
  •  (D) Daily colic of infants at 5 am                         4) China
  • (a) A 3,B 4,C 1, D 2
  • (b) A 4, B 1, C 3, D 2
  • (c) A  4,B 3,C 1, D 2
  • (d)  A 2, B 4, C 1, D 3

26) Medicine for low types of fever according to H.C.Allen

  • (a) Nat.mur
  • (b) Phosphoric acid
  • (c) Rhustox
  • (d) Sepia

27) In intermittent  fever which follows lachesis when type changes

  • (a) Nux vomica
  • (b) Sulphur
  • (c) Nat.mur
  • (d) Thuja

28) Medicine for diarrhea in with beginning of typhoid

  • (a) Rhustox
  • (b) Nux vom
  • (c) Gelsemium
  • (d) Ars.alb

29) Medicine for  involuntary stools and urine ‘subsultus tendinum’

  • (a)Hysocyamus
  • (b)Rhustox
  • (c) Baptisia
  • (d) Lachesis

30) Pain extends from orifice of urethra backwards”-this symptom is seen in

  • (a) Calendula
  • (b) Cannabis ind
  • (c) Cantharis
  • (d )Staphy

31) The German word used by Hahnemann for mission is

  • (a) Beruf
  • (b) Daurhafte
  • (c) Einzuscheneden
  • d) Deviribus

32) “The physician has no higher object than to make sick men well-to cure as it termed”- fist aphorism is  seen in this form in

  •  (a) First edition of  Organon
  •  (b) Second edition of  Organon
  •  (c) Third edition of  Organon
  •  (d) Fourth edition of  Organon

 33) “The decisive amount is always a minimum,an infinitesimal” – is stated by

  • (a)Fincke
  • (b)Maupertuis
  • (c)Hahnemann
  • (d)Hippocrates

 34) Theoritical medicine is mentioned footnote  to aphorism

  • (a) 1
  • (b) 2
  • (c) 6
  • (d) 53

35)  Fixed miasm, accessory miasm mentioned in aphorism

  • (a) 42
  • (b) 48
  • (c)  46
  • (d) 32

36) The beneficent deity has granted us in Homoeopathy the means for affording relief       for

     (1) Natural diseases (2) Pseudo chronic diseases (3) Artificial chronic diseases

  • (a) 1 only
  • (b) 1&2
  • (c) 1&3
  • (d) 1,2&3

37) Calcutta  journal of medicine was edited by

  • (a) M.L.Sircar
  • (b) P.C.Majumdar
  • (c) D.N.Ray
  • (d) B.L.Dutt

38) The first homoeopathic periodical Archive was published by

  •  (a)Kent
  •  (b)Hering
  •  (c)Boger
  •  (d)Stapf

39) Boenninhausen became interested in homoeopathy after his disease (tuberculosis) was cured with

  • (a) Phosphorus
  • (b) Ars.iod
  • (c) Tuberculinum
  • (d) Pulsatilla

40) In preface to 2nd edition of organon Hahnemann  accuses one of the historical personality  Of medicne as hypothesis framer; Who is this personality

  • (a)Aristotle
  • (b)Galen
  • (c)Sydenham
  • (d)Harvey

41) 5th edition of Organon was translated to English  by

  • (a) Dudgeon
  • (b) Dudgeon,Finky,Wesselhoeft
  • (c) Boericke
  • (d) Wheeler

42) Organon was translated to English for the first in 1833 by

  • (a) Dudgeon
  • (b) Hempel
  • (c) Wheeler
  • (d) Devrient

43) No. of medicines described in Fragmenta deviribus

  • (a)27         (b)32
  • (c)47         (d)99

44) Point out the wrong statement

  • (a) Charakasamhita mentions 500drugs
  • (b) Imhotep was a great Egyptian physician
  • (c) Golden age of Indian medicine is between 600to800AD
  • (d) Life period of Galen is 130to205AD

45) Select the wrong statement

  • (a) Susruta is known as father of  Indian surgery
  • (b) Ambroise pare is known as father of surgery
  • (c) Edwin Smith papyrus is a treatise on surgery
  • (d) Localities of mankind is written by Hippocrates

46)Match the following

                                 Books                                 Authors

  • A) Materia medica of India        (1) S.C.Ghosh
  • B) Indian materiamedica           (2) R.N.Nadkarni
  • C) Drugs of hindoosthan            (3) R.N.Khory
  • D) Indigenousdrugs of India      (4) R.N.Chopra
  • (a)A-3,B-4,C-1,D-2
  • (b)A-3,,B-2,C-1,D-4
  • (c)A-2,B-3,C-1,D-4
  • (d) A-4,B-2,C-1,D-3

47) Ashtanga Hridayam is written by

  •  (a) Sushruta     (b)Charaka
  •  (c) Vagbhata    (d) Atreya

48) Which among the following is most incurable among chronic diseases?

  • (a)Drug diseases
  • (b) Pseudo chronic disease
  • (c) Non venereal disease
  • (d) Mixed miasmatic disease

49) Match the following

  • A) Indisposition                     (1) 78
  • B) Drug disease                     (2) 74
  • C) Pseudochronic disease         (3) 150
  • D) Natural chronic disease        (4) 77
  • (a) A-3,B-4,C-1,D-2
  • (b) A-3,,B-2,C-4,D-1
  • (c) A-2,B-3,C-1,D-4
  • (d) A-4,B-2,C-1,D-3

50) Administration of something of unmedicinal character is mentioned in

  • 1) Aphorism 91
  • 2) Foot note to   Aphorism 96
  • 3) Aphorism 90
  • (a) 1&2
  • (b) 1
  • (c) 2
  • (d)1,2&3

51) Medicine for proving should be given in simple unadulterated form-This statement is       given in

  • (a) 123
  • (b) 118
  • (c) 115
  • (d) 116

52) Hahnemann discussed guidelines about examination of patient  first time in

  • (a) Aesculapius in the balance
  • (b) A new principle for ascertaining the curative power of drugs
  • (c) Fragmenta deviribus medicamnetorum
  • (d) Medicine of experience

53) Psora is the  real fundamental cause and producer of all other numerous-this statement is given in aphorism

  • (a) 79
  • (b) 82
  • (c) 83
  • (d) 80

54)”It is wrong to attempt complex means when simple means suffice This statement is   Given in

  • (a) 274
  • (b) 273
  • (c) 68
  • (d) 234

55) In chronic disease homoeopathic  aggravation  may be seen

  • (a) Up to10 days
  • (b) Up to 8 days
  • (c) Up to 6 days
  • (d) All the above

56)  Hahnemann advises physician against use of favourite medicine in aphorism

  • (a) 274
  • (b) 273
  • (c) 257
  • (d) 255

57) Which among the following has written the biography of Hahnemann

     (1)R.E.Dudgeon   (2)R.W..Hobhouse   (3)R.Haehl

  • (a) 3
  • (b) 1,2&3
  • (c) 1&3
  • (d) 2&3

58) Which among the following is not required for  apprehending the picture of disease?

  • (a) Freedom from prejudice
  • (b) Sound senses,
  • (c) Attention in observing and fidelity in tracing the picture of the disease.
  • (d) Rational explanation

59) Schein symptoms caused by

  • (a) Excess of homoeopathic medicines
  • (b) Antipathic medicines
  • (c) Allopathic medicines
  • (d) Isopathic medicines

60) Epidemics of intermittent fever weakened by use of allopathic medicines should be   treated with

  • (a) Sulphur or Hepar sulph in high potency. is to be given..
  • (b) Any antipsoric medicine
  • (c) Sulphur or Hepar sulph in low potency. is to be given
  • (d)  Acute medicines

61) The word “Yalephed” for old itch was used by-

  • A) Alexandrians    B) Plato
  • C) Moses                   D) Jonathan,

62) Hahnemann’s medical  essays were published first in –

  • A) Hufeland’s journal      B) Crells’chemical Annals
  • C) Der arzinger                   D) Kreb’s medical observations

63) The idea of preparation of the antisyphilitic remedy is given by Master Hahnemann in-

  • A) First edn of MM Pura.              B) First edn of C/C Diseases.
  • C) Second edition of C/C d’s.        D) Second edn of MM Pura.

64) In a C/C case after the administration of a similimum, the inference was as follows- patient had a severe < with worsening of his general symptoms, for which he was brought back to the physician after a short period of time …. The best possible explanation is-

  • A) Physician should wait.           B) Homeopathic < which will subside by its own.
  • C) Medicine was deep & potency was high.  D) Antidote the effects with a more correct similimum.

65) The idea of prophylaxis for the coming generations can be enunciated with Homoeopathic treatment by giving anti miasmatic treatment during child bearing period can be read in which among the following-

  • A) 284 6th  edition         B) 284 5th  edn
  • C) FN of 284 6th  edn     D) FN of 285 6th  edn

66) Lucid interval is mentioned in aphorism

  • (a))210     (b)217      (c)229     (d)219

67) 50 Millismal scale of preparation is mentioned in aphorism –in 6thedition

  • (a)270       (b)268      (c)269      (d)253

68) Meaning of the word ‘Non inutilis vixi”is

  • (a) My mission is accomplished
  • (b) For the suffering humanity
  • (c) Ultimate aim is cure
  • (d) Not lived invain

69) Alternating diseases belong to the domain of:

  • (a) Psora
  • (b) Sycosis
  • (c) Chronic diseases
  • (d) Sycosis, Syphilis

70) Only one wart on left index finger is a/an:

  • (a) Internal one sided disease
  • (b) External one sided disease
  • (c) Artificial chronic disease
  • (d) False chronic disease

71) A Patient aged 40 is coming with an anxious look, where will you look for this subjective symptom?

  • (A) Mind
  • (B) Generalities
  • (C) Face
  • (D) All the above.

72) A child aged 5 is brought to you; it looks old from the first look itself. Where will you look for this subjective symptom?

  • (A) Mind
  • (B) Generalities
  • (C) Face
  • (D) All the above.

73) Match the repertory with its author

                      Author          Repertory

  • i)T.F.Allen      a)Repertory of Fever
  • ii)H.C.Allen     b)Repertory of Intermittent Fever
  • iii)W.A.Allen    c)Symptom Register
  • (A) i&a, ii&b, iii&c
  • (B) i&b, ii&c, iii&a
  • (C) i&c, ii&a, iii&b
  • (D) i&c, ii&b, iii&a

74) In1931 Dr.Boger published:

  • (A) Card Repertory
  • (B) Synoptic Key
  • (C) BBCR
  • (D) Times of Remedies and Moon Phases.

75) Clinical Repertory has been written by:

  • (A) Clarke, Boericke & Sheed.
  • (B) Clarke, Boericke & Kent.
  • (C) Clarke, Kent & Sheed.
  • (D) Kent, Boericke & Sheed.

76) Allentown academy was established by

  • (a) Hering           (b) J.T.kent
  • (c) J.H.Clarke      (d) C.M.Boger

77) The rubric scurvy is given in chapter –in T.P.B

  • (a) Mouth          (b)Circulation
  • (c) Sensations   (d) Face

78) In .B.B.C.R the rubric for diabetes mellitus is

  • (a) Urine saccharine                     (b)Urine sugar
  • (c) Sensation&complaints diabetes (d) Urine diabetes

79) In Kent’s repertory rubric mastoidits is seen as

  • (a)Ear mastoiditis      (b) Head mastoiditis
  • (c)Ear caries mastoid (d) Face inflammation mastoid

80 1s1 Indian repertory the ‘Manual of Homoeopathy’ was published by.

  • (A) Fr Augustus Mullar (B) Augustine Muller
  • (C) Dr. S.K. Tiwari (D) C. Hering

81) Repertory of the more characteristic symptoms of the Materia Medica – Published by.

  • (A) A. Lippe    (B) C. Hering    (C) C. Lippe    (D) Jahr

82. Which among the following is not a puritan repertory.

  • (A) Knerr’s Rep. (B) Jahr’s repertory
  • (C) Hering’s Analytical Repertory (D) Murphy’s Repertory

83) The chapter mind in Kent’s repertory was made by.

  • (A) Kent Alone (B) Lee and Kent(C) Lee Alone (D) Clar a Loui.se Kent

84) BBCR is mainly based on.

  • (A) TPB
  • (B) Boenning Bausen’s Repertory ofAntipsoric
  • (C) B.H’s Repertory of Medicines which are not antipsoric
  • (D) All the above

85) Repertory of sensations as if made by..

  • (A) H.A. Robert (B) Honi Comb(C) None (D) Both

86) Ist Card Repertory was available to the profession in which year.

  • (A) 1888 (B) 1892 (C) 1896 (D)1893

87) Size of the card in Jugal Kishore’s Card Repertory is.

  • (A) 9″x3″”(B) 9″x2 (C) ll”x3″ (D)iix2″

88) 1st Indian edition of Murphy’s Repertory is in the year.

  • (A) 1973 (B) 1974(C) 1994 (D) 1993

89) Concise Repertory of Homoeopathic medicine published by.

  • (A) Murphy (B) Phathak (C) Boericke (D)Clarke

90) Total number of chapters in Knerr’s Repertory is.

  • (A) 38   (B) 48    (C) 47    (D)37

91) Rubric perspiration gives no relief is given in which chapter of Kent’s repertory

  • (A) Chill   (B) Perspiration
  • (C) Fever  (D) Generalities

92) Asphyxia neonatorum is given in which chapter of boger’s repertory

  • (A) Respiration    (B) Chest
  • (C) Larynx and trachea  (D) Sensations and complaints

93) Remedy for cough ameliorated by eructation in Kent’s repertory

  • (A) Sang    (B) Nux v
  • (C) Sep      (D) Sulph

94) Rubric falling to the ground with consciousness is given in Boger’s repertory

  • (A) Mind           (B) Vertigo
  • (C) Sensorium  (D) Sensations and complaints

95) Rubric cracks in the corners of mouth is given in which chapter of kents repertory

  • (A) Mouth     (B) Face
  • (C) Skin        (D) Generalities

96) Remedy for well says he is when very sick in Kent’s repertory

  • (A) Arn      (B) Lyco    (C) Nat-m   (D) Opium

97) Gentry’s Repertory of Concordance consists of volumes.

  • (A) Two.   (B) Five.
  • (C) Six.    (D) Eight.

98) ‘Repertory of Hemorrhoids’ was written by:

  • (A) Gentry.      (B) Kent.
  • (C) Guernsey. (D) Hering.

99) Repertory of ‘Fevers’ was published by:

  • (A) T.F. Alien.    (B) H.C. Alien.
  • (C) WA. Alien   . (D) Milton.

100) ‘C.M. Boger’s Synoptic Key with Repertory’ was published in the year:

  • (A) 1931.    (B) 1936.
  • (C) 1898.  (D) 1930.

101) The median cubital vein is the vein of choice for I V for withdrawing blood from donors and for catheterization because

  • (A) It is a long vein                (B) doesn’t slip during perceiving
  • (C) It is an accessory vein  (D) It is a deep vein.

102) The arch of aorta lies behind the

  • (A) Lower half of manubrium sterni  (B) xiphoid process of sternum
  • (C) Middle 1/3 rd manubrium sterni  (D) Jugular notch

103) The right coronary artery supplies all except

  • (A) SA node                                  (B) Interatrial septum
  • (C) Interventricular septum (D) Apex of heart

104) Diseases of hip may produce referred pain in knee because of

  • (A) Femoral & sciatic nerve   (B) Femoral & obturator nerve
  • (C) Obturator & sciatic nerve (D) only sciatic nerve.

105) Inferior epigastric artery is branch of:

  • (A) Femoral artery.
  • (B) Ext. iliac artery.
  • (C) Internal iliac artery.
  • (D) Lateral circumflex artery

106) Muscle attached to Ulnar tuberosity

  • (A) Supinator.
  • (B) Biceps brachi.
  • (C) Brachialis.
  • (D) Flexorcarpi ulnaris.

107) 99. The normal life span of RBC (in days) is :

  • (A) 30. (B) 120.
  • (C) 150. (D) 180.

108)  Oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the right in all except:

  • (A) Fall in PH.                         (B) Rise in temperature.
  • (C) Increase of 2, 3, DPG.  (D) HbF.

109) An important factor in Kwashiorkor is :

  • (A) Mineral deficiency. (B) Protein deficiency.
  • (C) Vitamin deficiency. (D) None of them.. An important factor in Kwashiorkor is :

110) The nitrogenous base present in cephalin is :

  • (A) Serine.                (B) Choline.
  • (C) Elhanolamine. (D) Sphingosine.

111) Negative N3 balance is observed in :

  • (A) Pregnancy.         (B) Chronic illness.
  • (C) Growth period. (D) Convalescence.

112) In a healthy adult the upper limit of serum creatinine is :

  • (A) 0.75mg7dl. (B) 1.20mg./dl.
  • (C) 1.60mg./dl. (D) 2.00mg./dl.

113) Normal clotting time

  • A) 1-2 min           B) 2-4 min
  • C) 3-6 min          D) 3-8 min

114) Oxygen dissociation curve shifting to left in

  • A) Foetal blood                          B) Decrease Ph
  • C) Increase in temperature       D) Excess of 2,3 DPG

115) Burning foot syndrome is caused by the deficiency of

  • A) Pyridoxine        B) Pantothenic acid
  • C) Biotin              D) Niacin

116) The level of HDL is said to be protective against atherosclerosis

  • A) 40 mg/dl             B) 50 mg/dl
  • C) 60 mg/dl             D) 70 mg/dl

117) Malaria protection comes from all except

  • A) G6PD deficiency            B) Thalassemia
  • C) Sickle cell anaemia        D) Acanthocytosis

118) Organ of corti is concerned with :

  • (A) Hearing. (B) Vision.
  • (C) Smell. (D) Taste.

119  ‘P.C’ is the abbreviated word in prescription writing for

  • A) Placebo       B) as prescribed
  • C) after food    D) before food

120) Which of the following is the glycoside present in Cinchona?

  • A) Quinidine          B) Isoquinoline
  • C) Cinchonine       D) Quinovin.

121) Quantity of absolute alcohol required for Stapf’s process?

  • A) 450ml         B) 1litre
  • C) 2 litre          D) 500 ml

122) An example for drug prepare from Class 6 (A) of classical method of mother tincture   preparation

  • A) Guaiacum         B) Iodum
  • C) Graphitis          D) Anacardium

123) The drug strength of 1st  ‘Fifty – millesimal potency’ is

  • A) 1/5 x 1/108        B)  1/50 x1/108
  • C) 1/5 x 1/1010      D) 1/50 x 1/1010

124) A mother tincture is

  • (A) An alcoholic solution.   (B) Alcoholic extract.
  • (C) Dilution of the drug.      (D) Aquo alcoholic extract.

125) Glonoin is the drug prepared from

  • (A) Glycerin trichloride.   (B) Nitroglycerin.
  • (C) Triglycerides.           (D) Benzene.

126) Chemical formula of camphor is

  • (A) C10H140.       (B) C10H16O
  • (C) C10H10N4O    (D) C3H5N3O9

127) ‘Russell bodies’ are found in

  • A) Plasma cell tumour   B) Gonadal tumour
  • C) Parkinsonism                D) Ovarian tumour

128) Kaposi’s sarcoma arises from

  • A) Skin    B) Fibrous tissue    C) Veins
  • D)Capillaries & Connective tissue

129) The diagnostic test for AIDS is

  • A) ELISA   B) CFT   C) Immuno fluorescence   D) Western blot

130) Koilonychia is seen m :

  • (A) Wilsdn’s Disease.        (B) Iron deficiency Anaemia.
  • (C) Haemochromatosin. 0) Megaloblastic Anaemia.

131) Pyogenic Meningitis in Pre-School Children—the commonest organism is :

  • (A) Haemophilus Influenza. (B) Group B streptococci.
  • (C) Neisseria Meningitidis.  (D) E.Coli.

132) Virulance in gonococcus is due to

  • (A) Cytolytic enzyme   (B) Pilli
  • (C) Cell membrane  (D) Its intracellular location

133) Most sensitive test for antigen detection

  • (A) ELISA                             (B) RIA
  • (C) Hemoagglutination  (D) Immunofluresence

134) Normal habitat of giardia

  • (A) Duodenum & Jejanum   (B) Ileum  (C) Caecum  (D) Stomach

135) Toxic shock syndrome is caused by

  • (A) Strep viridians    (B) Staph albus   (C) Staph aureus  (D) Strep pyogens

136) Commonest site of extra intestinal amebiasis

  • (A) Lungs   (B) Brain   (C) Liver   (D) Spleen

137) Poisoning with one of the following produces clinical features similar to viper bite :

  • (A) Abrus Precatorius.               (B) Ricinus Communis.
  • (C) Semecarpus Anacardium. (D) Cerbera thevetia.

138) A First Class Judicial Magistrate can award imprisonment for a maximum period of :

  • (A) 3 years. (B) 5 years.
  • (C) 7 years. (D) 10 years.

139) The first permanent tooth to erupt is the :

  • (A) Canine.            (B) Lateral incisor.
  • (C) First molar. . (D) Central Incisor.

140) Statutory rape, is rape on a girl below :

  • (A) 10 years. (B) 12 years.
  • (C) 15 years. (D) 16 years.

141) All the following .are features of a still born foetus except:

  • (A) Born after 28 weeks of pregnancy.
  • (B) Was alive in utero.
  • (C) Will show signs of maceration.
  • (D) Severe moulding of head.

142) Chapter III of the Central Council of Homeopathy Act deals with :

  • (A) Recognition of medical qualifications.’
  • (B) Central register.
  • (C) Miscellaneous.
  • (D) Number of seats allocated in Central Council in each state.

143) Medical negligence falls under following except:

  • (A) Sec. 304 A.
  • (B) Indian Contract Act.
  • (C) IPC 312.
  • (D) IPC 351.

144) 80.The minimum capacity of a septic tank is:

  • (A) 700 gallons (B) 900 gallons
  • (C) 800 gallons (D) 500 gallons

145) Name of the first chemical coagulant that is used in rapid sand fillers:

  • (A) Bleaching powder (B) Chlorine gas
  • (C) Alum                           (D) None of the above

146)The ESI act provides ………. For the employees

  • A) Medical benefit            B) Maternity benefit
  • C) Funeral benefit            D) All above.

147) Anganwadi workers of ICDS scheme are selected

  • A) From the community itself        B) From the other district
  • C) Nominated by LSG                     D) None as above

148) In the NRHM  the ASHA promotes good health practices and they are provided with…….

  • A) Stethoscope             B) Syringe
  • D) Drug kit                    D) Thermometer

149) The most cost effective family planning method is

  • A) Vasectomy     B) Tubectomy
  • C) Copper T        D) Oral pills

150) Benefit under the ESI act to an insured person in the case of sickness is payable for a continues maximum period of —- days, the daily rate being —- of the average daily wages.

  • A) 91 and 5/12             B)181 and 7/12
  • C) 91 and 7/12             D) 181 and 5/12

Download Answer Key : www.similima.com/pdf/ihma-mdentrance-2010-key.pdf

All rights reserved @ similima

seminar3

Indo Global Education Summit 2011

seminar3Indo-Global Education Summit 2011 on academic collaborations and student enrollment will be held in New Delhi, Bangalore, and Mumbai from November 4 to 12, 2011.

An important part of the inaugural function on the first day of the Summit in each city would be presentation of awards to institutions world-wide in recognition of their educational excellence in the fields of Arts, Business / Management, Science, Engineering, Medicine, Law, etc.

The academic collaboration sessions of the Summit are meant for representatives of foreign universities, foreign educational organizations, diplomatic officials, Indian institutions, Indian corporations and organizations. Students will not be present at these sessions.

  • Most comprehensive educational event of its kind ever held in India
  • Biggest networking event for leaders in education from around the World
  • Convergence of who is who of the huge Indian educational system
  • Participation by an estimated 200 top universities from around the World
  • Major Sessions on academic collaborations in several academic disciplines
  • Extensive media coverage for the Summit during and after the event
  • Presentation of awards for educational excellence to Indian and foreign institutions

Venues of Summit 2011

New Delhi
Habitat World at India Habitat Centre, Lodhi Road, New Delhi – 110003

Bangalore
NIMHANS Convention Centre, Hosur Road, Bangalore – 560029

Mumbai
Nehru Centre, Dr. Annie Besant Road, Worli, Mumbai – 400018

Source : http://www.indus.org/

Highly useful medical website links

Now similima.com providing highly useful third party website links – for Homeopathic /Medical scholars  and teachers.

Remember : These pages are regularly updated. So try to visit frequently

A Request : Please send your favourite medical website links …the websites you often visit …..which you think will help other doctors also…many of our fellow doctors are unaware of such websites…

Category

  • Homeopathy Medical Colleges in India
  • Global Homeopathy Medical Colleges & Schools
  • Useful General Medicine Websites
  • Related links – Gulf Jobs
  • Education & Career – Links
  • Computers, Softwares & Internet
  • Public Service Commissions India
  • Plan your Holiday Trips
  • Useful Homeopathy Websites
  • Homeopathy Journals & Publishers
  • Homoeopathic Journals from India
  • Websites on Photography
  • India Government Websites
  • Free Medical Journals & Books
  • Public Service Commissions India
  • Homoeopathy Pharmaceuticals in India
  • Homeopathic packaging materials
  • Global Homeopathy Pharmaceuticals
  • Homoeopathy Discussion Forums
  • Homeopathy Drug Proving – Useful links
  • Indian Homeopathic Associations
  • Association & Organisations in Homeopathy
  • Proposal Writing
  • Research Funding Organisations in India & Abroad
  • Websites on Medical & Homeopathic Research
  • Website by Homeopathy Doctors
  • Homoeopathy Software’s etc..

Visit : http://www.homeobook.com/links-useful-websites

Delhi University MD Homeopathy Entrance Exam 2009

Date : 13th December 2009
Time : 2 hours
Maximum marks : 120
Please do not open this booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator

Instructions

1. Total 120 questions in 28 pages. All questions carry equal marks. There is no negative marking.

2. Use blue or black ball point pen only for darkening the appropriate circle completely

3. Rough work is to be done only on the test booklet and not on answer sheet

4. Make sure that you do not posses any pages ( Blank or Printed) of anu un authorized material. If such material is found in your possession during examination, you will be disqualified for admission

5. If you are found copying/helping others, you will be disqualified for admission

6. Candidates found in possession of Cellular phone/Mobile phone/Cordless phone/Communication device/Pager/Scanner whether using or not will be liable to be debarred for taking examinations either permanently or for a specified period  and dealt with as per law and ordinance of the university according to the nature of offence, or/and she/he may be proceeded against and shall be liable for prosecution under the relevant provisions of the Indian Penal Code.

7. At the end of the examination handover the answer sheet to the invigilator

8. Do not leave the examination hall until you are asked to do so

1.Purkinjee fibers from the cerebellum end in

  • (A) Extra pyramidal system
  • (B)Cranial nerve nuclei
  • (C) Cerebellar nuclei
  • (D) Cerebral cortex

2.Hypoglossal nerve does not supply

  • (A) Genioglossus
  • (B) Palatoglossus
  • (C) Styloglossus
  • (D)Hypoglossus

3.Trendenberg’s sign is positive with weakness/paralysis of

  • (A) Gluteus maximus
  • (B) Gluteus medius & minimus
  • (C) Adductor longus
  • (D) Hamstrings

4.The following provides maximum support to the uterus

  • (A) Broad ligament
  • (B) Meckenrodt’s ligaments
  • (C) Round ligament
  • (D) Vascicoureterine fold

5.Lacrimation occurs when facial nerve injury is at

  • (A) Geniculate ganglion
  • (B) In semicircular canal
  • (C) At sphenopalatine ganglia
  • (D) At foramen spinosum

6.Shortest part of the colon is

  • (A) Ascending colon
  • (B) Transverse colon
  • (C) Descending colon
  • (D) Sigmoid colon

7.Carpal tunnel syndrome is due to the compression of

  • (A)Ulnar nerve
  • (B) Radial nerve
  • (C) Median nerve
  • (D) Axillary nerve

8.Iron is stared in

  • (A) RBC
  • (B) Reticuloendothelial System
  • (C) Plasma
  • (D) All of the above

9.One of the following is true regarding vomiting

  • (A) Chest held in mid inspiration
  • (B) Glottis opened
  • (C) Intra-abdominal pressure decreased
  • (D) Abdominal muscles relaxed

10. Full form of LASER is –

  • (A) Light amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
  • (B) Low assimilation of Small Energy Reserves
  • (C) Light assimilation by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
  • (D) Light array Causing Electromagnetic Radiation

11. First change to occur after nerve cut is

  • (A) Schwan cell mitosis
  • (B) Axonal sprouting
  • (C) Myelin sheath degeneration
  • (D) Nuclear disintegration

12.In Addison’s disease there is rise in –

  • (A) Blood glucose
  • (B) Blood pressure
  • (C) Serum potassium
  • (D) Serum sodium

13.Function of leutenising hormone is

  • (A) Follicle maturation and ovulation
  • (B) Milk secretion
  • (c) Causes progesterone secretion during ovulation
  • (D) Maintains placenta

14.All the following can be measured by simple spirometry except

  • (A) Inspiratory reserve volume
  • (B) Expiratory reserve volume
  • (C) Residual volume
  • (D) Tidal volume

15. Cyanosis or bluish discoloration of the skin and mucus membrane depends upon

  • (A)A relative proportion of reduced & oxygenated haemoglobin
  • (B) Absolute amount of reduced haemoglobin
  • (C) Thickness of the skin
  • (D) Fragility of the capillaries

16. In Beri Beri which enzyme activity is measured

  • (A) Transketolase
  • (B) Transaminase
  • (C) Decarboxylase
  • (D) Deazrzinase

17. Ketone body which is maximum in diabetic ketoacidosis

  • (A) Acetone
  • (B) Pyruvate
  • (C) Acetoacetic acid
  • (D) B – oxaloacetate

18. Ketoacidosis without giycosuria is seen in

  • (A) Aspirin poisoning
  • (B) Renal tubular acidosis
  • (C) Prolonged starvation
  • (D)) Paracetamol poisoning

19. Cholesterol detection can be done with the following except

  • (A) Lieberman Burchard reaction
  • (B) Zimmerman reaction
  • (C) Winslow test
  • (D) Salkowski reaction

20. Collagen is a major component of

  • (A) Synovial fluid
  • (B) Wharton’s Jelly
  • (C) Bone
  • (D) Hair

21.Whole wheat is an excellent source of

  • (A) Vitamin D
  • (B) Vitamin
  • (C) Thiamine
  • (D) Vitatmin A

22.All are transmitted by Feco oral route except

  • (A) Ascariasis
  • (B) Enterobius
  • (C) Giadiasis
  • (D) Strongyloides

23.Which of the following is most resistant to gonococcal infection

  • (A) Prostrate
  • (B) Epididymis
  • (C)Testes
  • (D) Urethra

24.Which of the following Hepatitis virus have significant perinatal transmission

  • (A) Hepatitis B virus
  • (B) Hepatitis C virus
  • (C) Hepatitis B virus
  • (D) Hepatitis A virus

25. Commonest Ca lung in non-smoker

  • (A) Squemons Cell Ca
  • (B) Adeno-Carcinoma
  • (C) Small Cell Ca
  • (D) Large Cell Ca

26. Honeycomb liver is produced by

  • (A) Histoplasmosis
  • (B)Hydatidosis
  • (C) Amoebic liver
  • (D) Actinomycosis

27. Characteristic feature of the kidney in Diabetes Mellitus is

  • (A) Nodular Kidney
  • (B) Fibrin cap
  • (C) Pappilary necrosis
  • (D) Diffuse Glomeroclosclerosis

28. O group blood will have –

  • (A) Both A & B agglutinogens
  • (B) Both A & B agglutinins
  • (C) Neither agglutinogens nor agglutinins
  • (D) Universal recipients

29. A person is declared dead if he is not found for

  • (A) 2 Years
  • (B) 7 Years
  • (C) 15 Years
  • (D) 20 Years

30. Crocodile skin appearance is seen in

  • (A) High voltage burn
  • (B) Electric shock
  • (C) Drowning
  • (D) Mummification

31. A 25 year old female present with Pyraxia for the last 10 days develops acute pain in periumblical region spreading all over the abdomen what would be the most likely cause –

  • (A) Perforation peritonitis due to intestinal tuberculosis
  • (B) Generalised peritonitis due to Appendicular perforation
  • (C) Typhoid enteric perforation and peritonitis
  • (D) Acute Salpingo-oophoritis with peritonitis

32. The following are the characteristic features of Motor Neuron disease except –

  • (A) Dysphagia
  • (B) Fasciculations
  • (C) Extensor planter response
  • (D) Nystagmus

33. In a patient lobar pneumonia due to pneumococcus, identify the correct order to which the following pathological stages appear­

  • (A) Red hepatisation – Grey hepatisation – Congestion – Resolution
  • (B) Congestion – Red hepatisation – Grey hepatisatian – Resolution
  • (C) Congestion – Grey hepatisation – Red hepatisation – Resolution
  • (D) Grey hepatisation – Red hepatisation Congestion – Resolution

34. A 30 year old housewife reports with six months amenorrhoea. Her serum LH and FSH are high with low estradial levels, what is the most likely cause of amenorrhoea

  • (A) Pituitary tumour
  • (B) Polycystic ovarian disease
  • (C) Exercise induced
  • (D) Premature menopause

35. A pregnant woman in third trimester has normal blood pressure when standing and sitting. When supine the B.P. drops to 90150 mm Hg, what is the diagnosis –

  • (A) Compression of uterine artery
  • (B) Compression of Aorta
  • (C) Compression of inferior vena cava
  • (D) Compression of internal iliac artery

36. Which one of the following causes the greatest risk of ectopic pregnancy –

  • (A) Pelvic inflammatory disease
  • (B) Intrauterine contraceptive devices used
  • (C) Previous ectopic pregnancy
  • (D) Previous medical termination of pregnancy

37. Amongst the following which one is the absolute contraindication of combined oral-contraceptive pills –

  • (A) Diabetes mellitus
  • (B) Migraine
  • (C) Previous history of Thrombo-embolism
  • (D) Heart disease

38. The diagnosis of rheumatic fever is best confirmed by –

  • (A) Throat-swab culture
  • (B) Raised ESR
  • (C) ASLO titre
  • (D) ECG changes

39. Commenst cause of death in sarcoidosis is –

  • (A) Pneumonia
  • (B) Corpulmonale
  • (C) Myocardial infarction
  • (D) Liver failure

40. IUGR (Intra Uterine Growth Retardation) is caused by all except

  • (A)Diabetes
  • (B) Alcohol
  • (C) Smoking
  • (D) Chronic renal failure

41. Koebner’s phenomenon is seen in

  • (A) Lupus Vulgaris
  • (L) Lupus Erythematosis
  • (C) Psoriasis
  • (D) Eczematons dermatitis

42. In leprosy nerve abscess most commonly affects­

  • (A) Ulnar nerve
  • (B) Radial nerve
  • (C) Great Auricular nerve
  • (D) Posterior tibial nerve

43. Which one is a wrong statement regarding Lichen Planus

  • (A) Biopsy of the skin show subepidermal IgA deposits
  • (B) Hepatitis C virus is one of the cause
  • (C) Self limited condition
  • (D) It is a autoimmune disorder

44. Pterygium of nail is characteristically seen in

  • (A) Lichen Planus
  • (B) Psoriasis
  • (C) Tinea unguium
  • (D) Alopecia areata

45. Genital warts are caused by­

  • (A) Human Papilloma virus
  • (B) Herpes Simplex virus
  • (C) Epstein Barr virus
  • (D) Lymphogranuloma Venereum

46. Ribnotching is produced by

  • (A) Coarctation or Aorta
  • (B) Neurofibrometosis
  • (C) Superior Vena Cavai Obstruction
  • (D) All of the above

47. IVP is done using –

  • (A) Conray 240
  • (B) Conray 380
  • (C) Conray 480
  • (D) Conray 540

48. C.T. Scan was invented by

  • (A) Geofiery Hounsfield
  • (B) Eric Storz
  • (C) John Snow
  • (D) Takashita Koba

49. Negri Bodies are seen in –

  • (A) Herpes Simplex Encephalitis
  • (B) Rabies
  • (C) Subacute Sclerosing Pan Encephalitis
  • (D) HIV Encephalitis

50. Which of the following is not a vector borne disease

  • (A) Japanese Encephalitis
  • (B) Dengue Fever
  • (C) Kala Azar
  • (D) Meningococcal Meningitis

51. Most common presenting finding of Multiple Sclerosis is –

  • (A) Intra nuclear opthalmoplagia
  • (B) Optic Neuritis
  • (C)Transverse myelitis
  • (D) Cerebeller atexia

52. Anxiety Neurosis is characterised by all except

  • (A) Suicidal intent
  • (B) Panic attacks
  • (C) Multiple somatic complaints
  • (D) Over concern

53. Early feature of Diabetic Retinopathy is –

  • (A) Hard Exudate
  • (B) Flame haemorrhage
  • (C) Capillary leakage
  • (D) Microaneurysm

54. Most common cause of retinal detachment is –

  • (A) Myopia
  • (B) Emmetropia
  • (C) Astigmatism
  • (D) Hypeimetropia

55. Elderly male with heart disease has sudden loss of vision in one eye, examination reveals a cherry red spot, diagnosis is­

  • (A) Central retinal vein occlusion
  • (B) Central retinal artery occlusion
  • (C) Amaurosis fugax
  • (D) Acute ischemic optic neuritis

56. Quinsy is characterised by all except –

  • (A) Peritonsillar Abscess
  • (B) Indication for tonsillectomy
  • (C) Should be drained
  • (D) Affects nasal mucosa

57. The main blood supply of the tonsil is –

  • (A) Lingual Artery
  • (B) Facial Artery
  • (C) Ascending pharengeal Artery
  • (D) Occipital Artery

58. Tuberculosis of the spine starts in

  • (A) Nucleus pulposus
  • (B) Vertebral body
  • (C) Annulus fibrosus
  • (D) Paravertibral fascia

59. All the following statements about spina bifida occulta are true except –

  • (A) it may be incidental finding
  • (B) The overlying skin may show a hairy patch
  • (C) The membrane reunieus increases in size without the growth of the child
  • (D) Paralytic deformity of the lower limb may occur around the age of 10 years

60. Meniers disease is associated with

  • (A) Cochlear deafness
  • (B) Conductive deafness
  • (C) Retrocochlear deafness
  • (D) Mixed

61. The urine has an odor of Violets, Hamaturia blood thoroughly mixed with urine, sediments like coffee grounds, cloudy, smoky. albuminous, profuse dark or black painless –

  • (A)Terebinth
  • (B) Cantharis
  • (C) Nit. Acid
  • (D) Hamamellis

62. Restlessness, could not keep quiet in any position, must keep in motion, though walking aggravates all symptoms –

  • (A) Rhus Tox
  • (B) Ruta
  • (C) Arsenic Alb.
  • (D) Tarentula

63. Mumps metastasis to mammae or testicles is one of the peculiar symptom o f -­

  • (A) Pulsatilla
  • (B) Belladonna
  • (C) Merc. Sol
  • (D) Rhus ‘Fox

64. School girls headache, worse by study or even slight mental exertion when using eye in close work and glasses fail to relieve with a tubercular history -­

  • (A) Nat. Mur.
  • (B) Tubereulinium
  • (C) Physiostigma
  • (D) Euphrasia

65. Sweat only on uncovered parts or all over except the head when he sleeps, stops when he wakes, profuse sour smelling fetid at night

  • (A) Silicea
  • (B) Sambucus
  • (C) Thuja
  • (D) Calc. Carb.

66. Nitric Acid covers misaim

  • (A) Psora
  • (B) Syphilis & Psora
  • (C) Sycosis
  • (D) Psora, Sycosis & Syphilis

67. Desires light and company, cannot bear to be alone, worse in dark and solitude, cannot walk in a dark room and no pain with most of the complaints –

  • (A) Apis Mel.
  • (B) Lachesis
  • (C) Stramonium
  • (D) Nat. Mur.

68.Sensation of lump of ice on vertex with chilliness, as of heat and cold at the same time on the scalp as if brain was torn to pieces –

  • (A) Glonoine
  • (B) Belladonna
  • (C) Gelsimium
  • (D) Varatrum Alb.

69. Mapped tongue covered with white film with sensation of rawness. This film comes off in patches leaving dark red tender very sensitive spats

  • (A) Merc. Sol
  • (B) Taraxacum
  • (C) Rhus Tax
  • (D) Lachesis

70. Mechanical injuries from sharp cutting instruments, post surgical operations, stinging smarting pains like cutting of a knife

  • (A) Apis Mel.
  • (B) Staphysagria
  • (C) Bellis Per.
  • (D) Arnica

71. Thuja belongs to which of the following constitution –

  • (A) Oxygenoid
  • (B) Carbonitrogenoid
  • (C) Hydrogenoid
  • (D) Strumous

72. Discharge of blood from the vagina every time the child takes the breast –­

  • (A) Pulsatilla
  • (B) Silicea
  • (C) Medorrhinum
  • (D) Bryonia

73. The “Balm of Gilead” for the diseases of the old maid and women during and after climacteric –

  • (A) Sepia
  • (B) Conium Macuiaturn
  • (C) Lachesis
  • (D) Causticum

74. Vertigo on seeing flowing water when walking over water as when crossing a bridge –

  • (A) Theradion
  • (B) Conium Maculatum
  • (C) Ferrum Met.
  • (D) Phosphorus

75. Ledum Pal belongs to the family of

  • (A) Leguminosae
  • (B) Ericaceae
  • (C) Papaveraceae
  • (D) Polygonaceae

76. Commmon name of Rumex Crispus –

  • (A) Rue
  • (B)Yellow Dock
  • (C) Blue Cohosh
  • (D) Stone Root

77. With every explosive cough there escapes a volume of pungent foetid air –

  • (A) Kali Iodite
  • (B) Pulsatilla
  • (C) Capsicum
  • (D) Nitric Acid

78. Indifferent to one’s family, to those whom she loves best is one of the characteristic mental symptom of­

  • (A) Argentum Nit.
  • (B) Nat. Mur.
  • (C) Phosphorus
  • (D) Sepia

79. Toothache from tobacco smoking is one of the characteristic symptom of –

  • (A) Merc. Sol
  • (B) Pulsatilla
  • (C) Spigilia
  • (D) All of the above

80. Pains are drawing, tearing, pressing, light or superficial during warm weather. affect the bones & deeper tissues when air is cold. pain goes from left to right –

  • (A) Rhus Tox
  • (B) Colchicum
  • (C) Bryonia
  • (D) Syphilinum

81. Object of Homoeopathic case taking is­

  • (A) To get an idea about common symptoms
  • (B) To get an idea about mental symptoms
  • (C) To get an idea about symptoms of the body
  • (D) To obtain an individual picture of the disease

82. In which aforism Dr. Samuel Hal3nemann has given idea about homoeopathic specific remedy –

  • (A) § No. 18
  • (B) § No. 70
  • (C) § No. 71
  • (D) § No. 147

83. Outwardly reflected picture of the internal essence of the diseases are –

  • (A) Objective Symptoms
  • (B) Subjective Symptoms
  • (C) Totality of the Symptoms
  • (D) None of the above

84. Psora is the cause of –

  • (A) Non-veneral chronic diseases
  • (B) Veneral chronic diseases
  • (C) Both Veneral & Non-veneral chronic diseases
  • (D) All acute & chronic diseases

85. Hahnemann wrote in­

  • (A) Only German language
  • (B) Both German & Latin
  • (C) German, English & Latin
  • (D) German, French & Latin

86. The phrase “Aude Sapere” was coined by –

  • (A) Hippocrates
  • (B) Horace
  • (C) Hahnemann
  • (D) Homer

87. Hahnemann died in the city of –

  • (A) Meissen
  • (B) Leipzig
  • (C) Paris
  • (D) Koethen

88. Of the below which require change in diet regulation –

  • (A) Indisposition
  • (B) Allopathic bungling
  • (C) Chronic disease
  • (D) Surgical disease

89. Medicine of experience was written by –

  • (A) Jahr
  • (B) Hahnemann
  • (C) Boenninghausen
  • (D) Kent

90. Of the below which is suitable medicine –

  • (A) The medicine which has previously cured the same type of disease.
  • (B) The medicine which has greatest similarity to the totality of symptoms.
  • (C)The medicine which has developed the same type of lesion in animal experimentation.
  • (D) The medicine belongs to the same family of plant kingdom or animal kingdom when the indicated drug is not available.

91. Of the below four persons by whom “cessat-effectus cessat causa” was declared –

  • (A) Galen
  • (B) Hippocrates
  • (C) Paracelsus
  • (D) Hahnemann

92. Last words uttered by Dr. Samuel Hahnemann were –

  • (A) Please publish the sixth edition of Organon
  • (B) Please spread Homoeopathy
  • (C) I have not lived in vain
  • (D) 0h God

93. Dr. Kent was born

  • (A) 2nd July 1843
  • (B) 31st ‘March 1849
  • (C) 1 st January 1800
  • (D) None of the above

94. 50 millisimal scale is described in which edition of Organon

  • (A) First Edition
  • (B) Second Edition
  • (C) Third Edition
  • (D) Sixth Edition

95. Who gave the idea of complete symptom –

  • (A) Dr. Hahnemann
  • (B) Dr. Boenninghausen
  • (C) Dr. J. T. Kent
  • (D) Dr. Stuart Close

96. A symptom is said to be complete if there is –

  • (A) Location, Sensation, Modality & Concomitant symptoms
  • (B) Subjective and Objective symptoms
  • (C) Keynote- and uncommon peculiar symptoms
  • (D) All of the above

97. The interpretation of Kent’s 12th observation states –

  • (A) Repetition of medicine in the same potency
  • (B) Repetition of medicine in the higher potency
  • (C) Medicine must be antidoted at once
  • (D) None of the above

98. In which edition of Organon of medicine Dr. Hahnemann included theory of drug dynamisation –

  • (A) Second Edition
  • (B) Fourth Edition
  • (C) Fifth Edition
  • (D) Sixth Edition

99. In which edition of Organon of medicine Dr. Hahnemann has included the theory of chronic diseases –

  • (A) First Edition
  • (B) Second Edition
  • (C) Third Edition
  • (D) Fourth Edition

100. Pseudo Syphilis & Spurious Syphilis are.

  • (A) Synonymous
  • (B) 2 Stages of Syphilis
  • (C) Secondary and tertiary syphilis respectively
  • (D) None of the above

101. In Kent’ s Repertory “Bubo” is in the chapter of­

  • (A) Stomach
  • (B) Abdomen
  • (C) Skin
  • (D) Genitalia Male

102. In Kent’s Repertory “lousiness” belong to chapter –

  • (A) Head
  • (B) Skin
  • (C) Generalities
  • (D) None of the above

103. In Boenninghausen’s Repertory Rubric (Ecstasy) is under

  • (A) Abdomen
  • (B) Hunger & Thirst
  • (C) Intellect
  • (D) Sensorium

104. In Kent’s Repertory Rubric “Reeling” is placed under

  • (A) Head
  • (B) Mind
  • (C) Vertigo
  • (D) None  of the above

105.Prime importance to pathological generals by

  • (A) Dr. Boger
  • (B) Dr. Boenninghausen
  • (C) Dr. Kent
  • (D) Dr. Gross

106. Gentry’s concordance Repertory was published in the year –

  • (A) 1886
  • (B) 1890
  • (C) 1782
  • (D) 1990

107. Dr. Kent died on –

  • (A) 6th June 1916
  • (B) 6th June 1910
  • (C) 2nd July 1922
  • (D)1 st January 1920

108. In which year the Repertory of comparative Materia Medica was published by Lippe

  • (A) 1845
  • (B) 1849
  • (C) 1854
  • (D) 1859

109. Rubric Addison’s disease in Kent’s Repertory is placed under –

  • (A) Bladder
  • (B) Kidney
  • (C) Ureter
  • (D) Generalities

110. Rubric (Lochia) in Kent’s Repertory is in the chapter of –

  • (A) Uterus
  • (B) Genitalia Female
  • (C) Generalities
  • (D) Menstruation

111. Suppression of urine in Kent’s Repertory is placed under –

  • (A) Bladder
  • (B) Ureter
  • (C) Urethra
  • (D) Kidney

112. Which medicine is found under Rubric Benevotance in BBCR –

  • (A) Coffea
  • (B) Aconite
  • (C) Belladonna
  • (D) None of the above

13. Who has Published the repertory of Antipsorics –

  • (A) Dr. Samuel Hahnemann
  • (B) Dr. J.T. Kent
  • (C) Dr. Constantine Hering
  • (D) Dr. Boenninghausen

114. Total number of sections in Boenninghausen’s therapeutic pocket book –

  • (A) 37
  • (B) 7
  • (C) 38
  • (D) None of the above

115. Obesity you will find in Repertory chapter or subchapter of Kent’s

  • (A) Abdomen
  • (B) Extremities
  • (C) Face
  • (D) Generalities

116. Boenninghausen’s therapeutic pocket book consist of –

  • (A) Repertory of Antipsoric medicine
  • (B) Repertory of medicine which are not antipsoric
  • (C) An attempt of showing the relative kinship of Homoeopathic
  • (D) All of the above

117. What is the name of’ the repertory written by Dr. Halmeman –

  • (A) Repertory of Materia Medica
  • (B) Repertory of Antipsoric Medicine
  • (C) Fragmenta De Viribus medicamentorum
  • (D) None of the above

118. What was the full name of Boeninghausen –

  • (A) Von Boenninghausen
  • (B) Fra,az Vorz BoPnn’anghausen
  • (C) Clemens Boenninghausen
  • (D) Baron Clemens Maria Frauz Von Boenninghausen

119.Opisthotonos you will find in which chapter or subchapter of Kent’s Repertory –

  • (A) Extremities
  • (B) Chest
  • (C) Back
  • (D) Generalities

120. Sentimental mood in moonlight is rubric of which chapter or subchapter of Kent’s Repertory –

  • (A) Mind
  • (B) Generalities
  • (C) Vertigo
  • (D) Head

Download answer key : www.similima.com/pdf/delhi-md-entrance-key-2009.pdf

All rights reserved @ similima

Govt of Kerala Homeopathy MD Entrance 2001 Paper II

Questions : 150 Marks : 600 Time : 120 Minutes

1.Please read the instructions given in the OMR Answer Sheet for marking answers. Candidates are advised to strictly follow the instructions contained in the OMR Answer Sheet.

2.For each question there are four suggested answers, given against (A), (B), (C) and (D) of which only one will be MOST APPROPRIATE answer. Indicate it in the OMR Answer Sheet.

3. Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to penalization formula based on the number of right answers actually marked and the number of wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded FOUR marks. ONE mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a question will be deemed as an incorrect response and will be negatively marked.

1. Which of the following is a cause of bilateral lower motor neuron facial palsy?

  • (A) Mumps
  • (B) Leprosy
  • (C) Tabes dorsolis
  • (D) Sarcoidosis 

2. If husband is sex linked receiver and wife is normal which of the following will snuffed from the disease?

  • (A) Daughters
  • (B) Grand daughters
  • (C) Daughter’s son
  • (D) Son’s daughter

3. The commonest cause of Cushing’s syndrome is:

  • (A) Steroids
  • (B) Adrenal tumour
  • (C) Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia  (D) Tuberculosis

4. In nephrotic syndrome, levels of following serum proteins decreases except:

  • (A) Albumin
  • (B) Transferrin
  • (C) Fibrinogin
  • (D) Ceruloplasmin

5. Hypokalemia occurs in:

  • (A) Meningitis
  • (B) Hepatitis
  • (C) Osteomylitis
  • (D) Bronchiectasis

6. Common presentation of primary Hyperparathyroidism is:

  • (A) Gallstone
  • (B) Abdominal pain
  • (C) Recurrent abortion
  • (D)) Subtle neurological and psychiatric symptoms

7. Earliest sensation lost in Diabetic Neuropathy:

  • (A) Weakness of small muscles of hand.
  • (B) Temperature
  • (C) Pain
  • (D) Vibration

8. Region of spine most commonly affected in Rheumatoid arthritis:

  • (A) Cervical
  • (B) Thoracic
  • (C) Lumbar
  • (D) Sacral

9. Vit-B deficiency causes:

  • (A) Haemorrhage
  • (B) C.N.S. affected
  • (C) Fits
  • (D) Depression

10. Diagnostic of fresh M. I.:

  • (A) Waves
  • (B) S. T. depression
  • (C) S.T. elevation
  • (D) U-waves

11. Irradiation causes:

  • (A) Osteosarcoma
  • (B) Paget’s disease of breast
  • (C) Paget’s disease of skin
  • (D) Ewing ’s tumour

12.Egg shell – calcification of hilar lymphnodes is characteristically seen in:

  • (A) Tuberculosis
  • (B) Sarcoidosis
  • (C) Teratoma
  • (D) Silicosis

13. All are seen in right border of heart in chest X-Ray except:

  • (A) IVC
  • (B) SVC
  • (C) Right Atrium
  • (D) Ascending aorta

14. What is emission of Radium?

  • (A) Electron
  • (B) Gamma Rays
  • (C) X-Rays
  • (D) All of the above

15. In a case of suspected left pleural effusion, X-Ray chest should be done in:

  • (A) Left lateral position.
  • (B) Left lateral decubitus position.
  • (C) Right lateral decubitus position.
  • (D) A. P. view supine.

16. The commonest symptom of foreign body in bronchus a child is:

  • (A) Cough
  • (B) Vomiting
  • (C) Dyspnoea
  • (D) Wheezing

17. The commonest  of nasopharyngeal carcinoma (Fossa of Rosenmuller) is:

  • (A) Epistaxis
  • (B) Hoarseness
  • (C) Nasal block
  • (1)) Deafness

18. The commonest cause of epistaxis in an elderly is:

  • (A) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
  • (B) Trauma
  • (C) Hyper tension
  • (D) Antro choanal polyp

19. In a 4 year old with ASOM, commonest organism is:

  • (A) Pneumococcus
  • (B) Staphylococcus
  • (C) Strepto coccus
  • (D) H.Influenza

20. Which of the following is characteristic of T. B. Otitis Media?

  • (A) Multiple perforations.
  • (B) Large central perforation.
  • (C) Marginal perforation.
  • (D) Attic perforation.

21 The earliest change noticed in hypertensive Retinopathy is:

  • (A) Hard exudate
  • (B) Arterial spasm
  • (C) Venus spasm
  • (D) Soft exudate

22. Most toxic intra ocular foreign body is:

  • (A) Iron
  • (B) Copper
  • (C) Lead
  • (D) Glass

23. Sub-conjunctival haemorrhage maybe seen in:

  • (A) Rabies
  • (B) Measles
  • ( Mumps
  • (D) Pertusis

24. Normal size of optic disc is:

  • (A) 2.0mm
  • (B) 2.5mm
  • (C)1 1.5mm
  • (D)1.0mm

25. Impaired colour vision is seen in:

  • (A) Papilloedema
  • (B) Papillitis
  • (C) Toxic Amblyopia
  • (D) Eales disease

26. The local anaesthesia is contra indicated in:

  • (A) Diabetic gangrene of foot
  • (B) Haemophilia
  • (C) Intermittent Claudication
  • (D) All of the above

27. All of the following are Vaso-dilators except:

  • (A) Cocaine
  • (B) Mepi vacaine
  • (C) Procaine
  • (D) Lignocaine

28. Colour of oxygen cylinder is:

  • (A) Blue
  • (B) Black & White
  • (C) Grey
  • (D) Orange

29. Hallucinations may be produced by:

  • (A) Halothane
  • (B) TCE
  • (C) N
  • (D) Ketarnine

30. Broncho spasm is caused by:

  • (A) Morphine
  • (B) N
  • (C) Halothane
  • (D) Isoflurane

31. Erosive arthritis is seen in all except:

  • (A) Gout
  • (B) Osteo arthritis
  • (C) SLE
  • (D) Hyper parathyroidism

32. In Gout the crystals are:

  • (A) Calcium phyrophosphate.
  • (B) Mono sodium urate.
  • (C) Mono potassium urate.
  • (D) Double phosphate.

33. Angular Kyphosis is most commonly produced by:

  • (A) Rickets
  • (B) Senile osteoporosis
  • (C) T1 of spine
  • (D) Hyperparathyroidism

34. Commonest site of prolapsed intervertebral disc is in between:

  • (A) C5-C6
  • (B) C7-Ti
  • (C) T12 – Li
  • (D) L4-L5&L5—Si

35. Plaster of paris chemically is:

  • (A) Calcium Sulphate.
  • (B) Calcium Phosphate.
  • (C) Hydrated Calcium Sulphate.
  • (D) Hemi hydrated Calcium Sulphate.

36. Tetanus neonatorum is best prevented by giving injection Tetanus Toxide to:

  • (A) Foetus after birth.
  • (B) Mother in 1st trimester.
  • (C) Mother in 2 & 3 trimester.
  • (D) Foetus at 3  month of age.

37. Which of the following is true about Iron deficiency anaemia?

              Total Iron Binding                    Serum Iron

  • Capacity (TIBC)
  • (A) Decreased                       Decreased
  • (B) Increased                         Increased
  • (C) Increased                         Decreased
  • (D) Decreased                        Increased

38. The most common complication of mumps in children:

  • (A) Appendicitis
  • (B) Pancreatitis
  • (C) Aseptic Meningitis
  • (D) Orchitis

39. In a newborn, liver is 1 cm. enlarged. The child has:

  • (A) Hemolytic disease
  • (B) Malaria
  • (C) Nutritional cirrhosis
  • (D) Normal development

40. Hemolytic disease in new born is seen if  Rh factor in:
MOTHER         FOETUS

  • (A)   Positive         Negative
  • (B)   Negative        Positive
  • (C)   Positive         Positive
  • (D)   Negative        Negative

41. Poor prognostic feature in schizophrenia:

  • (A) Family history of schizophrenia
  • (B) Late onset
  • (C) Affective symptoms
  • (D) Severe precipitating cause

42. False perception without stimulus is:

  • (A) Illusion
  • (B) Delusion
  • (C) Hallucination
  • (D) Dela Vj

43. Alcohol dependence is best indicated by:

  • (A) Early morning drinking.
  • (B) Physical con complications
  • (D) Withdrawal symptoms.

44. The characteristic symptom of organic psychosis is:

  • (A) Anxiety
  • (B) Depression
  • (C) Hallucination
  • (D) Transient delusion

45. In Lithium toxicity, following organs are affected except:

  • (A) Kidney
  • (B) Liver
  • (C) Brain
  • (D) Heart

46. Acrodermatitis is seen due to the deficiency of:

  • (A) Zinc
  • (B) Copper
  • (C) Iron
  • (D) Pyridoxine

47. Pityriasis versicolor is caused by:

  • (A) Epidermophyton
  • (B) Malezzia furfur
  • (C) Fungus
  • (D) Trichophyton

48. Incubation period of syphilis is:

  • (A) 2-7days
  • (B) 15 – 20 days
  • (C) 9 – 90 days
  • (D) 2-6 weeks

49. Umbilicated white pearly papule is seen in:

  • (A) Chicken pox
  • (B) Small pox
  • (C) Herpes Zoster
  • (D) Molluscum contagiosunt

50. A patient with single hypopigmented anaesthetic patch with satellite lesions on fore arm. Most likely diagnosis is:

  • (A) Tuberculoid leprosy
  • (B) Indeterminate leprosy
  • (C) Neuritic leprosy
  • (D) Lepromatous leprosy

51. Carcinoma cervix may be caused by:

  • (A) Herpes simplex
  • (B) Papilloma virus
  • (C) Syphilis
  • (D) Trichomones

52. The least common complication of fibroid is:

  • (A) Calcification
  • (B) Red-degeneration
  • (C) Hyaline change
  • (D) Malignancy

53. The commonest cause of post partum Haemorrhage is:

  • (A) Vaginal laceration
  • (B) Coagulapathy
  • (C) Cervical t
  • (D) Uterine atony

54. Best sign of Toxaemia of pregnancy:

  • (A) Diastolic blood pressure> 100 mm / Hg
  • (B) Urine outpl4t 400 cc
  • (C) Albuminuria 1 grm per 24 hours
  • (D) Oedema

55. Commonest site of ectopic pregnancy is:

  • (A) Uterus
  • (B) Cervix
  • (C) Tubes
  • (D) Abdomen

56. The dose of iron prophylaxis in a pregnant female is:

  • (A) 20 mg.
  • (B) 60mg.
  • (C) 120mg.
  • (D) 180mg.

57. Iron prophylaxis in a pregnant female is started at:

  • (A) 6 weeks
  • (B) 10 weeks
  • (C) 16 weeks
  • (D) 18 weeks

58. Rachety pelvis is characterised by all of the following except:

  • (A) Wide outlet
  • (B) Wide interspinous diameter
  • (C) Leniform brim
  • (D) False premontory

59. The commonest cause of vulvovaginitis in children is:

  • (A) Gonococcus
  • (B) Trichomoniasis
  • (C) Oxyuriasis
  • (D) Candida

60. Pregnancy can be first diagnosed by ultra sound at:

  • (A) 2weeks
  • (B) 5 weeks
  • (C) 12 weeks
  • (D) 16 weeks

61. Tuberculosis of genital tract is commonest in:

  • (A) Uterus
  • (B) Cervix
  • (C) Vulva
  • (D) Tubes

62. The commonest congenital anamoly of uterus is:

  • (A) Bicomuate Bicollis
  • (B) Bicornuate Unicollis
  • (C) Unicomuate Bicollis
  • (D) Unicomuate Unicollis

63. The commonest ovarian tumour in a lady aged 20-30 years is:

  • (A) Mucinous cystadenoma
  • (B) Thecoma
  • (C) Dysge
  • (D) Serous cystadenoma

64. In pregnant woman at 6 weeks have an ovarian mass 5 x 5 cms and, at 15 weeks have an ovarian mass 2 x 2 cms. The diagnosis is:

  • (A) Graffian follicle cyst
  • (B) Corpus luteum cyst
  • (C) Dermoid cyst
  • (D) Luteum of pregnancy

65. Longest part of fallopian tube:

  • (A) Interstitial
  • (B) Isthmal
  • (C) Ampullary
  • (D) Infundibulum

66. Which of the following disease does not transmit through placenta?

  • (A) Tuberculosis
  • (B) Measles
  • (C) Syphilis
  • (D) Gonorrhoea

67. Common cause of habitual abortion:

  • (A) Hormone deficiency
  • (B) Fault on ovum
  • (C) Sexual transmitted disease
  • (D) Uterine abnormalities

68. Metrorrhagia in fibroid indicates:

  • (A) Ulceration of sub-mucus fibroid
  • (B) Ovarian tumour
  • (C) Twisting
  • (D) Pregnancy

69. With severe pain and bleeding of 28 weeks of pregnancy, diagnosis is:

  • (A) Premature labour
  • (B) Placenta previa
  • (C) Accidental haemorrhage
  • (D) Threatened abortion

70. Vaccine contra-indicated in pregnancy is:

  • (A) Tuberculin
  • (B) Influenza
  • (C) Typhoid
  • (D) Hepatitis-B

71. To differentiate the cause of splenomegaly – best is:

  • (A) Bone marrow
  • (B) Splenic pulp smear
  • (C) Spleno portography
  • (D) Peripheral smear

72. Commonest site of peptic ulcer:

  • (A) Antrum of stomach
  • (B) Pylorus
  • (C) Anterior part of duodenum
  • (D) Posterior part of duodenum

73. Sub-dural haemorrhage is commonly because of rupture of

  • (A) Anterior cerebral artery
  • (B) Middle cerebral artery
  • (C) Posterior cerebral artery
  • (D) Dural sinuses

74. Cleft lip is ideally repaired at:

  • (A) 4weeks
  • (B) 6 week
  • (C) 9 months
  • (D) 1 year

75. Commonest site for ectopic salivary gland tumours is:

  • (A) Tongue
  • (B) Cheek
  • (C) Palate
  • (D) Neck

76.The commonest lumbar epidural tumour in children is:

  • (A ) DERMOID
  • (B) FIBROMA
  • (C) Neuroblostoma
  • (D) Chardoma

77. Useful test for diagnosis of primary hypothyroidism:

  • (A) T.S.H.
  • (B) T3 T4
  • (C) Biopsy
  • (D) Scan

78. The root cause for pyogenic liver abscess is:

  • (A) Biliary sepsis
  • (B) Stone
  • (C) Appendicitis
  • (D) Ulcerative colitis

79. 21 years unmarried female has pre-mensfrual fullness of breast is due to:

  • (A) Fibro adenoma
  • (B) Fibro adinosis
  • (C) Galactococle
  • (D) Abscess

80. Best artery for coronary angiography:

  • (A) Brachial
  • (B) Femoral
  • (C) Carotid
  • (D) Axillary

81. Painless swelling below hyoid bone – most common diagnosis is:

  • (A) Thyroglossal cyst
  • (B) Ectopic thyroid
  • (C) Lymphnode
  • (D) Brachial cyst

82. Not seen in undescended testis:

  • (A) Hernia
  • (B) Teratoma
  • (C) Hydrocele
  • (D) Seminoma

83. Most common site of metastasis from cancer kidney is:

  • (A) Bone
  • (B) Liver
  • (C) Brain
  • (D) Lungs

84. Most common symptom of cancer bladder:

  • (A) Haematuria
  • (B) Urinary incontinence
  • (C) Pain
  • (D) Fever

85. Commonest cause of cerebral infarction:

  • (A) Thrombosis
  • (B) Emboli
  • (C) Arteritis
  • (D) Cysticercosis

86. Commonest cause of adrenal insufficiency in India is:

  • (A) T. B.
  • (B) Auto immune
  • (C) Steroid withdrawal
  • (D) Surgery

87. In post-burn patient, following is seen:

  • (A) Hypo Kalemic Acidosis
  • (B) Hypo Kalemic Alkalosis
  • (C) Hyper Kalemic Alkalosis
  • D) Hyper Kalemic Acidosis

88. Bleeding per rectum is present in following except:

  • (A) Ulcerative colitis
  • (B) Meckelis diverticulurn
  • (C) Rectal Carcinoma
  • (D) Sigmoid Valvulus

89. Which Hernia is least likely to strangulate?

  • (A) Direct Inguinal Hernia
  • (B) Indirect Inguinal Hernia
  • (C) Femoral Hernia
  • (D) Umbilical Hernia

90. Surgery in Varicose Vein is contra indicated:

  • (A) Varicose vein with leg ulcer.
  • (B) Deep vein thrombosis.
  • (C) Multiple incompetent perforators.
  • (D) All of the above.

91. Diarrhoea is caused by following except:

  • (A) Reo virus
  • (B) Calci virus
  • (C) Entero virus
  • (D) Adeno virus

92. False about filaria is:

  • (A) Man is intermediate host.
  • (B) Adult worms are found in lymphatics of man.
  • (C) Culex is a vector.
  • (D) Life span of microfilaria is not exactly known.

93. Cholera true is:

  • (A) Cholera Toxin acts on GM, receptor.
  • (B) Mortality is more with eltor.
  • (C) Activates cycle AMP.
  • (D) Is neurotoxic.

94. Gonococcus does not cause involvement of:

  • (A) Epidydimis
  • (B) Testis
  • (C) Prostate
  • (D) Ant-urethra

95. True about lepra bacilli are:

  • (A) Anti leprosy vaccine gives life long protection.
  • (B) I.N.H. inhibits their growth.
  • (C) Incubation period is 3-4 months.
  • (D) Microbacterium leprae can be grown in foot pad of mice.

96. Most common cause of Acute Coryza:

  • (A) Influenza virus
  • (B) R.S.V.
  • (C) Corona virus
  • (D) Rhino virus

97. Immunoglobulin which crosses placental barrier is:

  • (A )lgG
  • (B) 1gM
  • (C) IgD
  • (D) IgE

98. For HTLV-III infection (AIDS) – the most specific test is:

  • (A) ELISA test
  • (B) Manospot test
  • (C) Weston blot test
  • (D) Virus culture

99. Negri bodies are most often found in:

  • (A) Midbrain
  • (B) Hippo campus
  • (C) Basal ganglia
  • (D) Frontal cortex

100. Epidemiologic study of Hepatitis-B:

  • (A) HBs AG is used
  • (B) IgG and HBC
  • (C) HBcAg
  • (D) HBeAg

101. The Homeopathic law of nature and a provisional explanation of it:

  • (A) Sec. 26 – 35
  • (B) Sec. 36 – 40
  • (C) Sec. 99 -104
  • (D) Sec. 52 – 55

102. Clinical varieties of Acute Diseases ,

  • (A) Sec. 73
  • (B) Sec. 153
  • (C) Sec. 118
  • (D) Sec 150

103.Where the aggravation is quick, short and strong with rapid improvement of the patient

  • (A) 1st observation of Kent
  • (B) 5th observation of Kent
  • (C) 3rd observation of Kent
  • (D) 12th observation of Kent

104. At the present day advanced thinkers are speaking of the fault state of matter which is immaterial substance:

  • (A) Boger
  • (B) Robert
  • (C) Dunham
  • (D) J.T.Kent

105. “The removal of the totality of symptoms means removal of the cause”, is the statement of:

  • (A) Hahnemann
  • (B) Close
  • (C) Dedgeon
  • (D) J.T.Kent

106. The “Friend of Health” was written by:

  • (A) Hahnemann
  • (B) Kent
  • (C) J E Park
  • (D) Socrates

107. “Whenjni,tealth she could not live without her daily dram consequently could not recover without it “ is the statement of:

  • (A) Dunham
  • (B) Close
  • (C) Boenninghausen
  • (D) Hahnemann

108. “Psora – It is the mother of all true chronic diseases except the syphilitic and sycotic” Aphorism:

  • (A) Sec. 70 – 71
  • (B) Sec. 120 121
  • (C) Sec. 81-82
  • (D) Sec. 76-77

109. Inappropriately called chronic diseases:

  • (A) Sec. 69 – 70
  • (B) Sec. 40 – 42
  • (C) Sec. 74 – 75
  • (D) Sec. 77

110. “Scurvy is produced by a system of diet opposite to this, therefore it may be cured by ‘ a dietetic course. The reverse of that which produced it” is said by:

  • (A) Dunham
  • (B) Close
  • (C) Halinemann
  • (D) Kent

111. “The Friend of Health” was published at Frankjoet in the year:

  • (A) 1792
  • (B) 1790
  • (C) 1796
  • (D) 1810

112. “The Medicine of experience’ was written by:

  • (A) Jahr
  • (B) Boenninghausen
  • (C) Kent
  • (D) Hahnemann

113. “The cell lives for itself” says:

  • (A) Hahnemarin
  • (B) Huges
  • (C) Burnet
  • (D) Carpenter

114. “The subjects of Anatomy, Physiology are not life, but only results of life” is said by:

  • (A) Dunham
  • (B) Close
  • (C) Kent
  • (D) Hahnemann

115. 6th edition of organon consists of Aphorism:

  • (A) 291
  • (B) 294
  • (C) 292
  • (D) 293

116. Animal magnetism, mesmarism in Aphorism in 6th Edition:

  • (A) 288, 289
  • (B) 278, 279
  • (C) 281, 282
  • (D) 286, 287

117.Massage in aphorism

  • (A) 280
  • (B) 270
  • (C) 260
  • (D) 290

118. Diet in acute diseases — Aphorism:

  • (A) 259 – 261
  • (B) 267 – 268
  • (C) 142 – 143
  • (D) 262 – 263

119. The manuscript of 6th Edition was left ready by our master ‘Hahnemann in the year’:

  • (A) 1846
  • (B) 1842
  • (C) 1921
  • (D) 1890

120. Thus Homeopathy like a candle stick of the Hebrew Tabernacle has been shaped by Hammering not by casting as was aptly remarked by:

  • (A) C.Dunham
  • (B) Dudgeen .
  • (C) Hughes
  • (D) Hahnemann

121. Necrosis of bones are found in Kent Repertory in chapter:

  •  A) Generalities
  • (B) Extremities
  • (C) In (A)&(B)
  • (D) Not given

122. I Repertory in English language was published by:

  • (A) J.T.Kent
  • (B) Dr. Lippe
  • (C) Dr.C.Hering
  • (D) Dr. P. Schmidth

123. He is the father of Homeopathic repertory:

  • (A) Boenninghausen
  • (B) Jahr
  • (C) Lippe
  • (D) Hahnemann

124. In Kent Repertory where do we find Milk Absent?

  • (A) Generalities
  • (B) Glands
  • (C) Chest
  • (D) Not given

125. He was the first person to evaluate remedies:

  • (A) Boenninghausen
  • (B) Kent
  • (C) Hahnemann
  • (D) Jahr

126. Blue Leucorrhoea — in Kent Repertory:

  • (A) Ambragracia
  • (B) Sepia
  • (C) Hydrastis
  • (D) Alumina

127. First Card Repertory available to profession in the year:

  • (A) 1892 4
  • (B) 1982
  • (C) 1888
  • (D) 1891

128. Synthetic repertory in the year:

  • (A) 1982
  • (B) 1892
  • (C) 1897
  • (D) 1981

129. In Kent Repertory – cross-reference given for HUMOROUS is:

  • (A) Mood
  • (B) Jesting
  • (C) Joy
  • (D) Joyous

130. Awkwardness is found in B. B. C. R.:

  • (A) Extremities
  • (B) Mind
  • (C) Sensorium
  • (D) Sensation

131. If vertigo and headache be very persistent or prostration be prolonged after Nat Mur , will relieve:

  • (A) Gels
  • (B) Apis
  • (C) Glonoine
  • (D) Nux-vom

132. Believes that she is going to die soon that she cannot be helped:

  • (A) Aconite
  • (B) Hydrastis
  • (C) Agnus-C
  • (D) Hell

133. Irritable pains are accompanied by excitement:

  • (A) Aconite
  • (B) Chain
  • (C) Coffea
  • (D) Causticum

134. Convulsions of single muscle:

  • (A) Ignitia
  • (B) Cup-Met
  • (C) Mag-phos
  • (D) Bufo

135. Tension is the key-note of:

  • (A) Aconite
  • (B) Arg-Nit
  • (C) Gels
  • (D) Ox-Acid

136. 4-8 P.M. aggravation in Bowel nosodes:

  • (A) Morgon gartner
  • (B) Morgon pure
  • (C) Proteus
  • (D) Bacillus-7

137. Morning diarrhoea in evening constipation:

  • (A) Alles
  • (B) Sulph
  • (C) Bryonia
  • (D) Nat-Mur

138. Suppressed menses leads to cardiac complaints:

  • (A) Abrotinum
  • (B) Bryonia
  • (C) Kalmia
  • (D) Phos.

139. Aversion to mother:

  • (A) Raphanus
  • (B) Silicia
  • (C) Caust
  • (D) Thuja

140. Back-ache is relieved by lying on abdomen. One drug is Acitic Acid; another is:

  • (A) Nat-Mur
  • (B) Medo
  • (C) Kalicarb
  • (D) Tubercilinum

141. Slow in learning to walk and talk due to sluggish development of mind:

  • (A) Agaricus
  • (B) CaI-carb
  • (C) Aethusa
  • (D) Bar-carb

142. Marasmus with retracted abdomen:

  • (A) Abrotinum
  • (B) Nat-Mur
  • (C) Cal-carb
  • (D) Cal-phos

143. Angry at trifles and perfectly harmless things, but is soon sorry for it:

  • (A) Nat-Mur
  • (B) Ignitia
  • (C) Cham
  • (D) Meze

144. Asthama worse in foggy weather as per Boereik:

  • (A) Nat-Suip
  • (B) Duic.
  • (C) Rhus-Tox
  • (D) Hypericum

145. Complaints from eating melons and drinking impure water as per Boereik:

  • (A) Zingeber
  • (B) Pyrogen
  • (C) Duic.
  • (D) Nat-Sulp

146. Cal-carb and bar-carp – Drug relation:

  • (A) Concordant
  • (B) Incompatable
  • (C) Antidote
  • (D) Complementary

147. All Acid drugs are thirstless except:

  • (A) Acid-pic
  • (B) Lac-Acid
  • (C) Oxalic Acid
  • (D) Acitic Acid

148. 3 P.M. and 3 A.M. aggravation – Drug is:

  • (A) Puls
  • (B) Apis
  • (C) Kali-carb
  • (D) Thuja

149. Cough is better by lying down and aggravated in day time:

  • (A) Hyos
  • (B) Medo
  • (C) Pulse
  • (D) Manganum

150. The pains are tearing and aching – the seat of the disease is:

  • (A) Serous membranes
  • (B) Mucus membrane
  • (C) Tendons
  • (D) Muscles

Download answer key :  www.similima.com/pdf/kerala-mdentrance-2001-key.pdf

All rights reserved @ similima

Govt of Kerala Homeopathy MD Entrance 2001 Paper I

Questions : 150        Marks : 600         Time : 120 Minutes

1.Please read the instructions given in the OMR Answer Sheet for marking answers. Candidates are advised to strictly follow the instructions contained in the OMR Answer Sheet.

2.For each question there are four suggested answers, given against (A), (B), (C) and (D) of which only one will be MOST APPROPRIATE answer. Indicate it in the OMR Answer Sheet.

3. Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to penalization formula based on the number of right answers actually marked and the number of wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded FOUR marks. ONE mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a question will be deemed as an incorrect response and will be negatively marked.

1. Nerve Supply of Larynx except:

  • (A) Superior laryngeal nerve.
  • (B) Recurrent laryngeal nerve.
  • (C) Ext. branch of superior laryngeal nerve. 
  • (D) Ansa cervicalis nerve. 

2. Primary Motor area of the Brain:

  • (A) Superior temporal gyri.
  • (B) Post central gyri
  • (C) Pre central gyri.
  • (D) Inferior frontal gyri.

3. Aductor polics muscle supplied by nerve:

  • (A) Radial nerve.
  • (B) Median nerve.
  • (C) deep branch of peroneal nerve
  • (D) Superficial branch of ulnar nerv

4. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery is a branch of:

  • (A) Vertebral artery.
  • (B) Posterior cerebellar artery.
  • (C) Basilary artery.
  • (D) Internal carotid artery.

5. One of the boundary of Inguinal triangle:

  • (A) Conjoint tendon.
  • (B) Pectineal line.
  • (C) Linea semilunaris.
  • (D) Inferior epigastria artery.

6. Structures pass through cavernous sinus except

  • (A) Internal carotid artery.
  • (B) Occulomotor nerve.
  • (C) Abducent nerve.
  • (D) Mandibular branch of Trigeminal nerve.

7.Gluteus maximus muscle is inserted into:

  • (A) Greater tronchanter.
  • (B) Shaft of femur.
  • (C) Glutial tubersity + ilio tibial tract.
  • (D) Ilio tibial tract.

8.Inferior epigastric artery is branch of:

  • (A) Femoral artery.
  • (B) Ext. iliac artery.
  • (C) Internal iliac artery.
  • (D) Lateral circumflex artery

9.Muscle attached to Ulnar tuberosity

  • (A) Supinator.
  • (B) Biceps brachi.
  • (C) Brachialis.
  • (D) Flexorcarpi ulnaris.

10.Anterior fold of axilla is formed by:

  • (A) Pectoralis major + minor.
  • (B) Pectoralis major + serratus anterior.
  • (C) Pectoralis major + clavi pectrol fascia.
  • (D) Pectoralis major + subscapularies.

11. Attachment of semi membranous include:

  • (A) Ischial tubersity + medial tibial condyle.
  • (B) Ischial tubersity + tibial shaft.
  • (C) Ischial tubersity + fibular head.
  • (D) Ischial tubersity + lateral condyle of tibia.

12. Uterain artery is a branch of:

  • (A) Common iliac artery.
  • (B) Internal iliac artery.
  • (C) External iliac artery.
  • (D) Lateral sacral artery.

13. Duodenal ulcer bleeds from:

  • (A) Left gastric artery.
  • (B) Gastro duodenal artery.
  • (C) gastric artey-
  • (D) Superior pancreatico duodenal artery.

14. Neck pulsation felt inferiorly at medial border of sternocleidomastoid muscle is:

  • (A) Vertebral.
  • (B) Bracheal.
  • (C) Subclavian.
  • (D) Internal jugular.

15. Mandibular nerve lesion at origin involves following:

  • (A) Buccinator.
  • (B) Masseter.
  • (C) Lateral pterigoid.
  • (D)) Tensor tympani.

16. Following have lymphatics except:

  • (A) Brain.
  • (B) Dermis.
  • (C) Eye.
  • (D) Internal ear.

17. Trachea bifurcates at the level of (during deep inspiration):

  • (A) T6-7
  • (B) T3-4
  • (C) T 5-6
  • (D) T4-5

18. Oesophagus and Duodenum share:

  • (A) Submucus glands.
  • (B) Mucus cells.
  • (C) Pseudo stratified column epithelium.
  • (D) All of the above.

19. Ovarian artery is a branch of:

  • (A) Internal iliac.
  • (B) External iliac artery.
  • (C) Common iliac artery.
  • (D) Aorta.

20. Phrenic nerve branch from the roots of:

  • (A) C2,3.
  • (B) C1,2,3.
  • (C) C3,4,5.
  • (D) C4,5,6.

21. Deep peroneal nerve supplies to:

  • (A) Lateral group of muscles of leg.
  • (B) Peronous longus + Extensor digitorium braves.
  • (C) Lateral group of muscles of leg – extensor digitorium braves.
  • (D) Posterior muscles of leg.

22. Thoracic duct ends at

  • (A) Junction of left sub clavian and internal jugular veins.
  • (B) Left jugular vein.
  • (C) Left sub clavian vein.
  • (D) Right jugular vein.

23. Chorda tympani nerve is a branch of:

  • (A) Trigeminal.
  • (B) Facial nerve.
  • Spinal accessory
  • (D) Glossopharyngeal.

24. Ansa cervicalis nerve supplies to:

  • (A) Sterno hyoid.
  • (B) Thyro hyoid.
  • (C) Omo hyoid + Sterno thyroid.
  • (D) All of the above.

25. Nerve supply of Extraocular muscles:

  • (A) Occulomotor.
  • (B) Abducent.
  • (C) Trochlear.
  • (D) All of the above.

26. Woiffian duct gives rise to:

  • (A) Tunica vaginalies.
  • (B) Testis.
  • (C) Epididymis and vas deferéns.
  • (D) Uterus.

27. The sphennoid air sinus opens into:

  • (A) Middle meatus.
  • (B) Spheno ethmoidl recess.
  • (C) Inferior meatus.
  • (D) Bulla ethmoid.

28. Medial side of great toe is supplied by nerve:

  • (A) Saphenous.
  • (B) Tibial posterior.
  • (C) Anterior tibial.
  • (D) Deep peroneal.

29. Pisiform bone gives attachment to:

  • (A) Pisohamate ligament.
  • (B) Abductor pollicus.
  • (C) Extensor carpi ulnaris.
  • (D) Flexor pollicus.

30. Internal pudendal artery is a branch of:

  • (A) Superior iliac.
  • (B) Common peroneal.
  • (C) Internal iliac.
  • (D) Abdominal aorta.

31. Narrowest part of male urethra is at:

  • (A) Fossa navicularies.
  • (B) Bulbar urethra.
  • (C) External meatus.
  • (D) Prostatic urethra.

32. Double nerve supply is received by:

  • (A) Abductor magnus.
  • (B) Abductor longus.
  • (C) Abductor bravis.
  • (D) Gracilus.

33. Superior rectal vein drains into:

  • (A) Portal vein.
  • (B) Internal lilac vein.
  • (C) Hepatic vein
  • (D) Renal vein.

34. Dentate nucleus is a part of:

  • (A) Mid brain.
  • (B) Pons.
  • (C) Medulla.
  • (D) Cerebellum.

35. Duct of wirsung opens at:

  • (A) Minor papilla.
  • (B) Major papilla.
  • (C) Upper 2nd Molar.
  • (D) Side of the frenulum of tongue.

36. Skeletal muscle is deficient in:

  • (A) Glucose-6-phosphatase.
  • (B) Phospho fructokinase.
  • (C) Hexo kinase.
  • (D) Isomerase.

37. The urine Urobilinogen is tested with:

  • (A) Benedicts test.
  • (B) Rotherrs test.
  • (C) Tri-iodine test.
  • (D) Ehrlichs aldehyde test.

38. Tn Nephrotic syndrome with hyperlipidemia, correct is:
Volume               Serum Sodium

  • (A) Hyper Volemia          Low
  • (B) Hypo Volemia           Low
  • (C) Hyper Volemia          High
  • (D) Hyper Volemia          Normal

39. Adult Haemoglobin consists of chains:

  • (A) 2a+2B
  • (B) 2B+2Y
  • (C) 2a+2Z
  • (D) 2a+2Y

40. In which of the following Haemoglobin is abnormal?

  • (A) Sickle cell anaemia.
  • (B) Pernicious anaemia.
  • (C) G-6 P-D Deficiency.
  • (D) Hereditary spherocytosis.

41. Liver does not synthesize:

  • (A) Gamma globulin.
  • (B) Albumin.
  • (C) Prothrombin.
  • (D) Fibrinogen.

42. High dose of glucose causes all except:

  • (A)   Pancreatic Amylose.
  • (B)   Glucose 6 Phosphatosoe.
  • (C)   Acetyl Carboxylosoe.
  • (D)   G-6 PD levels.

43. Atherosclerosis occurs in following except

  • (A) Biliary cirrhosis.
  • (B) Hypercholestreuria.
  • (C) Hyperalimentation.
  • (D) Clofibrate Theary.

44. Membrane integrity of R.B.C. is due to:

  • (A) P. Protein.
  • (B) Spectrin.
  • (C) Ankyrin.
  • (D) Glycophorin.

45. Which is metabolised like xenobiotics?

  • (A) Myoglobulin
  • (B) Biliverdin
  • (C) Hemoglobin
  • (D) Bilirubin

46. Gastrin is secreted from:

  • (A) Duodenum.
  • (B) Pyloric Antrum.
  • (C) Lesser curvature.
  • (D) Cardiac.

47. Human body can store oxygen for:

  • (A) 4-10 minutes.
  • (B) 15-20 minutes.
  • (C) 25 minutes.
  • (C)) 30 minutes.

48. The following are required for calcium absorption except:

  • (A) Bile salts.
  • (B) Calcitonin.
  • (C) Vitamin D.
  • (D) Para Thyroid Hormone.

49. Flow during last stage of expiration decreases because of:

  • (A) Collapse of Alveoli.
  • (B) Dynamic compression of air ways.
  • (C) Breaking by inspiratory muscles.
  • (D) All of the above.

50. Pulse pressure varies as blood flows to the extremities due to:

  • (A) Change in velocity.
  • (B) Change in viscosity.
  • (C) Cross sectional area.
  • (D) Change in vessel wall.

51. Platue phase of action potential is seen in:

  • (A) A. V. Node.
  • (B) S. A. Node.
  • (C) Atrial fibres.
  • (D) Ventricular fibres.

52. Which gas is not responsible for green house effect?

  • (A) Ozone
  • (B) Nitrogen
  • (C) Nitrus oxide
  • (D) Carbon-dioxide

53. Sperm motility is caused by:

  • (A) Epididymis.
  • (B) Testis.
  • (C) Vas-deferens.
  • (D) Prostatic secretion.

54. Order of  activation after  of Purkinje Fibers is

  • (A) Epiendo septum.
  • (B) Endo epi septum.
  • (C) Endo cardium septum epicardium.
  • (D) Episeptum endocardium.

55. Normal mitral valve area in adults is:

  • (A) 0.5-2cm
  • (B) 1-4 cm
  • (C) 4-6 cm
  • (D) 6-8 cm

56. Daily loss of water from skin in absence of visible sweating is:

  • (A) 1. 5 litres.
  • (B) 1 litre.
  • (C) 500 – 700 ml.
  • (D) 200 – 300 ml.

57. Iron absorption is increased by:

  • (A) Fiber diet.
  • (B) Vit-C.
  • (C) Phosphates.
  • (D) Phytic Acid.

58. Pulse blood pressure is:

  • (A) diastolic + 1/3 systolic.
  • (B) Diastolic + – systolic.
  • (C) 1/3 diastolic ÷ systolic.
  • (D) Systolic – Diastolic B. P.

59.F.S.H. & I.C.S.H. are produced by:

  • (A) Ovarian follicles.
  • (B) Corpus luteum.
  • (C) Endometrium. –
  • (D) Adeno hypophysis.

60. Renal artery constriction is associated with:

  • (A) Heart disease.
  • (B) Carotid artery stenosis.
  • (C) Azyotemia.
  • (D) Hyper tension.

61. Sodium is maximum in:

  • (A) Extra cellular spaces.
  • (B) Intra cellular spaces.
  • (C) Interstitial spaces.
  • (D) Bone.

62. Normal glucose level present in C.S.F. is

  • (A) 5omgto8Omg.
  • (B) 8omgtol20mg.
  • (C) 120 mg to 180 mg.
  • (D) not present.

63. Normal daily secretion of gastric intestinal tract is:

  • (A) 2000 cc.
  • (B) 3000 cc.
  • (C) 5500 cc.
  • (D) 8000 cc.

64. Beta-Endorphins are released from:

  • (A) Adrenal cortex.
  • (B) Anterior and intermediate lobe of pituitary.
  • (C) Posterior lobe of pituitary.
  • (D) Thyroid.

65. Hemoglobin to appear first in fetus is:

  • (A) HbA
  • (B) Hb A2
  • (C)HbF
  • (D) HbGowers

66.Glomerular filtration is most dependent on:

  • (A) Renal blood flow.
  • (B) Pressure in bowman’s capsule.
  • (C) Glomerular capillary pressure.
  • (D) Plasma membrane pressure.

67. During action potential permeability of following increases:

  • (A) Chlorine-
  • (B) Sodium+
  • (C) Potassium +
  • (D) HCO

68. Auditory impulses relay to:

  • (A) Sup calliculus.
  • (B) Medial leminiscus.
  • (C) Inferior geniculate.
  • (D) Medial geniculate body.

69. Iron (Fe) Absorption decreases by following except:

  • (A) Phytates.
  • (B) Phosphate.
  • (C) Vit-C.
  • (D) Taurine.

70. Thirst center is situated in:

  • (A) Hypo thalamus.
  • (B) Cerebellum.
  • (C) Medulla Oblongeta.
  • (D) Cerebrum.

71. Cantharis is prepared from:

  • (A) Spanish fly.
  • (B) Cockroach.
  • (C) Home fly.
  • (D) Honeybee.

72. Stapf process is used in the purification of:

  • (A) Alcohol.
  • (B) Water.
  • (C) Sugar of milk.
  • (D) Glycerine.

73. 2nd volume of H.P.I. published in the year:

  • (A) 1892.
  • (B) 1971.
  • (C) 1974.
  • (D) 1992.

74. The branch of pharmacy which deals with the action of drugs:

  • (A) Pharmacology.
  • (B) Pharmacopaedia.
  • (C) Pharmacopia.
  • (D) Pharmacography.

75. Which is the Hahnemann compound?

  • (A) Kali-carb.
  • (B) Nat-sulp.
  • Lachesis muta
  • (D) Cal-sulp.

76. Symbol for if necessary:

  • (A) Q.I.D.
  • (B) P.C.
  • (C) S.O.S.
  • (D) HS.

77. Juice of the fresh plant is mixed with alcohol in:

  • (A) Class IX.
  • (B) Class 1.
  • (C) New Method.
  • (D) Potentisation.

78. Vehicle for a linament is:

  • (A) Paraffin.
  • (B) Spermeceti.
  • (C) Glycerine.
  • (D) Vegetable oil.

79. Polarimeter is used for determining:

  • (A) Specific gravity.
  • (B) P.H.
  • (C) Optical rotation.
  • (D) Boiling point.

80. One tea-spoon is equal to:

  • (A) 15 ml.
  • (B) 10 ml.
  • (C) 5m1.
  • (D) 2m1.

81. The encephalopathy commonly seen in chronic alcoholics is:

  • (A) Reyes Syndrome.
  • (B) Multicystic encephalopa thy.
  • (C) Werneike’s encephalopathy.
  • (D) Spongiform encephalopathy.

82. The hepatocytes formed only in the carriers of chronic Hepatitis B are:

  • (A) Tombstone cells.
  • (B) Councilman bodies.
  • (C) Ground Glass cells.
  • (D) Kupffer cells.

83. The eggs of Schistosoma mansoni are characterised by:

  • (A) Lateral spine.
  • (B) Terminal spine.
  • (C) Lateral knob.
  • (D) None of the above.

84. The only nematode having a free living life cycle along with parasitic life cycle is:

  • (A) Necator Americanus.
  • (B) Strongyloides stercoralis.
  • (C) Dracunculus medinensis.
  • (1)) Trichinella spirates.

85. The eggs are golden brown in colour in:

  • (A) Ascaris.
  • (B) Enterobius vermicularis.
  • (C) Ancylostoma deodenale
  • (D) Trichiuris trichiuria.

86. Pernicious malaria is caused by:

  • (A) Plasmodium Ovale.
  • (B) Plasmodium falciparum.
  • (C) Plasmodium malariae.
  • (D) Plasmodium Vivax.

87. 50% of the gastric carcinomas arise from:

  • (A) Cardiac end of the stomach.
  • (B) Lesser curvature.
  • (C) Antrum.
  • (D) Greater curvature.

88. The intradermal test diagnostic of Echinococcus Granulosis is:

  • (A) Casinos test.
  • (B) Leishmanin test.
  • (C) Sabinfeidman dye test.
  • (D) Bentonite test.

89. Meleyney’s ulcer is caused by:

  • (A) Wet gangrene.
  • (B) Dry gangrene.
  • (C) Synergistic gangrene.
  • (D) Gas gangrene.

90. The purple discolouration which develops in the dependent parts of a dead body is called:

  • (A) Postmortem clotting.
  • (B) Livor mortis.
  • (C) Algar mortis.
  • (D) Riger moths.

91. Lines of zahnare seen in:

  • (A) Ischeniia.
  • (B) Thrombolis.
  • (C) Embolism.
  • (D) Fibroids.

92. Wilson’s disease is caused by accumulation in the body of:

  • (A) Iron.
  • (B) Magnesium.
  • (C) Calcium.
  • (D) Copper.

93. Inhalation of dust,dander, pollen molds initiates the formation of:

  • (A) 1gM.
  • (B) IgA.
  • (C) IgE.
  • (D) IgG.

94. Post-pneumonic fibrosis is called:

  • (A) Carnification.
  • (B) Hepatization.
  • (C) Consolidation.
  • (D) Legionnaires disease.

95. Chronic bacterial pneumonia can occur as a result of:

  • (A) A sequele to acute pneumonia.
  • (B) Prolonged smoking.
  • (C) In apart of lung caused by bronchogenic carcinoma
  • (D) All of the above.

96. The disease occurring in cotton workers is:

  • (A) Berryliosis.
  • (B) Pneumoconiosis.
  • (C) Byssinosis.
  • (D) Brucellosis.

97. The following dietary factors are responsible for carcinoma stomach except:

  • (A) Nitrates.
  • (B) Nitrites.
  • (C) Nitro carbons.
  • (D) Poly cyclic hydrocarbons.

98. A malignant tumour arising from extreme apex of a lung:

  • (A) Pancoast tumour.
  • (B) Wilm’s tumour.
  • (C) Salivary tumour.
  • (D) Blastoma.

99. River blindness is caused by:

  • (A) Brugia timori.
  • (B) Loa ba.
  • (C) Onchocerca valvulus.
  • (D) Mansonella Ozzardi.

100. A brisk, acute inflammatory reaction which develops within few minutes after an injection of antigen into the skin of an animal is:

  • (A) Tuberculin reaction.
  • (B) Arthus reaction.
  • (C) Contact sensitivi
  • (D) Cytotoxic reaction.

101. Down’s syndrome is associated with:

  • (A) Trisomy 21.
  • (B) Mother aged 30-45 years.
  • (C) Mangoloid face.
  • (D) Allof the above.

102. The cells in the most of chronic lymphogenous leukemia are:

  • (A) Lymphoblasts.
  • (B) Lymphocytes.
  • (C) Palger-Huet Phenomenon.
  • (D) T-cells.

103. Humoral immunity is mediated by:

  • (A) T. Lymphocytes.
  • (B) B. Lymphocytes.
  • (C) Kupffer cells.
  • (D) Monocytes.

104. The malignant pustule with vesiculation, white cell infiltration and necrosis is usually produced by:

  • (A) Adeno virus.
  • (B) Leishmania donovani.
  • (C) Anthrax bacillus.
  • (D) Pasterella tulerensis.

105. Which of the following may be found in a patient with pulmonary infarction?

  • (A) Dyspnoea
  • (B) Pain in breathing
  • (C) Haemoptysis
  • (D) All of the above.

106. Gastrin is produced primarily in:

  • (A) Antrum.
  • (B) Pylorus.
  • (C) Pancreas.
  • (D) Liver.

107. The following may be common manifestation of mumps e

  • (A) Orchitis.
  • (B) Pancreatitis.
  • (C) Parotitis.
  • (D) All of the above.

108. Pulmonary emboli most commonly originate from:

  • (A) The right heart.
  • (B) Superficial veins of the lower extremity.
  • (C) Deep leg veins of the lower extremity.
  • (D) Pelvic veins.

109. The most common cause of death in cirrhosis is:

  • (A) Hemorrhage.
  • (B) Renal failure.
  • (C) Liver failure.
  • (D) Septicemia.

110. The excretion of uric acid is impaired by:

  • (A) Morphin.
  • (B) Nicotine.
  • (C) Alcohol.
  • (D) None of the above

111. The most common organism in burn sepsis is:

  • (A) Streptococcus.
  • (B) Staphylococcus.
  • (C) Proteins.
  • (D) Pseudomonas.

112. Organisms that may cause cripitant cellulitis include all except:

  • (A) Clostridia.
  • (B) Bacteroids.
  • (C) Staphylococcus.
  • (D) Anaerobic streptococcus.

113. Amoebic ulceration is most commonly noted in:

  • (A) Ileum.
  • (B) Caecum.
  • (C) Appendix.
  • (D) Ascending colon.

114. A commonly observed complication of botulism is:

  • (A) Massive hematemesis.
  • (B) Respiratory failure.
  • (C) Convulsions.
  • (D) Tetany.

115. The most important factor in preventing tetanus is:

  • (A) Tetanus antitoxin.
  • (B) Tetanus toxoid.
  • (C) Previous immunization.
  • (D) Proper initial wound care.

116. Cyclodevelopmental parasite

  • (A) Micro filaria.
  • (B) Flavi virus.
  • (C) P. vivax.
  • (D) S.japonicum.

117. Food poisoning is caused by:

  • (A) V. Cholerae type 139.
  • (B) S. para typhi. A.
  • (C) Cl. perfringens.
  • (D) Staph epidermis.

118. Vitamin-D is not present in:

  • (A) Cod liver oil.
  • (B) Fish fat.
  • (C) Milk.
  • (D) Egg.

119. Normal iron requirement during pregnancy:

  • (A) 2mg.
  • (B) 40mg.
  • (C) 80mg.
  • (D) 100 mg.

120.Additional calories required during lactation:

  • (A) 450.
  • (B) 550
  • (C)650.
  • (D)750.

121.M.T.P. is done up to weeks:

  • (A) 28
  • (B) 7
  • (C) 14
  • (D) 10

122.Most common source of Lenolic Acid:

  • (A) Mustard oil.
  • (B) Sunflower oil.
  • (C) Groundnut oil.
  • (D) Safflower oil.

123. Following are good sources f Vitamin-B12 except:

  • (A) Soyabean.
  • (B) Liver.
  • (C) Fish.
  • (D) Meat.

124. In Japanese encephalitis following are true except:

  • (A) Mortality 10%.
  • (B) C. TRITAENEORHYRICHUS most important vector in South India.
  • (C) I.P. 5-15 days.
  • (D) Vaccination of population at risk recommended.

125. Immunity develops — after Japanese Encephalitis vaccination:

  • (A) 7 days.
  • (B) 15 days.
  • (C) 30 days.
  • (D) 60 days.

126. Which of the following vaccines is not to be given to a patient with AIDS?

  • (A) B.C.G.
  • (B) D.P.T.
  • (C) O.P.V.
  • (D) Measles.

127. Vaccine CONTRAINDICATED IN PREGNANCY

  • (A) Tuberculin.
  • (B) Polio.
  • (C) Hepatitis-B.
  • (D) Typhoid.

128. Depression is best measured by:

  • (A) Arithmetic mean.
  • (B) Geometric mean.
  • (C) Immunization.
  • (D) Chemo therapy.

129. In a suspected case of Polio following are done except:

  • (A) Isolation.
  • (B) Notification.
  • (C) Immunization.
  • (D) Chemo therapy.

130. Epidemiologic study of Hepatitis-B:

  • (A) HBS Ag is used.
  • (B) Ig G anti HBC.
  • (C) HBC Ag.
  • (D) HB&Ag.

131. Disease to be eradicated by 2000 AD:

  • (A) Filaria.
  • (B) Malaria.
  • (C) Tetanus
  • (D) Typhoid.

132. Daily requirement of calcium in pregnancy is:

  • (A) 50mg.
  • (B) 100mg.
  • (C) 500mg.
  • (D) 1000 mg.

133. A child develops food poisoning 16-18 hours after consuming ice-cream, the most probable causative organism in this case is

  • (A) Staphylococcus aureus.
  • (B) Salmonella Typhimurium.
  • (C) Clastridium Perfringes.
  • (D) Clastridium Botulium.

134. Fluoride level in drinking water should be:

  • (A) 0.5 PPM.
  • (B) 1.0 PPM;
  • (C) 0.3 PPM.
  • (D) 2.0 PPM.

135. Jaggery is rich in:

  • (A) Vitamin-B2.
  • (B)  Iron.
  • (C) Niacin.
  • (D) Vitamin-C.

136. For a patient with burns more than 40%, average energy requirement is:

  • (A) 4000 Calories
  • (B) 4500 Calories
  • (C) 6000 Calories
  • (D) 7000 Calories

137. Man is intermediate host for:

  • (A) Enterobiasis
  • (B) Schislosomiasis Harmotobiurn
  • (C) Echinococcus
  • (D) Tarnia Saginata.

138. Breast feeding is contra indicated, if mother receiving:

  • (A) Saline.
  • (B) Broad Spectrum antibiotics.
  • (C) Anti thyroid drugs
  • (D) Streptoinycine

139. Noise induced hearing loss affects frequency of:

  • (A) 1000 Hz.
  • (B) 2000 Hz.
  • (C) 3000 Hz.
  • (D) 4000 Hz.

140. Ringer Lactate Solution contains following electrolytes:

  • (A) Na+and Cl
  • (B) Na+;K+  and  Cl
  • (C) Na + ; K + Cl and Ca
  • (D) Na +; K + and HCO

141. BARBERIOUS test is used to detect:

  • (A) Animal blood.
  • (B) Human blood.
  • (C) Vaginal fluid.
  • (D) Semen.

142. Generalised convulsions are seen in poisoning with

  • (A) Nux-vom.
  • (B) Mercury.
  • (C) Lead.
  • (D) Arsenic.

143. ABRASION collaris is seen with:

  • (A) Rifle bullet.
  • (B) Dum-Dum bullet.
  • (C) Richochetto wound.
  • (D) None of the above.

144. Inquest which is not carried out in India is:

  • (A) Coroner’s Inquest.
  • (B) Police Inquest.
  • (C) Magistrate Inquest.
  • (D) Medical examiner’s Inquest.

145. Rigor Mortis simulate:

  • (A) Cadaveric spasm.
  • (B) Livor Mortis.
  • (C) Algur Mortis.
  • (D) Mummification.

146. Test for detection of old blood stain is:

  • (A) Precipitin test.
  • (B) Benzidine test.
  • (C) Gel diffusion.
  • (D) Absorption elution.

147. Medical negligence falls under following except:

  • (A) Sec. 304 A.
  • (B) Indian Contract Act.
  • (C) IPC 312.
  • (D) IPC 351.

148. Aseptic Autolysis is seen in:

  • (A) Maceration.
  • (B) Mummification.
  • (C) Rigor mortis
  • (D) Putrefaction.

149. Widmark formula is used in:

  • (A) Alcohol.
  • (B) Barbiturates.
  • (C) Cannabis.
  • (D) Opium.

150. Golden hair is seen in poisoning with:

  • (A) Arsenic.
  • (B) Mercury.
  • (C) Lead.
  • (D) Copper.

Download answer key :   www.similima.com/pdf/kerala-mdentrance-2001-key.pdf

All rights reserved @ similima

Model MD Homeopathy Entrance 2005 Paper II

Questions : 150 Marks : 600 Time : 120 Minutes

1. Please read the instructions given in the OMR Answer Sheet for marking answers. Candidates are advised to strictly follow the instructions contained in the OMR Answer Sheet.

2. For each question there are four suggested answers, given against (A), (B), (C) and (D) of which only one will be MOST APPROPRIATE answer. Indicate it in the OMR Answer Sheet.

3. Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to penalization formula based on the number of right answers actually marked and the number of wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded FOUR marks. ONE mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a question will be deemed as an incorrect response and will be negatively marked.                                                           

1)The mechanism of fatty changes in the liver in malnutrition is:

  • a) Inhibition of fatty acid oxidation          b) Decrease in synthesis of lipid acceptor proteins
  • c) Increase in synthesis of triglycerides d) Alteration of mitochondrial function

2) One of the following is a neoplastic giant cell:

  • a) Langhans giant cell  b) Warthin Finkledy giant cell
  • c) Reed Stemberg cell d) Osteoclast

3)Essential features of nephritic syndrome includes all except:

  • a) Increased Urinary excretion b) Hypoalbuminemia
  • c) Peripheral edema                       d) Decreased serum cholesterol

4)Immune complexes located within the basement membrane would most likely be found in a patient with:

  • a) Acute Glomerulonephritis                                     b) Membranous GN
  • c) Type 1 Membranoproliferative GN {MPGN}   d) Type-2 MPGN

5)In AML Chromosomal anomaly is:

  • a) 9 & 22      b) 21 & 9
  • c) 20 & 10    d) 8 & 14

6) Highly selective proteinuria contains:

  • a) fibrinogen and albumin       b) transferin
  • c) transferrin and fibrinogen d) fibrinogen

7) Edward syndrome is due to:

  • a) Chromosome 18 anomaly b) Chromosome 13 anomaly
  • c)Chromosome 11 anomaly d) Chromosome & anomaly

8) Turner’s syndrome is:

  • a) XO       b) XXY
  • c) XXX    d) XXO

9) Ulcerative colitis is characterized by all except:

  • a) Crypt abscess b) Sub mucosal inflammation
  • c) Pseudo polyps seen d) Fistula formation

10) M4 stage of AML is called as:

  • a) Acute myelomonoblastic leukemia b) Acute monoblastic leukemia
  • c) Myelomonocytic leukemia                 d) Monocytic leukemia

11)A patient is performing the movement of flexion of the hip Joint when she:

  • a) Moves the limb away from the midline in the coronal plane
  • b) Moves the limb posteriorly in the paramedian plane :
  • c) Moves the limb anteriorly in the paramedian plane
  • d) Moves the limb towards the median sagittal plane

12) Inversion of the foot is a movement when the sole faces :

  • a) Downwards & Posteriorly b) Medially
  • c) Laterally                                  d) Downwards & Laterally

13) The lines of cleavage or Langer’s lines are:

  • a) Finger Prints
  • b) Skin creases over joints
  • c) The direction of the rows of elastic fibers in the dermis
  • d) The direction of the rows of collagen fibers in the dermis

14) Which of the following statements are true regarding root of right lung…

  • a) The right phrenic nerve passes anterior to the lung root
  • b) The azygos vein arches forward over the superior margin of the lung root.
  • c) The right pulmonary artery lies anterior to the principal bronchus in the lung root
  • d) The right Vagus nerve passes posterior to the lung root

15) The strenocostal surface [anterior] of the heart is formed by the:

  • a) Right atrium b) Right ventricle
  • c) Left ventricle d) Left atrium

16) The following statements concerning the abdominal part of the sympathetic trunk are not true except:

  • a) It enters the abdomen behind the lateral arcuate ligament.
  • b) All the ganglia receive white rami communicantes
  • c) Gray Rami Communicantes are given off to the lumbar spinal nerves
  • d) The trunk passes 6 segmentally arranged ganglia

17) Which of the following are correct?

  • a) The pre aortic lymph nodes drain lymph from the kidneys & supra renals.
  • b) The branches of the superior mesenteric artery serving the jejunum form more arcades than those serving the ileum
  • c) The coronary ligament of the liver lies anterior to the abdominal portion of the esophagus.
  • d) The attachment of the hepatic veins to the inferior vena cava is one of the most important supports to the liver

18)The hilus of the right kidney contains the following important structures

  • a) Branches of the renal artery b) Renal pelvis
  • c) Sympathetic nerve plexus     d) Tributaries of renal veins

19) Which of the following muscles elevate the palate during swallowing?

  • a) Tensor veli palatini b) Levator veli palatini
  • c) Palatopharygeus     d) Palatoglossus

20) A patient is unable to taste a piece of sugar cube placed on the anterior part of his tongue, Which cranial nerve is affected?

  • a)Facial   b) Glossopharyngeal
  • c) Vagus d) Hypoglossal

21) AII the following statements regarding “Protein choline acetyl tiansferase {ChAT} are true except:

  • a) ChAT is an enzyme that is synthesized on ribosome’s located in the nerve terminal of presynaptic neuron.
  • b) ChAT synthesizes ACh from the substrates acetyl coenzyme A {Acetyl COA } & choline.
  • c) ChAT exists on nerve terminals of both central & peripheral nervous system.
  • d) ChAT is responsible for the synthesis of the neurotransmitter acetyl choline before vestibular storage.

22) If a person has a genetic defect in the enzyme that produces N-acetyl glutamate, the most likely clinical finding would be Hyperammonemia with:

  • a) No detectable citrulline b) Elevated levels of arginine
  • c) Elevated levels of urea d) No detectable omithine

23) All the following statements correctly pair a metabolic pathway with its appropriate subcellular location except

  • a) Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in mitochondria
  • b) Fatty acid synthesis occurs in mitochondria
  • c) Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondria
  • d) Ganglioside degeneration occurs in lysosomes

24) All the following statements regarding CARN1T1NE DEFICIENCY is true except:

  • a) Some patients of this autosomal recessive disorder respond to oral camitine therapy.
  • b) A diet restricted to short & medium chain fatty acids will prove useful
  • c) Pathological fatty deposition in muscles are frequently seen
  • d) A deletion mutation in the gene for “camitine palmitoyl transferase “would result in an entirely different phenotype.

25) All the following are cyclic dependent kinase inhibitors EXCEPT:

  • a)p21   b)p27Kip1
  • c)p53  d)p16

26) Which of the following congenital immunodeficiencies involves only a T- cell deficiency?

  • a)Di George’s syndrome                             b) Ataxia- telangiectasia
  •  c) X-linked hypogamma globulimia   d) none of the above

27) Which of the following is true about the enzyme it describes ?

  • a) Aldolase cleaves a carbon – carbon bond to create a carboxyl group.
  • b) Hydroiase adds water to break a bond
  • c) Isomerase hydrolyzes ester linkages to form an acid & an alcohol
  • d) Dehydrogenases adds water to a carbon-carbon bond without breaking the bond, or conversely,removing water to create a double bond.

28) A 80 year old lady with 35 year h/o NIDDM is admitted to a hospital for mental status changes .An arterial blood gas revels a pH of 7.26 & her anion gap is 12.Wnich of the following statements correctly describes her metabolic acidosis due to renal failure ?

  • a) A large anion gap is indicative of better compensation.
  • b) The metabolic acidosis is caused by an excess production of ammonia in the tubular cells
  • c) The large anion gap indicates that her plasma bicarbonate level is elevated.
  • d) This patient has already passed the hyperchloremic phase of her acidosis

29) The cost in high energy phosphate bonds for the formation of 1 mole of glucose from pyruvate is:

  • a) 8moles of ATP    b) 6 moles of ATP
  • c) 4 moles of ATP   d) 2 moles of ATP

30) Which of the statements best charecterize glucose ?

  • a) It usually exits in furanose form                   b) Its a ketose
  • c) It forms part of the disaccharide sucrose d) It is oxidized to form sorbitol

31)ln Wallarian degeneration of a peripheral nerve:

  • a) The axons regenerate at a rate of 1 cm / day.
  • b) Occurs in the distal portion of the broken axon leaving an empty tubule
  • c) Is a feature of neuropraxia
  • d) All the above

32) Surfactant is a substance that:

  • a) Is produced in the liver of new borns
  • b) Is important in the new borns but is of little importance in adults
  • c) Is produced in the basement membrane of lungs
  • d) Helps in prevention of collapse of the alveoli

33) Calcium enters the cardiac cell during:

  • a) Rapid upstroke of the action potential
  • b) Down slope of the action potential
  • c) Plateau phase of the action potential
  • d) Slow diastolic depolarization {phase 4} of the action potential. ;

34) The functional residual capacity of lung is defined as:

  • a) Tidal volume & residual Volume
  • b) Tidal Volume & expiratory reserve volume
  • c) Inspiratory reserve volume & tidal volume
  • d) Residual volume & expiratory reserve volume

35) The metabolic function of parathormone includes all these except:

  • a) Mobilizes calcium from bone
  • b) Decreases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
  • c) Promotes renal production of 1,25 hydroxy cholecalciferol
  • d) Lowers serum phosphate level

36) The need to vitamin B12 & folic acid in the formation of RBC’s is primarily to effect on :

  • a) Synthesis & release of erythropoietin from the kidneys
  • b) Absorption of Iron from GUT •
  • c) DNA synthesis in the bone marrow
  • d) Hemoglobin formation in the RBC’s.

37) Intra pulmonary shunting refers to:

  • a) anatomical dead space b) alveolar dead space
  • c) Wasted ventilation, d) Perfusion in excess of ventilation

38) During regeneration after axonotmesis, the usual delay before the start of growth of axons in the distal direction is about:

  • a) 2 days b) 10days
  • c) 3 weeks d) 2 months

39) Absorption of H2O in PCT is characteristic by all except:

  • a) Vasopressin dependent b) 60% of water is absorbed
  • c) Depends on solutes         d) Vasopressin independent

40) Cerebellar Ataxia is characterized by all except:

  • a) Resting tremor b) Dysdiadochokinesis
  • c) Ataxia                 d) Hypotonia

41) The mosquito, which transmits classical dengue fever

  • (a) Anophelus (b) Culex
  • (c) Stephansi (d) aedes aegypticus

42) The MTP Act was passed in the year

  • (a) 1971 (b) 1973 (c) 1974 (d) 1976

43) Low birth weight baby means weight below

  • (a) 2kg (b) 2.3kg
  • (c) 2.5 kg (d) 2.8 kg

44) The percentage of available chlorine in bleaching powder

  • (a) 30% (b) 33%
  • (c) 43% (d) 45%

45) In drinking water admissible amount of E Coli is

  • (a)nil             (b)10
  • (c)100        (d)20

46) Unit of absorbed dose of radiation is

  • (a) rad    (b) rem
  • (c)rot     (d) roentgen

47) Minimum airspace for each worker as per Indian factories act is

  • (a) 200 cft    (b) 300cft
  • (c) 500 cft     (d) 700 cft

48) Dry weather flow is

  • (a) amount of humidity
  • (b) Velocity of dry air
  • (c) Velocity of humid air
  • (d) Average amount of sewage through the system

49) BMR value of Indian male is

  • (a) 30 Kcal /sqm/hr (b) 28.3kcal/sqm/hr
  • (c) 38.3Kcal /sqm/hr (d) 32kcal/sqm/hr

50) Small pox was eradicated in the year

  • (a)1978    (b)1977
  • (c)1980    (d)1989

51) Adapted to persons of light complexion,blue eyes,blonde in preference to brunettes;tall thin narrow chest;active and precocious mentally weak physically

  • (a) phos    (b) tub
  • (c) brom    (d) calc

52) Adapted to persons with light hair and skin irritable quarrelsome disposition;easily offended at trifles vexed at everything

  • (a)nux v (b)petr
  •  (c) anac (d) plat

53)Easily adapted to diseases of women spasmodic and hysterical complaints complicated with uterine diseases who have suffered for years from attack of indigestion or biliosness

  • (a) sep (b) sab (c) mag carb (d) mag mur

54) For torpid lymphatic constitutions;persons with light hair and complexion slow to act,muscles soft and flabby

  • (a) hep sulph (b) alumina (c)alumen (d)hell

55)For anaemic and dark complexioned dark hair and eyes;thin spare subjects instead of fat

  • (a)sil (b) calc phos (c) lod (d)apis

56) chemical analogue of dulcamara

  • (a)barcarb (b)kali sulph (c) Mag cart) (d) mere

57)lf vertigo and headache be very persistent after natrum …. will relieve

  • (a) bell (b) Glon (c) Bry (d) nux

58) After arnica it hastens the curative process in the joints

  • (a) rhus tox (b) ruta (c) calc phos(d) hep sulph

59) After overaction from repeated doses of bell in whooping cough

  • (a) dros (b) cor rub (c) stram (d) sulph

60)When carefully selected remedies fail to produce a favourable effect in acute diseases it frequently rouse the reactive powers of the system clears the case

  • (a) Op (b) Psor (c)sulph (d) tub

61)’…….. an invaluable gift of god .What does Hahnemann refers to here

  • (a) honest physician (b) Boenninghausen (c) sugar of milk (d) homoeopathic medicine

62) While in a treatment for chronic disease skin was burnt .what is the treatment advised by Hahnemann in ‘chronic diseases’

  • a) do nothing ,wait for the original remedy to act (b) apply a compress of water mixed with Ars in potency
  • (c) apply cold water and cantharis ointment (d) urtica urens

63)When can a cure of pure chronic case of twenty years duration be called cito according to Hahnemann

  • (a)if done in 1-2 years (b) if done by 1st month
  • (c) if done in 1 week (d) no such period can be said

64)which medicine should be smelled by females during menses suffering from too profuse,long lasting menses before she takes the selected similimum

  • (a) no medicine needed,similimum is enough(b) sulphur
  • (c) nux v                      (d) sepia

65 ‘Only journey men,half homoeopaths still,I am sorry to say use such a contradiction in adjecto”.What is being refered to

  • (a) use of mixtures (b) use of low potency medicines
  • (c) frequent repetition (d) blood letting

66) In the daily report of a patient taking antipsoric medicine ,living at a distance the symptom which is underscored once indicates

  • (a) new symptom (b) return of old symptom
  • (c) aggravation of existing symptom
  • d) amelioration of existing symptom

67) Dose of sac lac advised by Hahnemann in chronic diseases

  • (a)1 grain (b) 2 grain (c) 3 grain (d)4 grain

68) In course of a treatment with a medicine of 30th potency ,the amelioration appears stand still but the medicine is still indicated .what is the advice of Hahnemann in ‘chronic disease’

  • (a) give an intercurrent (b)switch to 200th potency
  • (c) switch to 24 th potency (d) switch to 18th potency

(69) What is the medicine to be given first in pseudo syphilis ?

  • (a) mercury (b) sulphur
  • (c) hepar sulph (d) nitric acid

70) The size of the poppy seed globule proposed by Hahnemann in chronic diseases

  • (a)1000th of a grain (b) 300th of grain
  • (c) 200th of grain (d) 100th of grain

71) Infants born to mother of advanced age have a greater risk of

  • a)Downs Syndrome       b)Trisomy18
  • c)Marfan’s Syndrome    d)ASD

72) Defect most commonly occurring in Congenital rubella

  • a)Deafness b)Cataract
  • c)Microcephaly d)All the Above

73) Pleomorphic Rash is a feature of

  • a)Smallpox b)Chickenpox
  • c)Erythyma infectiosum d) Erythyma Subitium

74) Most Virulent form of Shigellosis is caused by

  • a)S.Shigella     b)S.Sonnei
  • c)S.Flexneri    D)S.Boydii

75) Endomyocardial fibrosis is due to

  • a)Tapioca    b)Aflatoxin
  • c)Gluten      d)Fish

76) Bitot’s Spots seen in deficiency of

  • a)Thiamine b)Niacin
  • C)Pyridoxine d)Riboflavin

77) Earliest change in Diabetic retinopathy is

  • a)hard exudate             b)soft exudate
  • c)dot haemorrhage    d)Microaneurism

78) Blue sclera is seen in

  • a)Alkaptonuria                       b)0steogenesis Imperfecta
  • c)Ehler-Danlos syndrome d)Kawasaki Syndrome

79) Smoking most commonly causes

  • a)CA Lung
  • b)TAO
  • c)C/c bronchitis
  • d)Myocardial Ischaemia

80) Commonest site of Multiple Myeloma is

  • a)Long Bone b)Skull c)Rib d)vertebrae

81) Fish head appearance of the vertebral bodies is seen in

  • a)paget’s disease b)Rickets c)osteomalacia d)0steoporosis

82) Commonest recurrent dislocation is seen with

  • a)shoulder b)Patella c)Elbow d)Hip

83) Delusion is not seen in

  • a)Depression b)delirium c)Schizophrenia d)Mania

84) Which hallucination is characteristic of alcoholism?

  • a)visual b)Tactile c)Auditory d) Gustatory

85) Most characteristic of Korsakoffs psychosis is

  • a)visual hallucination b)Peripheral neuropathy c)Long-term memory loss d)Confusion

86) Dementia is produced by vitamin

  • a)A b)D    c)Pyridoxine    d)Niacin

87) Absolute contraindication for ECT is

  • a)Convulsion b)Pregnancy c))CSOL  d)Bleeding disorder

88) Neurotransmitter which is found in increased quantities in schizophrenia is

  • a)Noradrenalin b)Serotonin c)Dopamine d) GABA

89) Nasal allergy is most often due to

  • a)dust b)Pollen grain c)animal dandies d)smoke

90) Commonest cause of suppurative otitis media is

  • a) Streptococcus b)Pneumococcus c)Staphylococcus d)Pseudomonas

91) Commonest symptom of laryngeal CA

  • a)Hoarseness of voice b)Cough c)Dyspnoea d)Hemoptysis

92) Rhinosporidosis is due to

  • a)protozoa b)Bacteria c)Fungus d)Virus

93) Sub mucous resection is done in

  • a)tonsillitis b)nasal polyp c)DNS d)Adenoid

94) The presence of Keyser-Fleischer ring is pathognomonic of

  • a)HTN b)Lew’s syndrome c)Wilson’s/disease d)Hemochromatosis

95) Roth’s spot’s are seen in

  • a)Diabetes b)Chonoretinitis c)Bacterial endocarditis d)HTN

96) Deficiency of which vitamin is not seen in newborn

  • a)E    b)D    c)C   d)K

97) A wide and fixed split second heart sound occurs in

  • a)mitral stenosis   b)ASD
  • c)VSD                        d)Coarctation of aorta

98) Delayed dentition is most characteristic of

  • a)Cretinism      b)Mongolism
  • c)Acromegaly d)Malnutrition

99) In an infant with ASOM, the infecting organism is likely to be

  • a)Pneumococcus b)H.Influenza
  • c)Streptococcus d)Staphylococcus

100) Most common complication of measles in children is

  • a)ASOM     b)Broncho pneumonia
  • c)0rchitis d)Meningitis

101) In bronchial asthma, there is constriction of

  • a)large airway                 b)medium airway
  • c)terminal bronchiole d)respiratory bronchioles

102) Chancroid is caused by

  • a)H.Ducreyi                        b)H.Vaginalis
  • c)Treponema pallidum d)Treponema pertinuae

103) Pitting of nails is seen in

  • a)Lichen ptannus b)psoriasis
  • c)pemphigus        d)leprosy

104) Fir – tree appearance is seen in

  • a)Pityriasis rosea b)Psoriasis
  • c)measles                d)Secondary syphilis

105) Necrobiosis lipoidica is most marked on

  • a)Forearms       b)Face
  • c)Front of legs d)back of legs

106) A flat discolouration in skin of 1cm is called

  • a)plaque b)macule
  • c)papule d)wheal

107) Hang up reflex is seen in

  • a)Thyrotoxicosis               b)Hypothyroidism
  • c) Hypoparathyroidism d)Cushing’s syndrome

108) Torre’s inclusion body is found in

  • a)yellow fever b)Dengue
  • c)KFD                 d)Wiel’s disease

109) Sonogyi phenomena is

  • a)Hypoglycemia followed by hyperglycemia
  • b)Hyperglycaemia followed by hypoglycaemia
  • c)Glycosuria with normal blood sugar
  • d)Reactive hyperglycaemia

110) Satellite lesions is seen in

  • a)Borderiine leprosy       b)Tuberculoid leprosy
  • c)Lepromatous leprosy d) Intermediate leprosy

111) Icterus is most marked in sclera because

  • a)High content of collagen  b)High content of elastin
  • c)it is white                                d)lt is exposed to sunlight

112) Which vitamin prevents development of pernicious anaemia, but doesn’t protect against CNS manifestation

  • a)Pyridoxine    b)B12
  • c)Biotin              d)Folic acid

113) Enzyme raised within hours of Ml and lasting 2-3 days is

  • a)LDH   b)CPK
  • c)AST   d)ALT

114) Most common cardiac involvement in RA

  • a)Pancarditis b)Pericarditis
  • c)Myocarditis d)Endocarditis

115) Parkinsonism may occur due to chronic exposure to

  • a)Chromium b)Manganese
  • c)Molybdenum d)Nickel

116) The most common symptom of primary biliary cirrhosis is

  • a)Pain abdomen b)Fever
  • c)Weakness         d)Pruritis

117) Kimmelstein-Wilson lesions are specific for

  • a)Type I DM b)Type II DM
  • c)MODY         d)DIDMOAD

118) Most common cranial nerve involved in ophthatmoplegic migraine

  • a)ll nerve b)111 nerve
  • c)V nerve d)1V nerve

119) Ochronosis is seen in poisoning with

  • a)Nitric acid b)0xalic acid
  • c)carbolic acid d)acetic acid

120) Whip fash injury refers to that involving

  • a)spine      b)long bones
  • c)skull      d)ribcage

121) section 191 IPC deals with

  • a)Rape                          b)Giving false evidence
  • c) Grievous hurt      d)Assault

122) In typical hanging , the position of Knot on the neck is

  • a)at the nape                                                        b)under the chin
  • c)anywhere other than the back of neck d)just beneath the angle of jaw

123) Avulsion is a type of

  • a)Chop wound b)lncise wound
  • c)Laceration d)None of the above

124) Homicidal hanging is known as

  • a)mugging b)garroting
  • c)burking d)lynching

125) March test is the diagnostic of poisoning with

  • a)Arsenic b}Copper
  • c)Lead      d)Mercury

126) About neutrophils all are incorrect except:-

  • a) 10-20% of all leucocytes, b) Phagocytosis
  • c) Antibody formation d) Increase in chronic infections

127) In leprosy nerve involved is:

  • a) Ulnar Nerve b) Median
  • c) Radial d) Axillary

128) Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is due to:

  • a) oat cell carcinoma b) squamous cell carinoma
  • c) Adenocarcinoma  d} sdenosqumous

129) OIC is caused by all except:

  • a) IUD
  • b) septic abortion
  • c) extramniotic instillation of ethacridine lactate
  • d) Ammiotic fluid embolism

130) Giant cell tumor source of cells is ;

  • a) Osteoclast b) Osteoblasts
  • c)Osteoid c) Unknown

131) Cells in M4AML are:

  • a) Monoblasts & myeloblasts b) Myeloblasts only
  • c) Monocytes & myelocytes d) erythroid cells

132) Most common tumor of appendix is:

  • a) Carcinoid                b) Squamous cell
  • c) Adenocarcinoma d) Argentaffin type

133) Stricture of gut is caused by:

  • a) Typhoid                b) tuberculosis
  • c) Crohn’s disease d) Ulcerative colitis

134) Exchange of genetic material takes place in:

  • a) Prophase -I b) Prophase II
  • c) Metaphase d) Telophase

135) Commonest type of basal cell carcinoma:

  • a)Ulcerated     b)Cystic
  • c) Morphoeic d)Pigmented

136) Parasympathetic stimulation of tissues in walls of bronchioles caus-is:

  • a) Bronchoconstriction b) Bronchodilation
  • c) Increased blood flow d) Dilatation of alveoli.

137) A healthy man is flying in a plane that has been pressurized to 10.0CO feet (523 HG).Which of the following statements regarding effects of this barometric pressure is true ?

  • a) It will cause a modest reduction in arterial Po2 .
  • b) It will not affect alveolar Po2 because inspired 02 remains at 0.21
  • c) Will be associated with significant desaturation of arterial Hemoglobin
  • d) None of the above

138) Of the following cell types, which would contain many mitochondria in the apical portion of the cell?

  • a) Smooth muscle cells   b) Ciliated epithelium cells
  • c) Steroid secreting cell d) Skeletal muscle cells

139) Which of the following statements most accurately describes features of neuromuscular transmission?

  • a) Each muscle fiber contains multiple axon terminals
  • b) The end plate is highly enriched in electrically excitable gates
  • c) Enzymatic degradation of the transmitter can terminate transmission
  • d) Acetyl choline causes chloride channels to open as a result of membrane depolarization.

140) Which of the following statements regarding expiration is correct ?

  • a) At lung volumes close to vital capacity [VC] .expiratory air flow is independent of expiratory effect
  • b)At lung volumes close to VC ,airway resistance is at its peak
  • c) At lung volumes close to VC , expiratory air flow increases with pleural pressures.
  • d) None of the above

141) RNA processing can be best described by which of the following statements?

  • a) It occurs in the cytoplasm
  • b) It includes the methytation of nucleotides in RNA
  • c) It results in the formation of new covalent bonds between RNA & DNA
  • d) It includes the addition of a tail of polyadenylic acid at the 5^end

142) The upstroke of ventricular action potential is primarily due to which one of the following actions?

  • a) An inward flux of Ca2     b) An inward K + current
  • c) An outward K+ current d) inward Na+ Current

143) Which of the statements about acetyt choline release & deactivation i’> true?

  • a) ACH release is blocked by toxin associated with Clostridium tetanae
  • b) Uptake of Ach into the presynaptic receptor is the most important mechanism in terminating the Ach signal
  • c) Inhibitors of the enzyme MAO are important in the treatment of depression because they inhibit the breakdown of ach into its constituents.
  • d) The influx of Ca2+ into the depolarized axon terminal is a prerequisite for the release of stored Ach

144) All the following thalamic nuclei are connected to the basal ganglia except

  • a) Ventrolateral b) medial central
  • c) Pulvinar           d) Ventro anterior

145) All the statements concerning mammalian chromosomes are true except:

  • a) DNase 1 can be used to treat chromosomes to determine inactive regions of DNA.
  • b) Approximately 7% of the sequences contained in the eukaryotic genome are copied into RNA.
  • c) Heterochromatin is a term used for inactive DNA & euchromatin is a term used for these regions of the DNA that are transcriptionally active .
  • d) Both C & D are false,

146) Chromosomal nomenclature is based on :

  • a) Position of the Centre mere
  • b) Staining properties
  • c) Number of chromosones
  • d) Length of the arms

147) Posterior boundary of foramen of Winslow is formed by:

  • a) Aorta             b) Inferior vena cava
  • c) Portal vein  d) Liver

148) Demarcation of duodenum from jejunum is shown by:

  • a) Ligament of Treitz    b) Superior mesenteric artery
  •  c) Falciform ligament d) Tail of pancreas

149) External ear is developed from:

  • a) 1st brachial arch b) 2nd brachial cleft
  • c) 1st brachial cleft d) 2nd brachial arch.

150) Joint at Knee is:

  • a) Synartnrosis         b) Symphysis
  • c) Amphiarthrosis. d) Diarthrosis

Download Answer Key  : www.similima.com/pdf/ihma-answerkey2005.pdf

All ights reserved @ similima

child (7)

Human Development Report 2011 Gujarat poorly on malnutrition

child (7)Human Development Report 2011: Gujarat fares poorly on malnutrition levels

New Delhi: After coming in for some lavish praise from a US think tank report for his state on the path of growth and development, Gujarat Chief Minister Narendra Modi should have reasons to worry, going by the findings of the India Human Development Report 2011.

The report, released by the Centre yesterday, finds Gujarat performing poorly on two key social indicators. 44.6% of children below the age of five suffer from malnutrition whereas nearly 70% of the children in the state suffer from anaemia. The results are bad enough considering states like Uttar Pradesh and Bihar have fared better than Gujarat on malnutrition levels.

But Kerala topped the index

Source : http://www.ndtv.com/article/india/human-development-report-2011-gujarat-fares-poorly-on-various-indicators-143405&cp

IHMA Model MD Homeopathy Entrance 2005 Paper.I

Questions : 150        Marks : 600           Time : 120 Minutes

1. Please read the instructions given in the OMR Answer Sheet for marking answers. Candidates are advised to strictly follow the instructions contained in the OMR Answer Sheet.

2. For each question there are four suggested answers, given against (A), (B), (C) and (D) of which only one will be MOST APPROPRIATE answer. Indicate it in the OMR Answer Sheet.

3. Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to penalization formula based on the number of right answers actually marked and the number of wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded FOUR marks. ONE mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a question will be deemed as an incorrect response and will be negatively marked.                                                           

1. The doctor who helped Hahnemann in Vienna.

  • A. Dr. Muller
  • B. Dr. Von Quarin
  • C. Dr. J.K. Bischoff
  • D. Von Bruckenthal E. Dr. Dzondi

2. Hahnemann got his masters degree on,

  • A. April 10J755
  • B. November 17, 1782
  • C. August 10, 1779
  • D.July2, 1843
  • E. September 29, 1812

3. When was the cure and prevention of scarlet fever published,

  • A. 1790    B. 1805   C. 1801
  • D.1803      E. 1810

4. Number of medicines proved by Hahnemann.

  • A. 99    B. 100
  • C. 29    D. 145

5. Life period of. Kent.

  • A. 1853-1931     B. 1849-1916     C. 1785-1864
  • D. 1800-1880    E. 1828-1877

6. Name the doctor who treated Lucy the 2nd wife of Dr. Kent.

  • A. Dr. Robbi      B. Dr. August Weihe     C. Dr. Kummer
  • D. Dr. Dunham E. Dr.’ Richard Phelan

7. Which is the work of Dr. C. Hering.

  • A. Domestic physician
  • B. Therapeutics of fever
  • C. Encyclopedia of pure materia medica
  • D. A birds eye view of Hahnemann’
  • E. Science of therapeutics

8. Name the medicine which was prescribed to Dunham by Dr. Hering which help him recover his illness. ”

  • A. Ars.alb   B. Puls
  • C. Lach        D. Lith.

9. Dr. Hahnemann wrote preface to one book of Dr. Boennenghausen. Which was it.

  • A. Repertory of medicines which are not antipsoric
  • B. Attempt at showing relative kinship of Homoeopathic medicines
  • C Repertory of antipsoric medicines
  • D Homoeopathic and complete image of disease

10). The homoeopathic physician who treated Maharaja Ranjith Singh of Punjab.

  • (A) M.L Sircar (B) J.M. Honingberger
  • (C) L.C. Dutta

11. Aphorism 153 is regarding.

  • (A) Indisposition (B) Characteristic Symptom (C) Mental Symptom
  • (D) Alternating Action (E) Dr. Dzondi

12. The word used by Trinks in his Annals to describe the provings of person, ‘whom Hahnemann calls as “symptom manufacturer’ is

  • (A) Hg (B) Lg (C) Ng
  • (D)gN (E)Bg

13. Aphorism which describes about routes of administration in 5th edition is.

  • (A) 274 (B) 290
  • (C) 293 (D)288 (E) 292

14. Aphorism which describes natural law of cure.

  • (A) 26 (B) 29
  • (C) 144 (D)272

15. Diet & regimen is described in.

  • (A) § 158-162 (B) § 245-249
  • (C) § 259-263 (D) § 264-268

16. When do homoeopathic aggravation occurs in a psoric chronic diseases (psoric origin) when treated with antipsoric medicines (According to Ve).

  • (A) 1st few hours (B) Varying periods till cure results
  • (C) At the end of the cure (D) Varying hours for first eight to ten days
  • (E) Dr. Dzondi

17. What is the appropriate management when accessory symptoms develop while beating acute diseases.

  • (A) Antidote the remedy
  • (B) Wait till symptom picture become clear
  • (C) Retake the case and add new symptoms to original symptoms and prescribe
  • (D) Take coffee

18. Local maladies are described in which aphorism.

  • (A) 210 (B) 231
  • (C)174   (D)1l7 (E) 56

19. Tinea worm) infection occurs in an epileptic person. What can be the result.

  • (A) Epilepsy get cured
  • (B) Epilepsy and Tinea combines together and exist together
  • (C) Epilepsy get suppressed
  • (D) Tinea is repelled

20. What can happens when small pox occurs in a person with violent opthalmic causing blindness. —-——-

  • (A) Small pox repelled
  • (B) Small pox suppress opthalmia ;
  • (C) Small pox cures opthalmia and blindness
  • (D) Both exist in their own parts

21. The most difficult cases to cures the incurables.

  • (A) Psoric miasmatic cases
  • (B) Trimiasmatic
  • (C) Drug diseases
  • (D) Syphilitic cases

22. In proving medicines are given to healthy persons in.

  • (A) Large doses    (B) Moderate doses
  • (C) Minute doses  (D) Single minute dose

23.The person who preceded Hahnemann in testing medicines for their pure action in healthy person.

  • (A) Brousseou (B) Nening
  • (C) Autentrith (D) Albrecht Von Haller

24. Best Prover.

  • (A) Medical students           (B) Physician
  • (C) Oversensitive patient   (D) Children

25. How to manage a case of acute mania.

  • (A) The indicated antipsoric medicine
  • (B) Non antipsoric medicines like Aeon, Bell etc.
  • (C) Physical remedies
  • (D) Use of non antipsoric medicines like Acon,Bell followed by antipsoric medicine

26.The most efficacious time to administer medicine in case of intermittent fever.

  • (A) Anytime                   (B) At the height of heat paroxysm
  • (C) During chill stage (D) Very soon after the termination of paroxysm

27.The chief guide in selection of most appropriate diseases.

  • (A) Medicine similar to the most prominent stage
  • (B) Medicine similar to all the stages
  • (C) Symptoms of patient health during intervals when he is free from disease
  • (D) Medicine suitable to his past do fever

28. After administering a remedy the patient became better mentally with few new symptoms. What is your inference. ‘ “

  • (A) Indicated medicine good response
  • (B) Wrong medicine
  • (C) Partially indicated remedy
  • (D) Response in a terminal stage of disease – prognosis unfavorable

29. The most suitable degree of minuteness for sure and gentle effect can be found out by.

  • (A) experience and experiment
  • (B) experiment and research
  • (C) Accurate experience and careful observation of sensitiveness of each patient
  • (D) proper case taking and miasmatic diagnosis

30. Olfaction is described in foot note of which aphorism.

  • (A) 275 (B) 272
  • (C) 285 (D)285 (E) 288

31. Which of the parts of body can be used as a route for administration of medicine.

  • (A) bloodvessel      (B) Skin
  • (C) Wounded skin  (D) Nerves

32. In 50 millesmal potency 1 part of 3rd tricturation should be dissolved in …………. part of alcohol water mixture.

  • (A) 100 (B) 300
  • (C) 500 (D) 1000

33. Dynamisation theory was introduced in which edition of organon .

  • (A) I (B) II (C) 111
  • (D) IV           (E) V

34. 3rd edition of organon is known as.

  • (A) improved                                 (B) augmented
  • (C) improved and augmented (D) original

35. No- of Aphorisms in 4th edition of organon.

  • (A) 292                (B) 291
  • (C) 294                (D)315       (E) 271

36. Chronic disease was published after…………… years of research study.

  • (A) 10 (B) 11
  •  (C) 12 (D) 14

37. Which is the observation which details the action of medicine on provers.

  • (A) 8 (B) 9
  • (C) 11 (D)10.

38. Two advices were taken back by Hahnemann mentioned in the preface of 5th edition. One was the use of mild electric shocks the other was.

  • (A) Using 2 successions instead of 10
  • (B) Using 10 successions instead of 2
  • (C) Use of pitch plaster on back to produce it during
  • (E) Use of tea in diet

39. What are called ‘morbi intercurrentes’.

  • (A) Intercurrent remedies (B) Antimiasmatic remedies
  • (C) Nosodes                              (D) Intermediate diseases

40.Meaning of “Cito”.

  • (A) Safety (B) Quickly
  • (C) With least amount of medicine
  • (D) Pleasantly

41.In a three fold complication of three chronic misaim which miasm is to be treated first.

  • (A) Psora     (B) Syphilis
  • (C) Sycosis (D) Tubercular

42.Greek word for Psora.

  • (A) Garab(B) Psora agria
  • (C) Scabies jugis (D) Yalephed

43.What is schein symptome.

  • (A) Mental symptom(B) Local symptoms
  • (C) Subjective symptom
  • (D) Symptoms produced as a result of excess homoeopathic medicine

44.Who gave the name ’50 millesmal to the new method of dynamisation.

  • (A) Horace (B) Gellert (C) Boenninghausen
  • (D) P. Schmidt (E) William Boericke

45.”What influence can it exert whether a homoeopath adopt the theoretical opinion of Hahnemann on not, so long as the holds the principal tool of master and the materia media of our schools. Whose words are they

  • (A) William Boericke (B) C.Hering
  • (C) Richard Hughes   (D) Stuart Close

46.Craving for Potato is a ——– symptom.

  • (A) Psoric (B) Sycotic
  • (C) Tubercular (D) Syhilitic

47. Craving sweets is…………….. symptoms.

  • (A) Psoric (B) Sycotic
  • (C) Tubercular (D) Syphilitic

48. Aversion meat is…………. symptom.

  • (A) Psoric (B) Sycotic
  • (C) Tubercular (D) Syphilitic

49. Amelioration by natural discharge is……………. symptom.

  • (A) Psoric (B) Sycotic
  • (C) Tubercular (D) Syphilitic

50. Ist part of materia medica was published in the year 1811. It contained………medicines.

  • (A) 8 (B) 11
  • (C) 12 (D) 10

51. The dose of cinchona bark used be for proving by Dr. Hahnemann.

  • (A) 4 drachms (B) 1 drachms
  •  (C) 2 drachms (D) 3 drachms

52.The term guiding symptoms was coined by…..

  • (A) Guernesy (B)Kent
  • (C)Hering (D)Boennighausen

53. Number of medicines in fragmenta de viribus….. posilivus.

  • (A) 9S (B) 99
  •  (C) 27 (D)67

53. Cyclopedia of drug pathogenecy was written by.

  •  (A) Hering                   (B) Boenninghausen
  •  (C) Richard Hughes (D) Stuart close

54. Allens encyclopedia contains – volumes

  • (A) 8 (B) 9
  • (C) 10 (D)12

55. Vegetable analogue of Kali lod.

  • (A) Pulsatilla (B) Phytolacca
  •  (C) Mezerium (D) Belladona

56. Acoustic of renal system / digitalis of kidney.

  • (A) Cantharis (B) Sarsaparilla
  • (C) Lycopodium (D) Solidago

57. Lack of vital heat in chronic diseases.

  • (A) Alumina (B) Led Pal
  • (C) Psorinum (D) Sepia

58. ………….. is followed by Kalibi in nasal catairah.

  • (A) AurMet (B) Pulsatilla
  • (C) Silica (D) Calccarb

59. Acrid exhausting leucorrhoea in little girls with moth spots an forehead.

  • (A) Sepia     (B) Copaiva .
  • (C) Cubeba (D) Caulophylhem

60.Has cured Aphonia when Aeon, Phos and Spongia had failed.

  • (A) Brans                      (B) Caust
  • (C) Arun Triphyllus (D) Cina

61. Often cures dropy after Apis and Ars fails.

  • (A) Apocy   (B) Dig
  • (C) Bry          (D) Colch

62.Unsteady walking and easy falling of little children.

  • (A) Calcphos (B) Caust
  •  (C) Sel            (D) Baryta carb

63.Is often useful after bad effects from spoiled fish and decayed vegetables.

  • (A) Ass alb  (B) Carboveg .
  • (C) Carboan (D) Pyrogen

64. Opium belongs to the family.

  • (A) Ericacea (B) Melanthacea
  • (C) Loganacea (D) Papavaracea

65. Hydrastis belong to the family of.

  • (A) Rubiacea           (B) Solanacea
  • (C) Ranunculacea (D) Umbilifera

66.Breath smells like urine

  • (A) Petroleum(B) Graph
  • (C) Carboveg (D) Mercurius

67.Remedy for worms, nephritis and purpura.

  • (A) Terebinth (B) Phos
  • (C) Crotalushor (D) Hamamelis

68. Daily colic in infants at 5 a.m.

  • (A) Nalsulph (B) Nux vom
  • (C) Kalibrom (D) Mag phos

69. “Whenever….. is chosen you must above all observe the moral symptoms, and be careful that it closely resembles them. The anguish of mind and body, the restlessness, the disquiet not to be allayed.” Which is the medicine referred to.

  • (A) Chamomilla (B) Sepia
  • (C) Arsalb             (D) Aconite

70. Idiocy in children in capacity to think confused.

  • (A) Baryta carb (B) Picric acid
  • (C) Aethusa        (D) Agaricus

71. Late to walk and talk.

  • (A) Barycarb (B) Natm
  • (C) Calccarb (D) Agaricus

72. Complaints of imaginary odour before the nose, as of herring or musk.

  • (A) Agnus castus (B) Calc
  • (C) Nax.v (D) Sulph

73. Adapted to indolent weary persons averse lo either mental or physical labour mental labour fatigues.

  • (A) Alumina (B) Psomium
  • (C) Acid Phos (D) Aloes

74. Time passes too slowly, an hour seems half a day-

  • (A) Arg.n (B) Cocc
  • (C) Gcon (D) 1 & 3 (E) All

75. Adopted to those who are fat and sluggish on body large and fat, but legs too then.

  • (A) Calc Carb (B) Graph
  • (C) Capsicum (D) Ammo mur

76. Old people with morning diarrhoea, suddenly become constipated on alternate diarrhoea and constipation.

  • (A) Con . (B) Baryta Carb
  • (C) Ambra Grisea (D) Antim Crud .

77. For bad effects of vaccination when thuja fails and silica is not indicated

  • (A) Sarsaparilla (B) Malandrinun
  • (C) Antimtart (D) Sulph

78. After Baryta carb will often eradicate the constitutional tendency to quinsy.

  • (A) CalcCarb(B) Mere sol
  • (C) Psor         (D) Sil

79.Lung disease of tall slender, rapidly growin^youthupper third of righthmg.

  • (A) Phos(B Tub
  • (C) Ars (D) CalcCarb

80.In Euphrasia menses is, .

  • (A) Late (B) Profuse
  • (C) Early (D) Late and Scanty

81. Women inclined to obesity, who suffer from habitual constipation, with a history of delayed menstruation.

  • (A) Puls (B) Capsicum
  • (C) Calc.ars (D) Graphics

82.Pulse irregular in force regular in rhythm.

  • (A) Dig     (B) Naja
  • (C) Lil.tig (D) Cactus

83.At every menstrual nisus mouth throat and tongue became intolerably dry,especially when sleeping.

  • (A) Bry(B) Sep
  • (C) NuxMoschata (D) Sulphur

84.Poke root is the common name of.

  • (A) Sang(B) Phytolacca(C) Collinsonia
  • (D) Asclepius                    (E) Spigelia

85. Bitter cucumber is the common name of.

  • (A) Amygdalus (B) Dulcamara
  • (C) Coloc             (D) Parthenium

86.Kali Bi is the inimical of.

  • (A) Phos (B) Puls
  • (C) Sil (D) Calc Carb

87.Complementary to Baryta Carb.

  • (A) Mag Carb (B) CalcCarb
  • (C) Dulcamara (D) Ammo Carb

88. Antidote of Aesculus H.

  • (A) Op (B) Nux
  • (C) Aloes (D) Collinsonia

89. Can only void urine while sitting bent backwards.

  • (A). Sars (B) Med
  • (C) Zinc.met (D) Chimaphila

90. Vertigo on opening eyes.

  • (A) Theridion (B) Sep
  • (C) Tab (D) Am

91. Convulsions with consciousness.

  • (A) Stram (B) Op
  • (C) Hyos (D)Nux (E) 1&4

92. Children are obstinate, headstrong, cry when spoken kindly to.

  • (A) Sil (B) Lyco
  • (C) Puls (D) Stann

93.Pain in places where the bones are least covered, as tibia, back of hands.

  • (A) Acid.Phos (B) Ruta
  • (C) Symphytom (D) Sang

94.The word pharmacy is derived from pharmakon wirch is………….. word.

  • (A) Latin (B) Greek
  • (C) Arabian (D) Roman

95. 1st Homoeopathic pharmacopoeia was published in the year.

  • (A) 1882 (B)1870
  • (C) 1825 (D) 1897

96. 1st Indian Pharmacopoeia was published in.

  • (A) 1974(B) 1978
  • (C) 1982 (D)1971

97.—–is included Radiata.

  • (A) Sepia                      (B) Murx
  • (C) Asterias ruberis(D) Spongia

98….. is taken from grease of horse.

  • (A) AmbraGrisea (B) Anthracinum
  • (C) Malandrinum(D) Variolinum

99.Example of plant nosode,

  • (A) Ustilago   (B) Secale.Cor
  • (C) None         (D) 1&2

100. Magnetis Polics Australia is.

  • (A) Whole Magnet (B) North Pole
  • (C) South Pole (D) None

101. Sugar of milk is prepared by.

  • (A) Hahnes Method (B) Stapf Process*

102. Belladona Q is prepared by,

  • (A) Class I (B) Class II
  • (C) Class III (D) Class IV

103. Carcinocin is prepared by.

  • (A) Class.1 (B) Class II
  • (C) Class 4 (D) Class IV

104. Abbreviation of Send

  • (A) Mitt (B) M
  •  (C)m (D) MDu

105. Part used for homoeopathic preparation in Belladonna.

  • (A) Root (B) Flower
  • (C) Whole plant (D) Fruit

106. How many minutes of triturating is done to convert 1 c to 2 c

  • (A) 20(B) 60
  • (C) 120 (D) 40 minutes

107. Carbolic acid is prepared under.

  • (A) IV     (B) Va
  • (C) VI b (D)VIa

108. Drug power in Class V(b) preparation is.

  • (A) 1/100 (B) 1/10
  • (C) 1/6 (D) 1/1000

109. Drug and magic remedies act was passed in.

  • (A) 1954 (B) 1930
  • (C) 1957 (D)1934

110. Rectified spirit contains………… % of water.

  • (A) 26*/2% (B) 37%
  • (C) 471/2 % (D) 16 % (E) 58%

111. Repetition of medicine is called.

  • (A) Posology             (B) Pharmacononay
  • (C) Phannacognosy(D) Pharmacopallaxy

112. Main object of Homoeopathic case to kind is.

  • (A) Prognosis                (B) Diagnosis
  • (C) Individualisation (D)All

113. A well taken case is half cured – According to:

  • (A) Kent                         (B) Stuart Close
  • (C) Elizabeth Wright (D) Hahnemenn

114. Boenning Bausen’s Reporting of the Anti psorics was prefaced by.

  • (A) Hahnemann (B) Boeninghausen
  • (C) H.A. Robert (D) Hering

115. 1s1 Indian repertory the ‘Manual of Homoeopathy’ was published by.

  • (A) Fr Augustus Mullar (B) Augustine Mullcr
  • (C) Dr. S.K. Tiwari (D) C. Hering

116. Repertory of the more characteristic symptoms of the Materia Medica – Published by.

  • (A) A. Lippe (B) C. Hering
  • (C) C. Lippe (D) Jabr.

117. Which among the following is not a puritan repertory.

  • (A) Knerr’sRep.                                      (B) Jahr’sRep.
  • (C) Hering’s Analytical Repertory (D) Murphy’s Repertory

118. The chapter mind in Kent’s repertory was made by.

  • (A) Kent Alone (B) Lee and Kent
  • (C) Lee Alone (D) Clar a Loui.se Kent

119. BBCR is mainly based on.

  • (A) TPB
  • (B) Boenning Bausen’s Repertory ofAntipsoric
  • (C) B.H’s Repertory of Medicines which are not antipsoric
  • (D) All the above

120. Repertory of sensations as if made by..

  • (A) H.A. Robert (B) Honi Comb
  • (C) None               (D) Both

121. Ist Card Repertory was available to the profession in which year.

  • (A) 1888 (B) 1892
  • (C) 1896 (D)1893

122. Size of the card in Jugal Kishore’s Card Repertory is.

  • (A) 9″x3″”(B) 9″x2
  • (C) ll”x3″ (D)iix2″

123. 1st Indian edition of Murphy’s Repertory is in the year.

  • (A) 1973 (B) 1974
  • (C) 1994 (D) 1993

124. Concise Repertory of Homoeopathic medicine published by.

  • (A) Murphy (B) Phathak
  • (C) Boericke (D)Clarke

125. Total number of chapters in Knerr’s Repertory is.

  • (A) 38 (B) 48
  • (C) 47 (D)37

126. Eliminating symptoms are first coined by.

  • (A) MLDhawale (B) MLTyler
  • (C) Hering (D) Hahnemann

127. Reportorium synthaticum homoeopathicum published by.

  • (A) Barthel and Will Klunker (B) JostKunzli
  • (C) Boger                                        (D) Frederik Schroyens

128. Kent says: “The greatest of all comparers of the materia medica was Boenningbausen. The concordances of Boenning baussn’s book are wonderful. These are the most important part of the book and they would not fail.” The chapter concordance of Boenning bausen’s reporting contains.

  • (A) 124 Med (B) 141 Med
  • (C) 125 Med (D) 144 Med

129. The 3rd volume of synthetic reporting contains.

  • (A) Mental Symptoms (B) Physical Generals
  • (C) Sleep, Dream & Sex

130. Integrated approach for repertory section was put forward by.

  • (A) MLDhawale (B) HA Robert
  • (C) Boger (D) Boeiming Haucen

131. Three mark medicine for abuse of sulphur in Kent’s Repertory is.

  • (A) Calc(B) Mere
  • (C) Ars. (D)Puls

132. In Kent’s Repertory septicemia belongs to the chapter.

  • (A) Extremities (B) Generalities
  • (C) Skin                 (D) None

13o. Medicines for Anthrax in Kent’s Repertory .

  • (A) Anthracinum only (B) Ars.
  • (C) Sec (D) All the above

134. Bums belong to ……………. chapter inBoenninghaucen’s repertory,

  • (A) Aggravation                                           (B) Sensations
  • (C) Both sensations and aggravations (D) Skin

135. Cross reference given for Humorous in Kent’s repertory is.

  • (A) Mood (B) Justing
  •  (C) Joy (D) Joyous

136.Match list I (symptoms) with list II (Medicines) and select the correct answer using cods.

  • (A) Speaks continually in questions – Vertrum Alb.
  • (B) Repeats the questions first – Aurum
  • (C) Precocity – Mere. sol
  • (D) Swallows his feces – Zincum Met

137. The chapter relationship of remedies was worked out by.

  • (A) Boenninghaucen(B) Gibson Miller
  • (C) Dr. J.T.Kent          (D) Dr. William Boericke

138. Aggravation from seashore. Medicines are,

  • (A) Ars. (B) Mag.mur,
  • (C) Sep.(D) All.

139.Menopause is included in Kent’s repertory under.

  • (A) Generalities         (B) Gentalia female
  • (C) Genitalia – male  (D)All

140. Boenninghaucen makes four divisions of the back. In this TPB – Steiss means.

  • (A) Sacral region   (B) Region of coccyx
  • (C) Lumbar region (D) Back in general ‘

141. Rubric scurvy belong to which chapter in TPB.

  • (A) Mouth                (B) Sensations
  • (C) Aggravations  (D) Ameliorations

142. Rubric for loathing of life in BBCR is.

  • (A) Depression (B) Tedium
  • (C) Listlessness (D) Desire death

143 Non union of bones is found in the chapter in kents repertory

  • (A)extremities (B)generalities
  • (C)head               (D) back

144 Photophobia is found in the chapter in kents repertory

  • (A) vision (B) generalities
  • (C) eye      (D) mind

145 A patient desires to die due to his severe pains .which is the rubric for him

  • (A)desire death (B) Pain
  • (C) suicidal (D)Kill

146 Cannot look at knife or blood

  • (A)Phos        (B) Alumen
  • (C)Alumina (D)sulph

147 Women with aversion to her own sex

  • (A)Plat   (B) graph
  • (C) lyco (D) raph

148 Exostosis of lower jaw

  • (A) Sil               (B) Thuja
  • (C) Calc flour (D)Phos

149. Rubric worms is found in …. Chapter in kent’s repertory

  • (A) generalities (B)rectum
  • (C) abdomen      (D) stomach

150. Hoarseness is found in the chapter

  • (A) Respiration                  (B) Cough
  • (C) larynx and trachea (D) Nose

Download Answer Key : www.similima.com/pdf/ihma-answerkey2005.pdf

All ights reserved @ similima

IHMA Model MD Homeopathy Entrance 2006 Paper II

Questions : 150    Marks : 600     Time : 120 Minutes

1. Please read the instructions given in the OMR Answer Sheet for marking answers. Candidates are advised to strictly follow the instructions contained in the OMR Answer Sheet.

2. For each question there are four suggested answers, given against (A), (B), (C) and (D) of which only one will be MOST APPROPRIATE answer. Indicate it in the OMR Answer Sheet.

3. Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to penalization formula based on the number of right answers actually marked and the number of wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded FOUR marks. ONE mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a question will be deemed as an incorrect response and will be negatively marked.                                                           

1.A 15 year old girl complains of acne on face, which started after she tried out some cosmetics. Ever since the complaint started, she is also getting urticarial rashes, < after bathing, and any emotional excitement. She feels very uncomfortable with tight clothing around her waist. The remedy is

  • A) Ant-c              B) Lycopodium
  • C) Urtica urens D) Bovista

2.A 50 year old patient with peptic ulcer developed persistent vomiting since 5 days. He has not been taking any solid food since complaint started. He has thirst for very cold drinks, but on drinking is immediately vomited. His wife said that he has become very anxious and restless, and wants her to be near him always. On examination his tongue was found to be coated thick white. Initial treatment consisted of IV Saline and Ars alb 30, but without relief. The most suitable remedy is

  • A) Phoshorus B) Bismuth
  • C) Antim crud D) Cadmium sulph

3.Remedy with elective affinity on the spleen.

  • A) Ceanothus only                                    B) Ceanothus and Thlaspi Bursa
  • C) Ceanothus & Fraxinus americana D) None

4.Dimercuros ammonium nitrate is better known as

  • A) Merc cor       B) Merc sol
  • C) Merc dulcis  D) Nitri spiritus dulcis.

5.Calc-p has a complementary relation with

  • A) Ruta only                                  B) Ruta & Hammamelis
  • C) Ruta & Trillium Pendulum D) Hammamelis & Trillium Pendulum

6.Kali-c is followed by this remedy in hip disease

  • A) Rhus-t B)Calc-p
  • C) Ledum D) Flouric acid

7.Dr. EB Nash has said, “there are no two remedies that are oftener indicated after each other, and work as well when so indicated, than these two” – Which are these two remedies ?

  • A) Sulph & Calc B) Sulph & Caust
  • C) Bry & Rhus-t D) Nux-v & Sepia

8.Match symptoms in List-I with Remedies in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I                             List II
(Symptoms)                   (Medicines)

  • A. Aversion to children  1. Coffea
  • B. Loves power             2.Platina.
  • C. Benevolence             3. Helleborus.
  • D. Everything seems new 4. Lycopodium

(a) A B C D
2 4 1 3
(b) A B C D
4 2 3 1
(c) A B C D
3 4 1 2
(d) A B C D
4 2 1 3
9.According to Boericke, this remedy has a specific action in panaritium

  • A)Myristica      B) Dioscorea
  • C) Gun powder D) Graphites

10.Scanty sweat is found in

  • A) Camphor & Squilla B) Camphor & opium
  • C) Opium & Squilla       D) None

11.Hemorrhage forming into long black strings hanging from bleeding surface is found in.

  • A) Crocus sativus only                         B) Crocus sativus & Ferrum met
  • C) Crocus sativus & Sulphuric acid D) Crocus sativus & Elaps cor

12.“Throbbing pain in neck of bladder, as if a straw was being thrust back and forth” is found in

  • A) Sarasaparilla B) Sabal ser
  • C) Conium           D) Digitalis.

13.A person feels that he has been singled out for God’s vengence. He may require

  • A) Hyoscyamus B) Kali brom
  • C) Lyssin              D) Anacardium

14.According to HC Allen, the burning feet of Sulphur and restless fidgety feet of Zincum are both found at the same time in

  • A) Lachesis            B)Tarentula
  • C) Medorrhinum D) Kali brom

15.“Involuntary stool while urinating” is found in

  • A) Muriatic acid, Alumina & Aloe                  B) Muriatic acid, Causticum & Aloe
  • C) Muriatic acid, Gelsimium & Causticum  D)Muriatic acid only

16. Which among the following medicines is suitable for “ prickly heat”

  • (a)Cephalandra indica
  • (b)Syzygium jambolanum
  • (c)Abroma augusta
  • (d)Gymnema sylvestre

17. Aversion to sweets is seen in

  • (a)Thyroidinum
  • (b)Sabadilla
  • (c)Radium bromide
  • (d)Kali carb

18. One of the following medicines was proved by S.Lilienthal, Name the medicine?

  • (a)Sticta pulmonale
  • (b)Picric acid
  • (c)Natrum phosphoricum
  • (d)Moschus

19. Which part of the lung is affected by Sanguinaria canadensis?

  • (a)Right upper lobe
  • (b)Right middle lobe
  • (c)Right lower lobe
  • (d)Whole right lung

20. Medicine for “Acute idiocy” is

  • (a)Aethusa cynapium (b)Baryta carb
  • (c)Brahmi                        (d)Helleborus Niger

21. “Headache and diarrhoea from jarring of cars” is seen in

  • (a)Syphilinum
  • (b)Tuberculinum
  • (c)Psorinum
  • (d)Medorrhinum

22. “Coryza ending in diarrhoea” – indicated medicine is

  • (a)Selenium
  • (b)Theridion
  • (c)Lac can
  • (d)Allium cepa

23. Find out the medicine from the following symptoms
Great emaciation, debility and tendency to ascites and general dropsy
Gastric and duodenal ulcers
Abdomen bloated, gas, second only to Lycopodium
Causes glycosuria

  • (a)Helonius
  • (b)Phosphoric acid
  • (c)Uranium nitricum
  • (d)Abroma augusta

24. “Tongue flabby, resembling a layer of dried clay” is the symptom of

  • (a)Calcarea sulph
  • (b)Hydrastis
  • (c)Merc dulsis
  • (d)Podophyllum

25. Medicine for hypermetropia is

  • (a)Jaborandi
  • (b)Arnica
  • (c)Alfalfa
  • (d)Avena sativa

26. According to Gurnsey “Sanicula is the chronic of which medicine”

  • (a)Belladonna
  • (b)Magnesia carb
  • (c)Chamomilla
  • (d)Zinc met

27. “Child looks old, dried up like a mummy” is the symptom of

  • (a)Carcinocin
  • (b)Arg nit
  • (c)Rad bromide
  • (d)Sanicula

28. Indicated medicine for “Railway spine” is

  • (a)Symphytum
  • (b)Plumb met
  • (c)Picric acid
  • (d)Bellis per

29. “Chill at 2 p.m begins internally in stomach region” is the characteristic symptom of

  • (a)Pulsatilla
  • (b)Cocculus
  • (c)Calc carb
  • (d)Nux vom

30. “Head symptoms are relieved by emission of flatus” is seen in

  • (a)Cicuta virosa
  • (b)Sang can
  • (c)Nat sulph
  • (d)Bufo rana

31.Repertory of eczema was written by

  • a. mills paugh b. morgan
  • c. clake             d. Guernsey

32.First French repertory is

  • a. fragmenta de viribus
  • b. Allentown manual
  • c. a homoeopathic repertory of symptomatology
  • d. symptom repertory

33.How many gradations are there in synthetic repertory

  • a. three b. four
  • c. five d. two

34. First card repertory

  • a. Guernsey b. boger’s
  • c. kishore’s d. sharma’s

35. Showing respect for elders

  • a. reveries      b. presumptuous
  • c. reverence d. estranged

36. Rubric having most no of nosodes

  • a. generalities abscess recurrent b. eye conical cornea
  • c. eyes styes recurrent                    d. teeth serrated

37. Rubric delicate children is given in which chapter of boger’s repertory

  • a. aggravation & amelioration b. sensations and complaints
  • c. mind                                              d. generalities

38. Remedy for syphilitic vertigo in Kents repertory

  • a. aurum b. cocc
  • c. Spig     d. Sep

39. Rubric epulis is seen in which chapter in Kent’s repertory

  • a. teeth b. mouth
  • c. eyes d. urine

40. In which chapter rubric pneumatocele is given in boger’s repertory

  • a. stomach        b. pubic and inguinal region
  • c. generalities d. chest

41. Fever without chill is given in which chapter of Kent’s repertory

  • a. fever                  b. chill
  • c. perspiration  d. generalities

42. Confusion muddled etc is given in which chapter of the boger’s repertory

  • a. mind      b. Sensations and complaints
  • c. vertigo d. sensorium

43. Haemorrhoids is given in which chapter of the boenninghausens repertory

  • a. rectum b. anus
  • c. stool     d. sensations and complaints

44. Remedy for puts things to mouth in boger’s repertory

  • a. stramonium b. hyocyamus
  • c. belladonna  d. Mercurius

45. Rubric perspiration gives no relief is given in which chapter of Kent’s repertory

  • a. chill b. perspiration
  • c. fever d. generalities

46. Asphyxia neonatorum is given in which chapter of boger’s repertory

  • a. respiration                  b. chest
  • c. larynx and trachea d. sensations and complaints

47. Remedy for cough amelioarated by eructations in kents repertory

  • a. sang   b. nux v
  • c. sep    d. Sulph

48. Rubric falling to the ground with consiousness is given in boger’s repertory

  • a. mind             b. vertigo
  • c. sensorium d. sensations and complaints

49.Rubric cracks in the corners of mouth is given in which chapter of kents repertory

  • a. mouth   b. face
  • c. skin       d. generalities

50.Remedy for well says he is when very sick in kents repertory

  • a. arn       b. lyco
  • c. nat-m d. opium

51.What is quis

  • a. personality                b. cause of the disease
  • c. nature of disease    d. modifying factors

52.What is doctrine of analogy

  • a. grand generalization b. concordance
  • c. cross reference           d. relations

53.Hot and cold remedies is written by

  • a. kent                      b. M.L.tyler
  • c. gibbson miller d. John weir

54.Latest repertory

  • a. kents repertories generale b. reperotrium universalice
  • c. complete repertory              d. synthesis repertory

55. which one of the following is not a computer repertory

  • a. CIRH           b. RADAR
  • c. KENMBO   d. RCNP

56.Cito tuto et jecunde means

  • a) Quickly ,safely,pleasantly
  • b)safely ,quickly ,pleasantly
  • c) pleasantly, safely ,quickly
  • d)quickly ,pleasantly,safely

57.The sign of complete cure in Syphilis is disappearance of

  • a) Bubo                                            b)Chancre
  • c) Scar leaving healthy skin   d) None

58.Antpsoric is most useful during

  • a. menses    b. fasting
  • c. lactation d. pregnancy

59. If true chronic miasm are present in a patient what is to be treated first

  • a. psora      b. sycosis.
  • C. syphilis d. secondary syphilis

60. If menses be profuse, Hahnemann advices

  • a. sepia       b. Nux vom
  • c. Sulphur d. Carb veg

61. Aversion to meat is seen in

  • a. psora b. tubercular
  • c. sycosis d. Syphilis

62. Best time for taking antipsoric is

  • a. after food                                      b. before food
  • c. early morning while fasting d. at bed time

63. Simple food causes colic in

  • a. psora b. tubercular
  • c. sycosis d. Syphilis

64. Sequele is a manifestation of

  • a. acute disease b. epidemic
  • c. latent psora   d. latent sycosis

65. Complaints relieved by haemorrhage is a manifestation of

  • a) Psora      b) Pseudopsora
  • c) Syphilis  d) Psora

66. Basilar headache is a feature of

  • a) Pseudopsora b)sycosis c) syphilis d) psora

67. Desire for salt and potato is seen in

  • a) Pseudopsora b)sycosis c) syphilis d) psora

68. Of the below which is 6th observation

  • a. action of medicine upon provers
  • b. a full time amelioration of the symptoms yet no relief of the patient
  • c. too short relief of symptoms
  • d. amelioration comes first and the aggravation comes after wards

69. According to Kent the physician must know himself and that the patient is on the road to recovery – when?

  • a. 9th observation
  • b. 10th observation
  • c. 11th observation
  • d. 12th observation

70. After the administration of the medicine, when a new group of symptoms appears some where in the body relative to the patient, such as the patient as never had, then according to Kent the second prescription

  • a. repetition                 b. antidote
  • c. change of remedy d. complementary

71.According to kent menstruation belongs to

  • a)general     b)particular
  • c)common d)Basic

72.Of the below who said “A rational knowledge of anatomy is important .No homoeopath ever discouraged the true study of anatomy and physiology

  • a) Stuart close b) J T Kent
  • c) H A Roberts d) Hering

73.What is genius of homoeopathy according to Stuart close

  • a) Similia similibus curenter
  • b) materia medica
  • c) Individualization
  • d) dynamisation

74. Hering advised selecting at least—- characteristic symptom as the basis of prescribing.

  • a) One b) three
  • c) four d) ten

75.Word symptom is derived from

  • a. Greek b. Latin
  • c. Arabic d.None

76. Homoeopathy is a therapeutic method – not a doctrine or a system

  • a. Hering b. Garth boericke
  • c. Hughes d. J.H. Allen

77. The following severe as an obstacle to cure by deflecting the current of symptomatology

  • a. unhappy domestic conditions
  • b. increase use of sedatives
  • c. pathological conditions of the patient
  • d. all of the above

78. Medicine in too smaller doses when repeated for a long time produces which symptoms

  • a. generic b. central
  • c. peripheral d. none

79. Symptoms which are clinically verified, not confirmed by reproving – belongs to which grade?

  • a. first b. second
  • c. third d. fourth

80. LORD BACON is known as

  • a. master clinician                b. prince of physician
  • c. the Luther of medicine   d. none

81. Contributions of Aristotle to medicine

  • a. book known as “the pathway to the surgeons chest”
  • b. laid the foundation of comparative anatomy and embryology
  • c. both A and B
  • d. book HISTORIA PLANTARUM

82. The first president of central council of homoeopathy was

  • a. Jugal kishore b. Saxena
  • c. A.K. Kisku      d. P.C. Majumdar

83. Show me the examination of sick person, and I will tell you if the man knows anything about our material medica. Who told this?

  • a. Hahnemann b. Kent.
  • C. Boger             d. Adolph lippe

84. With children, lunatics and liars, you have to use your own observations

  • a. Kent       b. M.L. Tyler
  • c. Burnett d. Boger

85. The silent , heartfelt thankfulness that hahnemann was born and lived his life and left us the results of his discoveries in the ORGANON, chronic disease and MATERIA MEDICA PURA is the best way to celebrate this wonderful mans birthday- whose words is this?

  • a. Kent           b. Boenninghausen
  • c. H.C.Allen d. T.F.Allen

86. Which of the following is the best choice to evaluate radiologically a posterior fossa tumor?

  • a.CT                       b.MRI
  • c.Angiography d.Myelography

87. High resolution computed tomography of the chest is the ideal modality in

  • a.Pleural effusion b.Intrestitial lung disease
  • c.Lung mass          d.Mediastinal; adenopathy

88. Bracket calcification in skull x-ray is seen in

  • a)Tuberous scelorosis      b)Menigioma
  • c)Corpus callosu lipoma d)Sturge weber syndrome

89. Marble bone appearance is characteristics of

  • a)Flurosis                                   b)Osteopetrosis
  • c)Osteogenesis imperfecta d)Achondroplasis

90.Pavor nocturnes is

  • a)Somnambulism b)Sleep terror
  • c)Sleep bruxism d)Sleep apnea

91.La bella indifference is seen in

  • a)Mania       b) Dissociative disorder
  • c)Delirium d)Depression

92.Intrepretation of dream by Freud

  • a)1919 b)1900
  • c)1987 d)1956

93.Pseudocommunity is seen in

  • a)Schizotypal personality dosorder
  • b)Drug dependance
  • c)Dementia
  • d)Paranod state

94.’Folie a deux’ was first described by

  • a)Jules b)Asher
  • c)Janet d)Lasegue & Falert

95.Schizophrenia is a disorder of

  • a)Perception b) Memory
  • c)Belief            d)Tought

96. Condyloma lata is present in ———— syphillis

  • a)Primary     b) Secondary
  • c) Tertiaray d) Latent

97.Fox fordyce

  • a)Bullous lesions are common b)Common in adult women
  • c)Common in areola & axilla  d)Associated with other malignancies

98.Myrmecia warts are

  • a)Palmar warts    b)Plantar warts
  • c)Inguinal warts d)Veruccous warts

99.Coomonest site of atopic dermatitis is

  • a)Elbow b) Trunk
  • c)Scalp d) Ant cubital fossa

100.Herpes zoster is commonly seen in

  • a)Geniculate ganglion b)Lumbar region
  • c)Thoracic region        d)Cervical region

101. Postspinal headache is due to

  • a)Menigioma b)Injury to spinal cord
  • c)Menigitis    d)CSF leak from dura

102.Most common complication of acute otitis media in children

  • a)Facial nerve palsy      b)Deafness
  • c) Chornic mastoiditis  d)Cholesteatoma

103.Schwartze operation is done in

  • a)CSOM               b) Acute mastoiditis
  • c)Otosclerosis d)Serous otitis media

104.Otosclerois affects

  • a)Tympanic membrane b)Round window
  • c) Oval window                 d)Ossicle

105. Percentage of newborn with deviation of nasal septum

  • a)50 b) 20
  • c) 10 d) 2

106.Tears are produced in newborn after

  • a)1 week b) 2 week
  • c) 3 week d) 4 week

107. Rosette catract is due to

  • a) Hyperparathyroidism b) Trauma
  • c)Diabetes                              c) Hypoparathyroidism

108. D shaped pupil is seen in

  • a)Iridocyclitis                b)Glaucoma
  • c)Dislocation of lense e)Iridodialysis

109.The presence of immunoreactive trypsinogen in blood spots in newborn suggestive of

  • a)Cystic fibrois      b)Trypsinogen deficiency
  • c)Coeliac disease d)Inborn error in tryptophan metabolism

110. Transient myeloproliferative disorder of newborn is seen in association with

  • a)Turner syndrome    b)Ataxia telengectasia
  • c)Neurofibromatosis d)Don syndrome

111. water content in infant is

  • a) 60-70 % b) 75-80%
  • c)80-90% d) 90-100%

112. Breat milk at room temperature is stored for

  • a)24 hr b) 12 hr
  • c) 8 hr d)4 hr

113. Fever stops and rash begins is diagnostic of

  • a)Chikungunya            b) Measels
  • c) Roseola infantum d)Toxic shock syndrome

114. What is the normal effect of progestrone on ureters in Pregnancy :

  • (A) There is more dilation of the left ureter than of the right.
  • (B) There is more dilation of the ureter.
  • (C) Both ureters dilate equally.
  • (D) Both ureters constrict equally.

115. The common cause of foetal tachy cardia :

  • (A) Foetal anaemia                   (B) Maternal anaemia.
  • (C) Maternal’hyperthermia. (D) Maternal Hypothermia.

116. The clinical features of Rokitansky syndrome are the following except:

  • (A) Primary amenorrhoea.       (B) Well developed Secondary Sexual Characters.
  • (C) Absent vagina and uterus. (D) Present vagina and uterus.

117. The septate uterus is formed as a result of:

  • (A) Fusion of Mullerian ducts,       (B) Incomplete fusion of the ducts.
  • (C) Noncanalisationof the ducts. (D) Nonresorption of the median septum.

118. Older gravidas have an increased incidence of:

  • (A) Ut. inertia.        (B) Mal prsentation.
  • (C) Hypertension. (D) Allot the above.

119. Meconium aspiration syndrome is associated with :

  • (A) Prolonged labour. (B) Post dated pregnancy.
  • (C) I.U.G.R.                      (D) All of the above.

120.Immediately following delivery height of uterus corresponds to—- weeks

  • a)12 b) 25
  • c) 20 d) 32

121. To obtain a true conjugate the following factor should be subtracted from the diagonal conjugate

  • a)3 cm b) 2.5 cm
  •  c)2 cm d)1 cm

122. Maximum function of corpus leteum occurs

  • a) At ovulation          b) 3 days After ovulation
  • c) Before ovulation d) 9 days after ovulation

123.Ovarian function after hystrecomy

  • a) Remain the same b)Increase
  • c) Decrease d) Decrease after 5 years

124. The correct line of management in a child who has swallowed a coin

  • (a) Wait and watch     (b) Fibro optic endoscopy
  • (C) Rigid endoscopy (d) Laparotomy

125.Primary feature of small intestinal obstruction

  • (a) Abdominal distention            (b) Fever
  • (C) High peristalisis with colic  (d) Vomiting

126.A patient undergoing TURP under bupivacane anesthesia suddenly developed pain after 30 minutes of surgery. May be due to

  • (a) Mesentric ischemia               (b) DIC
  • (C) Anaphylaxis of anesthesia (d) Bladder rupture

127) Match list I (diseases) and list II (operation procedure) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:
List I                                 List II

  • A. Hirschsprung’s disease    1. Abdominal perineal resection
  • B. Rectal carcinoma             2. Lumbar sympathectomy
  • C. Buerger’s disease           3. Whipple’s procedure
  • D. Periampullary carcino     4.Duhamel procedure

Codes:
A) A:3, B:1, C:2, D:4 B) A:3, B:2, C:1, D:4
C) A:4, B:2, C:1, D:3 D) A:4, B:1, C:2, D:3

128. Which one of the following is the complication of “Meckel’s Diverticulum” ?

  • (a) Retinal detachment
  • (b) Haemorrhoids
  • (c) Peptic ulcer
  • (d) Corneal ulcer

129. Marked tenderness with severe pain at Mqburney’s point is a diagnostic feature of:

  • (a) Salpingitis
  • (b) Appendicitis
  • (c) Ovaritis
  • (d) Cystitis

130.Reparative granuloma of jaw is treated by

  • a)Curettage                                      b) Wedge resection
  • c) Resection & bone grafting   d)Antibiotics

131. In ‘hernia en glissade’ the most common content is

  • a) Uterus        b) Urinary bladder
  • c) Omentum d) Sigmoid colon

132. Subcutaneous calcifications are seen in

  • a)Hyperparathyroidism b)Gout
  • c) Onchrosis                        d) Malignancies

133. Renal tuberculosis originates in the

  • a)Renal medulla       b) Renal papilla
  • c) Afferent tubules d) Efferent tubules

134) Which one of the following indices of obesity can be calculated by the formula “Height (in cms.)- 100”?

  • a) Broca index
  • b) Body mass index
  • c) Corpulence index
  • d) Ponderal index

135) The bodies seen on microscopic examination of liver in viral hepatitis are

  • a) Aschoff bodies
  • b) Councilman’s bodies
  • c) L. D. bodies
  • d) Mallory`s bodies

136) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I                        List-II
(Disease)                ( HLA allele)

  • A. Ankylosing spondylitis     1. DR3
  • B. Rheumatoid arthritis       2. B27
  • C. Haemochromatosis          3. BW47
  • D. Chronic active hepatitis  4. A3

                                                                  5.DR4
Codes:  A B C D

  • (a) 3 4 2 1
  • (b) 2 5 4 1
  • (c) 2 1 4 3
  • (d) 3 5 2 4

137) Nikolysky’s sign is diagnostic of

  • a)Lichen planus
  • b)Pemphigus
  • c)Psoriasis
  • d)Tuberous sclerosis

138) A child develops acute renal failure following an episode of diarrhoea. Blood examination shows thrombocytopenia. Possible diagnosis:

  • a)Dengue shock syndrome
  • b)I.T.P
  • c)H.S.Purpura
  • d)Hemolytic uraemic syndrome

139) Match the following:
List-I                            List-II
A. U wave                       1. Hypothermia
B.Peaked T wave         2. Hypocalcaemia
C. Increased QT wave  3. Hyperkalemia
D. J wave                       4. Hypokalemia

  • (a) A-4,B-2,C-1,D-3
  • (b) A-4,B-3,C-1,D-2
  • (c) A-4,B-3,C-2,D-1
  • (d) A-1,B-3,C-2,D-4

140) Osteochondritis of tibial tubercle is called

  • a)Osgood schlatters diseases
  • b)Severs diseases
  • c)Kohlers diseases
  • d)Kienbocks diseases

141) The type of pneumonia appeared to be transmitted by water droplets in air conditioners& coolers is

  • a)Klebsiella pneumonia
  • b) Pneumocystic carini pneumonia
  • c)Legionella pneumonia
  • d)Mycoplasma pneumonia

142. The commonest form of MND is :

  • (A) Amyotrophic Lateral sclerosis. (B) Western Pacific form.
  • (C) Progressive Bulbar palsy.              (D) Primary Lateral Sclerosis

143. Common psycho somatic respiratory disorder is :

  • (A) Bronchitis.                  (B) Emphysema.
  • (C) Bronchial Asthma.   (D) Pneumonia.

144. Bell’s Palsy is a :

  • (A) UMN type of facial palsy.  (B) LMN type of facial palsy.
  • (C) Both UMN and LMN type. (D) None of above.

145. In respiratory distress syndrome of new born (RDS):

  • (A) Cilia is devoid.                                    (B) Hucus is collected.
  • (C) Surfactant in Alveoli is Reduced (D) None of above.

146. Chronic Corpulmonale means :

  • (A) Heart failure.
  • (B) Respiratory Failure.
  • (C) Heart Disease secondary to lung Disease.
  • (D) Primary heart disease.

147. In athlets bradycardia is because ‘

  • (A) Becreased sympathetic tone. (B) Increased vagal tone.
  • (C) ‘Decreased vagal tone                (D) Increased sympathetic ton

148. Fat embolism can be caused by :

  • (A) Subclavian vein catheterisation. (B) Caesarean section. ,—–
  • (C) Fracture of long bones.                     (D) incised wounds of lower cervical region.

149)Match the following

  • A)Sabin fieldman dye test (1) Echinocoocus.garanulosus
  • B)Casoni`s test                (2)Toxoplasmosis
  • C)Aldehyde test                (3)Infectious mononucleosis
  • D)Paulbunneltest              (4)Leishmaniasis

(a)A-4,B-1,C-3,D-2 (b)A-2,B1,C-3,D-4
(c)A-2,B-1,C-4,D-3 (d)A-1,B-4,C-2,D-3

150) A child from a Sindhi family presented with severe anaemia,pereipheral smear shows microcytic hypochromic type,serum ferritin is normal,TIBC reduced next investigation of choice

  • (a)Hemoglobin electrophoresis (b)Seruum iron examination
  • (c)Kidney function test                 (d)Stool examination


Download Answer key
 : www.similima.com/pdf/ihma-answerkey2006.pdf

All rights reserved @ similima

IHMA Model MD Homeopathy Entrance 2006 Paper 1

Questions : 150         Marks : 600     Time : 120 Minutes

1.Please read the instructions given in the OMR Answer Sheet for marking answers. Candidates are advised to strictly follow the instructions contained in the OMR Answer Sheet.

2. For each question there are four suggested answers, given against (A), (B), (C) and (D) of which only one will be MOST APPROPRIATE answer. Indicate it in the OMR Answer Sheet.

3. Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to penalization formula based on the number of right answers actually marked and the number of wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded FOUR marks. ONE mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a question will be deemed as an incorrect response and will be negatively marked.                             

1) A 50 year old lady presented with severe anxiety with inability to keep still. She would constantly move about her house, and had strange impulses to kill others especially when at rest. She said she frequently had the feeling that she had forgotten something, but could not tell what it was. She has recently become averse to company, and doesn’t like people talking to her. The remedy is

  • A) Hepar sulph    B) Tarentula Hispanica
  • C) Iodum                D) Argentum Nit

2)Match remedies in List-I with those in List-II according to complementary relationship and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I                    List II
(Symptoms)          (Medicines)

  • A. Graph                 1. Calc carb.
  • B. Kalmia                 2. Benz-ac.
  • C. Secale                3. Caust.
  • D. Cupr                   4. Ars.

(a) A B C D
3 2 4 1
(b) A B C D
2 3 4 1
(c) A B C D
1 2 4 3
(d) A B C D
2 3 1 4

3)A 38 year old patient with Chronic Hepatitis presented with pain liver region < pressure & lying on right. Since last few months he found that he could not lie on the left side as well, because of a dragging feeling in liver region. He was constipated, had loss of appetite and was nauseous occasionally. He also said that he had a peculiar feeling of nervousness at night in bed, especially on closing the eyes. The remedy is

  • A) Mag mur               B) Cinchona
  • C) Cardus mar         D) Digitalis

4)Remedy for cough only in daytime.

  • A) Nux-v                     B) Coccus cacti
  • C) Staphysagria        D) Kali sulph

5)“Sensation as if a thread were hanging down throat”. The remedy is

  • A) Ign         B) Valer
  • C) Puls        D) Moschus

6)Tenesmus after stool is found in

  • A) Merc sol only B) Merc sol & Aloe C) Merc sol & Agaricus
  • D) Merc sol & Colocynth

7)Remedy which is a cross between Bry & Rhus-t in pleurisy

  • A) Ran-b              B) Kali-c
  • C) Oxalic acid    D) Senega

8)Remedy which has “Complains return at the same hour”

  • A) Cedron & Chinninum sulph only B) Cedron, Chinninum sulph & Lachesis
  • C) Cedron, Chinninum sulph & Naja D) Cedron, Chinninumsulph & Ignatia

9)“Abstraction of mind” – Remedies are

  • A) Cicuta                                  B) Cicuta & Nux moschata
  • C) Cicuta & Cuprum met    D) Cicuta & Anacardium

10)Hot patients, with coryza < open air may require

  • A) Kali iod only                   B) Kali sulph only
  •  C) Kali iod & kali sulph    D) Kali iod, Kali sulph & Iodum

11)Which among the following is the cognate of Baryta carb in tonsillitis according to Dr. Kent ?

  • A) Phytolacca      B) Alumen
  • C) Conium              D) Merc sol

12)Match common names of remedies List-I with their families in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I                        List II
(Symptoms)                 (Medicines)

  • A. Black spruce        1. Beriberidacea
  • B. Indian Pennywort  2. Gentianacea
  • C. Buck bean           3. Ranunculacea.
  • D. May apple           4. Coniferae

(a) A B C D
2 3 4 1
(b) A B C D
2 3 1 4
(c) A B C D
2 1 4 3
(d) A B C D
4 3 2 1

13)Which among the following authors have written the book “A Manual of Homoeopathic Therapeutics”?

  • A) E Neatby & TG Stonham                           B) Richard Hughes & JP Dake
  • C) EA Farrington & Harvey Farrington   D) HA Roberts & TF Allen

14)Which remedy according to Boericke is efficacious in clearing the remnants of cancerous deposits ?

  • A) Malandrinum     B) Hydrastis
  • C) Ars Alb                 D) Calendula

15)Which among the following symptoms are characteristic of Natrum carb ?

  • 1)Sadness < eating
  • 2)Anxiety < music
  • 3)Headache > eating
  • 4)Desire Milk

A) 1, 2, 3   B) 2 & 3    C) 2 only   D) 1 & 2

16)Which of the following symptoms are not covered by Phosphoric acid ?

  • 1)Homesickness
  • 2)Weakness from grief
  • 3)Burning vertex from grief
  • 4)Craving fruits

A) 1, 2, 3, 4    B) 3 only   C) 3 & 4    D) None

17)Which of the following are characteristic of Lilium Tig

  • 1)< consolation
  • 2)Undertakes many things, persists in nothing
  • 3)Nymphomania
  • 4)Cowardice

A) 1 & 3    B) 1, 3, 4     C) 1, 2, 3    D) All of the above

18)In “Materia medica pura”, symptoms with no name or symbol attached signifies

  • A) Doubtful symptoms  B) Symptoms from Hahnemann
  • C) Clinical symptoms     D) Toxicological symptoms

19)The notation ☞ ( “pointing finger”) in Hering’s “Guiding Symptoms” signify

  • A) Approved characteristic        B) Toxicological symptom
  • C) Clinically verified symptom  D) Observations only on sick persons

20)Match symptoms in List-I with Remedies in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I                                              List II
(Symptoms)                                    (Medicines)

  • A. Vertex headache > hard pressure  1. Secale cor
  • B. First stages of a cold with chilliness & Sneezing 2.Cuprum met.
  • C. Asthma < 3 AM                             3. Verat alb.
  • D. Ravenous appetite with diarrhoea  4. Camphor

(a) A B C D
4 3 2 1
(b) A B C D
2 3 4 1
(c) A B C D
3 4 1 2
(d) A B C D
3 4 2 1

21)Cactus was proved by

  • A) Nunez B) Rubini C) Burnett D) Drysdale

22)Which remedy is prepared from the meconium deposit out of the amniotic fluid of the mare or the cow ?

  • A) Malandrinum B) Hippozaeninum C) Hippomanes D) Lac vaccininum

23)Remedy prepared from secretion of preputial sac of Beaver

  • A) Moschus B) Cajaputum C) Castoreum D) Pulmo vulpes

24)Inimical remedy of Carbo veg

  • A) Cinchona B) Kreosote C) Carbo animalis D) Cuprum met

25)Remedy with a pronounced action on the inferior maxillary branch of the fifth pair of the cranial nerves

  • A) Chinninum sulph B) Physostigma C) Causticum D) Verbascum

26)According to Boericke, this remedy should be though of in cases with continued high temperature

  • A)Millefolium
  • B)Pyrogen
  • C)Baptisia
  • D)Aconite

27)A Child with asthma has 2 – 3episodes of breathlessness occurring in the same night. The episodes occurred mostly after midnight, and on a few days had severe episodes around 3 am. The child is frightened easily, and asthmatic attacks follow such instances. The parents said that the child was fat earlier, but was now losing weight.

  • A) Thuja B) Kali carb C) Opium D) Sambucus

28)Which among these remedies have dryness of mouth with thirstlessness ?

  • A) Puls, Nux moschata & Rhus tox          B) Puls, Nux moschata &Lachesis
  • C) Puls , Nux moschata & Bryonia           D) Puls, Nux moschata & Chelidonium

29)Match the food desires, aversions and modalities in List-I with Remedies in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I                            List II
(Symptoms)                   (Medicines)

  • A. Fruit >                   1. Ferrum met
  • B. Desire tomatoes     2. Gelsemium.
  • C. Aversion Garlic      3. Lachesis
  • D. Alcoholic drinks >   4. Sabadilla

(a) A B C D
3 1 4 2
(b) A B C D
2 3 4 1
(c) A B C D
2 1 4 3
(d) A B C D
4 3 2 1

30)According to Nash, this remedy is the nearest specific to cholera morbus

  • A) Antim tart B) Secale cor
  • C) Camphor   D) Podophyllum

31)Repertory of fever was written by

  • a. H.C allen b. W.A. allen
  • c. W.J. guernsey d. Lutze

32)Who told “best repertory is that which one makes oneself”

  • a. J.H.Clark b. J.T.kent
  • c. P. schmidt c. Hahnemann

33) In kneer’s repertory hand sign represents what

  • a. toxicological extract             b.cross reference
  • c. pathologiacal condition      d.remedies confirmed

34)Which of the repertory is written by T.F. Allen

  • a. analytical repertory b. symptom repertory
  • c. symptom register    d. an alphabetical repertory

35)Remedy for convulsions when small pox fails to break out

  • a. ant c     b. rhus t
  • c. stram   d. nux v

36)Remedy for pyromania in Boger’s repertory

  • a. ars alb               B. lachesis
  • c. hep sulph        d. belladonna

37) Gluttony is

  • a. hopelessness                                   b. boldness
  • c. insatiable desire for wealth     d. compulsive desire to eat

38) Anaemia is found in which chapter in Kent’s repertory

  • a. eyes                     b. skin
  • c. generalities    d. extremities

39) Remedy for coryza during stool in Kents repertory

  • a. thuja                          b. sulphur
  • c. medorrhinum       d. Tuberculinum

40)Rubric smegma increased is seen in which chapter of Kent’s repertory

  • a. genitalia       b. skin
  • c. urine             d. cough

41)Sit inclination to is seen in which chapter in kents repertory

  • a. generalities     b. mind
  • c. extremities    d. sensations

42) Showing feelings that are not real

  • a. affectionate     b. happiness
  • c. affectation      d. envy

43)Remedy for abortion from excitement in kents repertory

  • a. Sabina     b. caulophyllum
  • c. ignatia    d. Gelsemium

44)Remedy not given in boger’s repertory for nasal polyp

  • a. calc           b. phos
  • c. sang         d. teucrium

45) Rremedy for corrugated nails in kents repertory

  • a. silicea            b. sulphur
  • c. graphitis     d. nat-m

46)Anthrax is seen in which chapter of Kent’s repertory

  • a. skin              b. extremities
  • c. fever           d. generalities

47)Re echoing his own sound is seen in chapter

  • a. ear                         b. hearing
  • c. generalities      d. mind

48) S.T.M.E arrangement in Kent’s repertory is combined by

  • a. Lee                      b. Minerva green
  • c. Gladwin           d. M.L. Tyler

49)No single symptom, no matter how rare and peculiar can strong without the support of well taken case and likeness of whole patient of the remedy. who told this?

  • a. Stuart close        b. Kent
  • c. H.A. Roberts     d. Hahnemann

50)Word rubric comes from which language

  • a. Greeck           b.Ltin
  • c. English         d.German

51)Editorship of aphorisms of Hippocrates is written by

  • a. Boger           b. Boenninghausens
  • c. Kent            d. Hahnemann

52)Rubric children especially remedies for is given in which chapter of boenninghausen’s repertory

  • a. sensations and complaints     b. amelioration
  • c. generalities                                   d. aggravations

53)Abortion is seen in which chapter of boenninghausen’s repertory

  • a. menstruation   b. genitalia female
  • c. sexual organs  d. generalities

54)Rubric childbed is given in which chapter of boger’s repertory

  • a. genitalia female organs  b. sensations and complaints
  • c. aggravation                         d.fever

55)Remedy for nettle rash in boger’s repertory is

  • a. rhus t      b. ars alb
  • c. apis          d. Sepia

56)What is steiss

  • a. fatty stool          b. region of coccyx
  • c. aggravation     d. sensations

57)Remedy for flies from her own children in Kent’s repertory

  • a. lyc         b. sepia
  • c. plat      d. raph

58)Cold breath is seen which chapter of kents repertory

  • a. respiration   b. mouth
  • c. nose               d. face

59)Brittle bones is given in which chapter of kents repertory

  • a. extremities           b. back
  • c. generalities          d. fever

60)Remedy not included under the rubric lean people in kents repertory

  • a. nat-m           b. calc-p
  • c. sulph           d. ambr

61)The median cubital vein is the vein of choice for I V for withdrawing blood from donors and for catheterization because

  • a) It is a long vein                b) doesn’t slip during perceiving
  • c) It is an accessory vein d) It is a deep vein.

62. The arch of aorta lies behind the

  • a) Lower half of manubrium sterni      b) xiphoid process of sternum
  • c) Middle 1/3 rd manubrium sterni    d) Jugular notch

63. The right coronary artery supplies all except

  • a) SA node                                    b) Interatrial septum
  • c) Interventricular septum  d) Apex of heart

64. Diseases of hip may produce referred pain in knee because of

  • a) Femoral & sciatic nerve      b) femoral &obturator nerve
  • c) obturator & sciatic nerve  d) only sciatic nerve.

65) Which nerve is “Musician‘s nerve”?

  • a) Radial nerve        b) ulnar nerve
  • c) median nerve     d) Sciatic nerve

66) Primary motor area of the brain

  • a) Superior temporal gyri  b) Post central gyri
  • c) Pre central gyri                 d) Inferior frontal gyri

67) Pressure sensation is received by

  • a) Krause’s bulb                      b) Pacinian corpuscles
  • c) Meissener’s corpuscles d) Ruffini’s end organs

68) Tissue macrophage in brain are

  • a) Reticulum cells b) neruoglia
  • c) Microglia            d) histiocytes

69) Normal dead space air volume

  • a) 150ml b) 300ml c) 1200ml d) 500ml

70) Stein leventhal syndrome is characterized by

  • a) ↑ LH, ↑Androgen  b) ↑ LH , ↓ Androgen
  • c) ↑ LH, ↓ Androgen d) None of above

71) Spike and dome pattern EEG is seen in

  • a) Petit mal epilepsy b) Grand mal epilepsy
  • c) Akinetic attacks    d) Absence seizures

72) Third heart sound is due to

  • a) closure of mitral and tricuspid valves b) first rapid ventricular filling
  • c) rapid rush of blood into ventricles       d) closure of semilunar valves

73) Starting material for synthesis of cholesterol is

  • a) Acetyl CoA    b) α keto glutaric acid
  • c) Pyruvic acid d) Succinyl CoA

74).Aminoacid excreted in urine in pregnancy

  • a) Cystein b) Methionine
  • c) Histidine d) Ornithine

75)Pain & temperature is carried by

  • a) Anterior spinothalamic b) Lateral spinothalamic
  • c) Rubrospinal                       d) Corticospinal

76) Theca cells secrete

  • a) Testosterone b) Androstenidione
  • c) Progestrone d) Both a&b

77)Retention of Na +, Cl & H2o is due to the hormone

  • a) Corticosterone b) Aldosterone
  • c) Insulin                d) ADH

78) Which is not affected in chronic obstructive lung diseases

  • a) FVC b) RV c) TLC d) ERV

79) Travellers diarrhea is most commonly associated with

  • a) E coli b) Shigella c) Cocci   d) Entamoeba

80) Vibrio cholera are

  • a) Gram –ve rods      b) Gram + rods
  • c) Gram + flagellate d) none of above

81)Oroya fever is caused by

  • a) Bartonella bacilloformis b) Entamoeba histolytica
  • c) Borelia burgdoferi             d) Pneumococcus

82) The most common cause of congenital viral infection

  • a) Cytomegalovirus b) Toxoplasma
  • c) EB virus d) Gonococci

83) Allergic phenomenon due to schistosomiasis is known as

  • a) Katayama syndrome b) Waterhouse-frierdrichson syndrome
  • c) Caplan’s syndrome d) None of above

84) Frei’s test is used in diagnosis of

  • a) Lymphogranuloma venerum
  • b) Tertiary syphilis
  • c) Trichomonas vaginalis
  • d) Chancroid

85) IP of diphtheria is

  • a) 8-14 days b)2-6 days c) 1-6 hours d) 3-6 weeks

86 .Marker for CA breast is

  • a) HCG           b) CA 125
  • c) CA 15-3  d) CEA

87. “Father of Modern pathology” is

  • a) Joseph Lister b) Virchow
  • c) Louis Pasteur d) Herophilus

88. Most sensitive indicator of primary hypothyroidism is

  • a) serum T 3     b)serum T4
  • c) TSH                d) Thyroid scan

89. Onion skin appearance of spleen in

  • a) Amyloidosis    b) SLE
  • c) PSS                      d) Porphyria

90. The most usual site of involvement of polyarteritis nodosa

  • a) Kidney         b) spleen
  • c)liver              d) joints

91. Cobble stone appearance of mucosa is seen in

  • a) Ulcerative colitis               b) Crohn’s disease
  • c) Chronic pancreatitis         d)chronic appendicitis .

92. The most common site for intestinal amoebiasis is

  • a) Ileum                         b) Caecum
  • c) Transverse colon d) Duodenum

93. ‘School of fish’ type of arrangement is seen in

  • a) V.parahaemolyticus b)Pseudomonas mallei
  • c) H.ducreyi                     d) Bordetella parapertussis

94. Framboesia is another name for

  • a) Pinta b) Endemic syphilis
  • c) Yaws d) Any of above

95. Toxic epidermal necrolysis is caused by

  • a) Staphylococci b) Pneumococci
  • c) E.coli                  d) Pseudomonas

96. The commest form of anthrax is

  • a) Ailmentary b) Cutaneous
  • c) Pulmonary d)Hepatic

97. Joule burn is seen in

  • a) Drowning                 b) Electocution
  • c) Datura poisoning d) None of above

98. Rigor mortis first starts in

  • a)Jaw b) upper eyelids c) fingers d)neck

99. Cyanide poisoning produces

  • a) brick red colour b) cherry red colour
  • c) green colour d) black colour

100. Lucid interval is seen in which of the following

  • a) Extra dural haemorrhage b) subdural haemorrhage
  • c) Anxiety neurosis                 d) none of above

101. Marquis test is used to identify

  • a) CO poisoning    b) lead poisoning
  • c) H2S poisoning D) Opium poisoning

102. Lynching is a form of

  • a) suicidal hanging b) homicidal hanging
  • c) throttling              d) none of above

103.Berberin is found in

  • a) berberis vulgaris b)Argemone mexicana
  • c) both of above      d) none of above

104.The method used for separating volatile solid from non-volatile solid is called

  • a) Evaporation b) Sublimation
  • c) Decantation d) Crystallisation

105. Class v of old class deals with

  • a) mother tinctures     b) Alcoholic solutions
  • c) Aqueous solutions d) mother solutions

106. 1 grain powder is equal to

  • a)65 mg b) 80mg c) 90 mg d) 100 mg

107. First pharmacopoeia was published in year

  • a) 1790 b) 1796 c) 1805 d)1825

108. Cephalandra and bryonia belongs to family

  • a) Compositae b) Cucurbitaceae
  • c) Solanaceae d) rubiaceae

109. Digitalis belong to the family

  • a)Compositae b) Scrophluraceae
  • c) solanaceae d) Ranunculaeae

110. Route of administration of drugs is dealt in

  • a)Pharmacognosy  b)pharmacology
  • c) pharmaconomy d) Pharmacoproxy

111.On the —— Dr Hahnemann has got his M D(doctrate of medicine)

  • a)10 th august 1779
  • b) 10 th august 1780
  • c) 10 th august 1781
  • d) 10 th august 1782

112. Dr Samuel Hahnemann has started his practice in

  • a)Hettstedt
  • b) Meissen
  • c)Leipsic
  • d) Earlangen

113)In the year 1816 Hahnemann has written

  • a)Aesculapius in the Balance
  • b)Essay on the effect of coffee
  • c)Essay on treatment of Burns
  • d)Essay on direction for curing old scars and forensic detection

114) Number of medicines described in fragmenta de viribis by dr hahnemann

  • a)23 b)25 c) 27 d) 29

115. Hahnemann has written the book Materia medica Pura during the year

  • a) 1805-1810
  • b)1810-1811
  • c)1811-1821
  • d)1821-1828

116. Which one of following is a contribution by J H Clarke

  • a)Domestic Physician
  • b)A dictionary of domestic medicine
  • c)Homoeopathic Domestic Physician in brief therapeutic Diagnosis
  • d)none

117.Who filled the chair of Materia Medica in the homoeopathic college of Pennsylvania from 1863 -1868.

  • a)Hering        b)Burnett
  • c)von Lippe d) H C allen

118. The book ‘what the doctor needs in order to make a successful prescription’ written by

  • a) Boger     b) Tyler
  • c)Schmidt d) Kent

119. Magic cure of his disease gangrene of forefinger by —– medicine converted the father of American homoeopathy to homoeopathy

  • a)Ars alb     b) Lachesis
  • c) Nit-acid d)None

120. In 1850 Caroll Dunham received the degree of MD from

  • a) Western homoeopathic college at Cleveland
  • b) College of Physicians and surgeons at New York
  • c) New york homoeopathic medical college
  • d) Glasgow university

121. ‘Table of contents’ included in the book Organon for the first time in

  • a) First edition b)Second edn
  • c)Third edn      d) Fifth edn

122. Of the below in which period the manuscript of the 6 th edn of organon was in danger of being lost

  • a) 1870-1871 and 1914-1918
  • b) 1872-1873 and 1919-1923
  • c) 1874-1875 and 1924-1928
  • d) 1876-1877 and 1929-1933

123. The morbid symptoms of the patient suffering from tape worm are generally of such a kind that they are rapidly relieved (Homoeopathically) by the smallest dose of tincture of —-

  • a) Male motherwort b) Male mugwort
  • c) Male musk root     d)male fern root

124. A small globule of the decillionth fold dilution of ——- gives , with abstinence from vegetable acids,so that the most violent pleuritic fever with all its alarming concomitants is changed into health and cured without the least abstraction of blood and without any phlogistic remedy,in a few –at the most in 24 hours.

  • a) Acetic acid b) Bryonia
  • c) Aconite      d) Lachesis

125.Who translated the section first of organon of medicine as follows  ‘The physician’s highest and ONLY calling is to restore health to the sick ,which is called healing’

  • a)Dudgeon b) Von brunnow
  • c) Weihe     d)Wesselhoft

126.Where will u see the term ‘one sided procedure’ in the 5thedn of Organon of medicine

  • a) FN §58
  • b) FN §7
  • C) FN §181
  • D)FN § 102

127. 50 years expeience of this sort is like 50 years of looking into a kaleidoscope filled with unknown coloured objects and perpetually turning round ;thousands of everchanging figures and no accounting for them!

  • a) FN §25
  • b)FN § 80
  • c)FN § 109
  • d)FN § 246

128. No physician ever effected a permanent cure of diseases of considerable or of longstanding unless some homoepathic medicinal agent was accidently a chief ingredient in his prescription.

  • a) § 54
  • b) §61
  • c) §128
  • d) §159

129.In FN of sec 67 Hahnemann recommends coffee, camphor , ipecac for poisoning by

  • a) Mineral acids b) Metallic poison
  • c) Opium              d) None

130. By criminal treason against divine homoeopathy ,Hahnemann means

  • a) Relying on previous experience for treatment
  • b) Alternating 2 medicines
  • c) Local treatment without curing internal miasmatic disease
  • d) Practice at one time homeopathically at another allopathically ,according to the pleasure of patient

131. Hahnemann himself saw the mumps (angina parotidae)immediately disappear when the cow pox inoculation had taken effect .This is an eg for

  • a)Two dissimilar disease meeting together in the human being be of equal strength
  • b)Two dissimilar disease meeting together in the human being the new one is stronger
  • c)Formation of complex disease
  • d)Two similar disease meeting together

132.Where did Hahnemann recommended to note the the state of menstrual discharge in chronic disease of female in 5th edn of organon

  • a) §89 b) FN § 89 c) § 94 d) FN §94

133. Placebo has been pointed out as something of an unmedicinal nature by Hahnemann in

  • a. § 91 b. § 140 c. § 260 d. § 281

134. The medicine must be tested on both males and females in order also to reveal the alterations of the health they produce in the sexual sphere

  • a. § 122 b. § 124 c. § 127 d § 132

135. Most deplorable, most incurable of all chronic disease according to Hahnemann is

  • a. pseudo chronic disease    b. artificial chronic disease
  • c. true chronic disease          d. indisposition

136 the word used by Hahnemann for totality in § 153

  • a. portrait of disease b. totality of symptoms
  • c. complete picture d. collective symptoms

137. Where will you find VERSUCH EINER HOMOOPATHISCHEN TERAPIE DER WECHSELFIERBER

  • a. § 109 b. §153 c. § 183 d. § 235

138.In case of acute disease ,when symptoms are very indistinct hahnemann recommends administration of

  • a) Sulphur b) Aconite c)Opium d) Nux vom

139.In chronic local maladies that are not obviously veneral ——- treatment is more over alone requisite

  • a)Antipsoric external                                     b) Antipsoric internal
  • c)Antipsoric followed by antisyphilitic d) Antisyphilitic followed by antipsoric

140 .In section 201 hahnemann tells that old ulcers in the legs get worse as long as internal—– is uncured.

  • a) psora   b) Syphilis
  • c)Sycosis d) Pseudopsora

141.Even in such as are acutes, observe, along with other symptoms , those relating to the changes in the state of mind and disposition

  • a) 88 b) 90 c) 208 d)213

142. In case of intermittent fever where pyrexia stage is very short, medicine should be administered during

  • a. soon after the termination of paroxysm b. sweat stage
  • c. declining period of paroxysm                     d. heat stage

143. A true homoeopathic physician never gambles with the life of the sick entrusted to him. Here gambling belongs to

  • a. antipathy  b. mineral bath
  • c. magnetism d. galvanism

144. Too violent action produced by employment of the power of magnet for healing may be antidoted by a plate of polished

  • a. tin b. gold c. zinc d. copper

145. A marvelous, priceless, gift of God to mankind according to Hahnemann

  • a. animal magnetism                 b. mineral magnetism
  • c. electricity and galvanism  d. homoeopathy

146.Section §289- §292 of 5th edition of Organon deals with

  • a. pharmacopraxy         b. pharmaconomy
  • c. pharmacodynamics d. pharmacognosy

147. Seven eighth of all chronic disease arise from

  • a. sycosis b. syphilis
  • c. psora    d. pseudopsora

148. The chronic disease that is most easily cured is

  • a. psora     b. syphilis
  • c. sycosis  d. pseudopsora

149. For the other common Gonorrhoea, Hahnemann advices

  • a) Parsley b) Copaiva
  • c) Both     d) Thuja

150. Infectious form of Psora

  • a) vesicular eruption b) Herpes with peculiar itching
  • c) tinea capitis             d) All

Download Answer key : www.similima.com/pdf/ihma-answerkey2006.pdf

All rights reserved @ similima

Delhi University MD Homeopathy Entrance 2010 Question Paper

Please do not open this booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator
Time : 2 hours
Maximum marks : 120
Name of the candidate :
Roll number :
Centre of Examination :
Date of examination :
Candidates signature :
Signature of invigilator :

Instructions

  1. Total 120 questions in 28 pages. All questions carry equal marks. There is no negative marking.
  2. Use blue or black ball point pen only for darkening the appropriate circle completely
  3. Rough work is to be done only on the test booklet and not on answer sheet
  4. Make sure that you do not posses any pages ( Blank or Printed) of anu un authorized material. If such material is found in your possession during examination, you will be disqualified for admission
  5. If you are found copying/helping others, you will be disqualified for admission
  6. Candidates found in possession of Cellular phone/Mobile phone/Cordless phone/Communication device/Pager/Scanner whether using or not will be liable to be debarred for taking examinations either permanently or for a specified period and dealt with as per law and ordinance of the university according to the nature of offence, or/and she/he may be proceeded against and shall be liable for prosecution under the relevant provisions of the Indian Penal Code.
  7. At the end of the examination handover the answer sheet to the invigilator
  8. Do not leave the examination hall until you are asked to do so

1) In deltoid paralysis which nerve is involved?

  • a) Circumflex nerve
  • b) Musculocutanoeus nerve
  • c) Axillary nerve
  • d) Radial nerve

2) Ca prostate commonly occurs in the……. lobe

  • a)  Anterior
  • b)  Posterior
  • c)  Lateral
  • d)  Medial

3) Length of male adult urethra is

  • a)   20 cm
  • b)   10 cm
  • c)   4 cm
  • d)   15 cm

4) Horner syndrome is produced due to  pressure on

  • a) Stellate ganglion
  • b) Spinal cord
  • c) Parasympathetic ganglion
  • d) Celiac ganglion

5) Rupture of supraspinatus manifest as

  • a) Painful movements
  • b) Difficulty in initiation of abduction
  • c) Difficult abduction after 90 degree
  • d) Flat shoulder

6) Function of thalamus is

  • a) Relay centre
  • b) Arousal
  • c) Pain perception
  • d) Pain localization

7) The receptors of pain is

  • a) Ruffini organs
  • b) Meckel bodies
  • c) Golgi bodies
  • d) Free nerve endings

8) Which structure in the eye is pain sensitive

  • a) Iris
  • b) Choroid
  • c) Ciliary body
  • d) All

9) One of the following is function of hypothalamus-

  • a) Swallowing
  • b) Vomiting
  • c) Respiration
  • d) Homoeostasis of temp

10) The fourth heart sound is caused by

  • a) Closure of aortic and pulmonary orifices
  • b) Vibrations of ventricular valve during systole
  • c) Biventricular filling
  • d) Closure of mitral and tricuspid orifices

11) Each kidney contains about _____ nephrons

  • a) 1 million’
  • b) 2 million
  • c) 4 million
  • d) Half million

12) Brain fingerprinting

  • a)  Used as lie detector
  • b)  Used by EEG on lead
  • c)  Used for quantitative measurement for sulci and gyri
  • d)  Used by DNA

13) Highest concentration of vitamin c in the body is found in the

  • a)  Liver
  • b)  Kidney
  • c)  Adrenal cortex
  • d)  Spleen

14) Normal value of BUN

  • a) 20-40 mg/dl
  • b) 40-60 mg/dl
  • c) 8-16 mg/dl
  • d) 10-20 mg/dl

15) The activities of all the following enzymes are increased in starvation except

  • a) Pyruvate kinase
  • b) Pyruvate carboxylase
  • c) Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
  • d) Glucose 6 phosphatase

16) Hidraadenitis suppurativa is found in

  • a) Sebaceous glands
  • b) Hair follicles
  • c) Eccrine glands
  • d) Apocrine glands

17) Alkaline phosphatase levels are elevated in all the following except

  • a) Brain tumors
  • b) Obstructive jaundice
  • c) Bone tumors
  • d) Placental tumors

18) Rickets is due to

  • a) Loss of calcium in urine
  • b) Increased mobilization of calcium from bone
  • c) Decreased absorption of calcium
  • d) Loss of phosphate in urine

19) Complications of bronchiectasis are all except

  • a) Septicemia
  • b) Ca bronchus
  • c) Lung abscess
  • d) Cerebral abscess

20) The endocrinal disorders associated with generalized lymphadenopathy is

  • a) Hyperthyroidism
  • b) Addison disease
  • c) Cushing syndrome
  • d) Carcinoid syndrome

21) Skin cancer which occur due to exposure of light is

  • a) Melanoma
  • b) Squamous cell carcinoma
  • c) Kaposis sarcoma
  • d) None

Q22) Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS in india

  • a) Toxoplasmosis
  • b) Cryptococcosis
  • c) Cryptosporidiosis
  • d) Tuberculosis

23) Culture media for fungus is

  • a) Tellurite medium
  • b) NNN medium
  • c) Chocolate agar medium
  • d) Sabourads medium

24) All are seen in cyst of entamoeba histloytica except

  • a)  Glycogen mass
  • b)  Cromidial bars
  • c)  Eccentric nucleus
  • d)  Refractile nucleus

25) Winterbottoms sign in sleeping sickness refres to

  • a) Unilateral conjunctivitis
  • b) Posterior cervical lymphadenopathy
  • c) Narcolepsy
  • d) Transient erythema

26) The cycle of malarial parasite is the sequence of

  • 1)   Exoerythrocytic stage
  • 2)   Gametocytic stage
  • 3)   Erythrocytic stage
  • 4)   Sporogony
  • a)      1234
  • b)      1324
  • c)       1423
  • d)      1432

27) Opium poisoning produces ______ types of respiration

  • a)  Rapid and shallow
  • b)  Rapid and deep
  • c)  Shallow
  • d)  Diaphragmatic

28) Almond like bitter smell is positive in

  • a)  Chloral hydrate poisoning
  • b)  Hydrocyanic acid
  • c)  Hydrocyanic poisoning
  • d)  Oleander poisoning

29) Which of the following is used in forgeries as an ink removal solution

  • a)  Sulphuric acid
  • b)  Nitric acid
  • c)  Carbolic acid
  • d)  Oxalic acid

30) All of the following causes constriction of pupil except

  • a) Dhatura
  • b) Morphine
  • c) Organophosphorus poisoning
  • d) Pontine haemorrhage

31) Govannetti diet is used in

  • a) Hepatic coma
  • b) Obesity
  • c) Renal failure
  • d) Diabetes

32) In ca prostate with hemostasis which is raised

  • a) ESR
  • b) Alkaline phosphatase
  • c) Acid phosphatase
  • d) Bilrubin

33) Hormone dependent tumors are all except

  • a)      Ca prostate
  • b)      Ca breast
  • c)      Ca endometrium
  • d)      Ca ovary

34) Patient of heparin therapy should be monitored with

  • a)      Clotting time
  • b)      Bleeding time
  • c)      Prothrombin time
  • d)      Fibrinogen assay

35) People eating seafood diet have

  • a)      High prostacyclin
  • b)      High thromboxane A2
  • c)      Low thromboaxane A2
  • d)      Low prostacyclin

36) All are seen in emphysema except

  • a)      Decrease vital capacity
  • b)      Hyperinflation
  • c)      Ronchi
  • d)      Damage to alveoli

37) Most common precipitating factors for COPD

  • a)      Environment
  • b)      Smoking
  • c)       Allergen
  • d)      All

38) Which one of the following clinical features suggest alcoholism as cause of liver cirrhosis

  • a)      Spider angioma
  • b)      Ascitis
  • c)       Absence of ankle jerk
  • d)      Gynaecosmastia

39) Which of the following is not a feature of ketoacidosis

  • a)      Hyperventilation
  • b)      Abdominal pain
  • c)       Hypotension
  • d)      Bradycardia

40) A muscle biopsy is useful in the diagnosis all of the following except

  • a)      Forbe disease
  • b)      Pompe disease
  • c)      Von gierke disease
  • d)      Mac ardle disease

41) The most common cause of hydrocephalus in children is

  • a)      Posterior fossa tumors
  • b)      Congenital malformations
  • c)       Complicatiosn of meningitis
  • d)      Rupture of intracranial aneurysm

42) Bilateral facial palsy is seen in

  • a)      Myasthenia grevis
  • b)      Guillan barre
  • c)       Muscular dystrophy
  • d)      Duchenne muscular dystrophy

43) The phenomenon of sparing of macula is due to the collateral circulation of

  • a)      Middle and posterior cerebral arteries
  • b)      Anterior and middle cerbralarteries
  • c)       Anterior and posterior cerebral arteries
  • d)      Anterior, middle and posterior cerebral arteries

44) Autism is

  • a)      Neurodevelopmental disorder
  • b)      Social and language communication problem
  • c)       Metabolic disease
  • d)      Mainly due to hypothalamus damage

45) Hyperkinetic disorder is characterized by all axcept

  • a)      Impulsivity
  • b)      Distractibility
  • c)       Hyperactivity
  • d)      Hallucination

46) First sign after radiation therapy

  • a)      Erythema
  • b)      Necrosis
  • c)      Burns
  • d)      Deep ulcer

47) In aortic dissection the investigation of choice is

  • a)      ECG
  • b)      CT scan
  • c)      Aortography
  • d)      MRI scan

48) Most common muscle involoved in lower leg in polio is

  • a)      Anterior tibialis
  • b)      Posterior tibialis
  • c)      Extensor pollicis longus
  • d)      Flexor pollicis longus

49) In psoriatic arthropathy the characteristic joint involoved is

  • a)      Proximal interphalangeal joint
  • b)      Distal inetrphalangeal joint
  • c)      Metacarpophalangeal joint
  • d)      Wrist joint

50) Multiload device contains

  • a)      Zinc
  • b)      Copper
  • c)      Progesterone
  • d)      Silver

51) Demophraphic gap means

  • a)      Difference between birth and death rates
  • b)      Differnec between age specific birth and deatn rates
  • c)       Difference in sex ratio
  • d)      Difference in child women ratio

52) Commonest cause of death in ca cervixis

  • a)      Septicemia
  • b)      Haemorrhage
  • c)       Cahexia
  • d)      Renal failure

53) Which is the commonest ovarian tumor to undergo torsion

  • a)      Mucinous cystadenoma
  • b)      Srous cystadenoma
  • c)      Dermoid
  • d)      Brenner tumor

54) All are true about lepromatous leprosy except

  • a)      Presence of globi
  • b)      Subepidermal free zone
  • c)      Decreased cell mediated immunity
  • d)      Presence of granulomas epidermally

55) Gonococcus is

  • a)      Extracellular gram positive
  • b)      Intracytoplasmic gram positive
  • c)      Intracytoplasmic gram negative
  • d)      Intranuclear gram positive

56) The appropriate sign and symptoms of zinc deficiency

  • a)      Night blindness, keratosis of skin
  • b)      Glucose intolerance, peripheral neuropathy
  • c)       Alopecia, seborrhoeic dermatitis, neuritis
  • d)      Poor wound healing, impaired immunity

57)Tthe commonest cause of hoarseness of voice in elderly man of more than 3 months duration

  • a)      Acute laryngitis
  • b)      Ca larynx
  • c)      Chronic bronchitis
  • d)      Nodular goiter

58) Tracheostomy is indicated in all except

  • a)      Tracheal stenosis
  • b)      Uncomplicated bronchial asthma
  • c)       Bilateral vocal cord palsy
  • d)      Forign body in larynx

59) The most common cause of gastric outlet obstruction in India is

  • a)      Tuberculosis
  • b)      Ca stomach
  • c)      Duodenal lymphoma
  • d)      Peptic ulcer disease

60) Malignancy of testis most commonly occurs in

  • a)      Klinefilters disease
  • b)      Testicular feministaion syndrome
  • c)       Abdominal undescened testis
  • d)      Fliariasis

61) Which of the following miasm has the symptom- desire for cold food

  • a)      Psora
  • b)      Sycosis
  • c)       Syphilis
  • d)      Tubercular

62) The modus operandi of homeopathic medicine is explained in organon medicine

  •       a)26
  •       b)25
  •       c)29
  •       d)39

63) Dr Samuel Hahnemann has given ideas about case taking in

  • a)      1-70
  • b)      71-82
  • c)       83-104
  • d)      105-145

64) Action of the medicine upon prover is the _____ observation of kent

  •         a) 10
  •         b) 9
  •         c) 7
  •         d) 6

65) surrogates are

  • a)      Homoeopathic medicines
  • b)      Substitute medicines
  • c)       Allopathic medicines
  • d)      Antipathic medicine

66) Two dissimilar diseases when both are of chronic character and of equal strength meeting together in the human being will cause

  • a)      A new one will be repelled by the old one
  • b)      Old one to be suspended by the new one
  • c)      Complex disease
  • d)      Neutralization by each other

67) According  to stuart close, constitution of an individual develops as a result of the following

  • a) interaction between hereditary and environmental factors
  • b) interaction between simple substance and medicine
  • c) interaction between simple substance and disease
  • d) none

68) Acc to———-sycosis is contagious disease which results from suppression of chronic gonorrhea

  • a)      Hahnemann
  • b)      J T kent
  • c)       J H allen
  • d)      Stuart close

69) By which methods Hahnemann got the idea of similia similibus curentur

  •       a) deduction
  •       b) induction
  •       c) generalistaion
  •       d) individualization

70) Of the below which is correct

  • a)      Theory of vital force and drug dynamisation was elaborated first in 5th edition of organon
  • b)      Theory of vital force and drug dynamisation was elaborated first in 4 th edition of organon
  • c)       Theory of vital force and drug dynamisation was elaborated first in 3rd edition of organon
  • d)      Theory of vital force and drug dynamisation was elaborated first in 2nd edition of organon

71) of the below which is the suitable method to obtain the pathogenitic power of the drugs

  • a)      Animal experiments
  • b)      Experiments on plants
  • c)       Experiments on diseased person
  • d)      Experiment by the doctors taking the medicine internally

72) how many aphorisms are present in the 4 th edition of organon of medicine

  •       a)  292
  •       b)  320
  •       c)  259
  •       d)  318

73) the friend of health was written by

  • a)      Hahnemann
  • b)      Kent
  • c)      Park
  • d)      Socrates

74) the subjects of anatomy, physiology are not only life but only result of life is said by

  •     a) Dunham
  •     b) Close
  •     c) Kent
  •     d) Hahnemann

75) psychotherapy is indicate din which type of the following mental diseases

  • a)      Mental diseases originating from corporeal diseases
  • b)      Mental diseases of recent origin arsing from psychogenic causes
  • c)       Sudden outburst of insanity
  • d)      Mental diseases having physical or mental causes which are difficult to be ascertained

76) a patient suffers from asthma, can inspire but cannot expire , has severe suffocation relieved by lying on face and protruding tongue.however the frequency and the severity of suffocative attacks are remarkably less during his visit and stay with his son at coastal city.which one of the following is the likely remedy

  • a)      Bromium
  • b)      Medorrinum
  • c)       Corallium rub
  • d)      Asr alb

77) glonoine is drug prepared from

  • a)      Glycerine trichloride
  • b)      Triglycerides
  • c)       Nitroglycerin
  • d)      Benzene

78) most difficult task in a case recording is to obtain

  • a)      Individualizing characteristic symptoms
  • b)      Common symptoms
  • c)       Physical symptoms
  • d)      Mental symptoms

79) the source of theridion is

  • a)      White Cuban spider
  • b)      Cuban spider
  • c)      Spanish spider
  • d)      Orange spider

80) the condition which can affect or modify a symptom is called

  • a)      Aggravation
  • b)      Amelioration
  • c)      Modality
  • d)      Causa occasionalis

81) toothache from tobacco smoking is a symptom of

  • a)      Tabacum
  • b)      Nux vomica
  • c)      Coffea
  • d)      Spigellia

82) vomiting of any position except lying on the right side is a characteristic feature of

  • a)      Ars alb
  • b)      Bismuth
  • c)      Ipecac
  • d)      None

83) a patient is suffering from tonsillitis with a very offensive smell from the mouth.he can swallow liquid food, but solid food causes choking with no pain in the throat.which one of the following is the likely remedy

  • a)      Phytolacca
  • b)      Merc sol
  • c)      Baptisia tinct
  • d)      Baryta carb

84)  A 26 yr old man has premature graying of hair, he remains under constant mental strain.which one of the following is likely remedy for him

  •     a) Calcarea fluor
  •     b) Calcarea phos
  •     c) Lycopodium
  •     d) Calcarea sulphuricum

85) A patient cannot walk with eyes closed , trembles with general debility, has paralysis with mental and abdominal symptoms, has rigidity of calves with debility, walks and stands unsteady especially when unobserved.has numbness in arms and post diptheritic paralysis.remedy suitable for this patient is

  • a)      Gelsemium
  • b)      Causticum
  • c)      Chamomilla
  • d)      Argentums nitricum

86) Irresistible desire to talk in rhymes is the markes feature of

  • a)      Thuja
  • b)      Stramomium
  • c)      Lachesis
  • d)      Antim crudum

87) Craving for milk is found in

  • a)      Rhus tox and aethusa cynapium
  • b)      Sabadilla and natrum carb
  • c)       Rhustox and sabadilla
  • d)      Rhustox and natrum carb

88) Acc to william boericke, psorinum patient does not improve while using

  • a)      Coffee
  • b)      Cigarettes
  • c)       Tea
  • d)      Opium

89) During collapse, the body surface is cold to touch yet the patient cannot bear the covering this sia symptom of

  • a)      Camphor
  • b)      Medorrhinum
  • c)       Secale cor
  • d)      All

90) Which of the following drugs carves sympathy from others

  • a)      Ignatia
  • b)      Natrum mur
  • c)       Pulsatilla
  • d)      Arnica Montana

91) Which of the following medicine cannot tolerate tea

  •      a) Ars alb
  •      b) Natrum carb
  •      c) Arg nit
  •      d) Nux vom

92) Best tonic for debility after exhausting diseases-

  •      a) China
  •      b) Selenium
  •      c) Avena Sativa
  •      d) Psorinum

93.Painful cracks of the corners of the mouthwith cancer of the stomach-

  •      a) Nitric Acid
  •      b) Bismuth
  •      c) Antum Crudum
  •      d) Condurango

94.Which medicine is good for sterility due to atrophy of ovaries-

  •     a) Kali  brom
  •     b) Iodum
  •     c) Sepia
  •     d) Xanthoxylum

95) Vomiting of dark olive green colour during pregnancy is a feature of

  • a)      Carbolic acid
  • b)      Ipecac
  • c)      Sepia
  • d)      Symphocarpus

96) Complaints after eating melons and drinking impur water as per boericke

  • a)      Zingeber
  • b)      Pyrogen
  • c)      Dulcamara
  • d)      Nat sulph

97) Of the below which require change in diet regulations

  • a)      Indisposition
  • b)      Allopathic bungling
  • c)       Chronic disease
  • d)      Surgical disease

98) Which one of the following is the correct remedy for caries of fibula

  • a)      Acid fluor
  • b)      Sil
  • c)       Hepar sulph
  • d)      Calendula

99) Nitric acid is complementary to

  • a)      Ars alb
  • b)      Caldium
  • c)      Both
  • d)      None

100) who is the editor of synthesis repertory

  •     a)      Fredrick shroyens
  •     b)      George vithoukas
  •     c)      Hahnemann
  •     d)      Julian Winston

101)acridity and putridity of all the discharges from the mucus membrane is the keynote symptom of

  • a)      Kresote
  • b)      Lachesis
  • c)       Nitric acid
  • d)      All

102)Repertory of modalities was published in the year 1880 by

  •        a) Worcester
  •        b) Kent
  •        c) Lippe
  •        d) Boericke

103) Author of sensation as if

  • a)      Hahnemann
  • b)      H a Roberts
  • c)      W A Allen
  • d)      Boeninnghausen

104) Analytical repertory of hering was published in

  •     a)1881
  •     b)1825
  •     c)1870
  •     d)1921

105) Concordance repertories are those

  • a)      Written in provers language
  • b)      That do not have alphabetical arrangements of chapters and rubrics
  • c)      That do not contain rubrics
  • d)      Having a definite philosphoical background

106) In kents repertory shaving aggravates is found in th chapter

  • a)      Face
  • b)      Skin
  • c)      Generalities
  • d)      Conditions

107) Largest chapter in Kent’s repertory

  • a)      Mind
  • b)      Extremoities
  • c)      Generalities
  • d)      Genitalia

108) The word rubric originated from the word

  • a)      Rubra
  • b)      Rubus
  • c)      Rubera
  • d)      Rubrika

109) Necrosis of bones in kenta repertory is in chapter

  • a)      Generalities
  • b)      Extremities
  • c)      Both
  • d)      None

110) Hiccup after alcoholic drinks in kents repertory indicates

  • a)      Sulphuric acid
  • b)      Ranunculsos bulbosus
  • c)       Nux vom
  • d)      Lyco

111) Mind chapter in kent repertory was prepared by

  • a)      Lippe
  • b)      Lee
  • c)       Kent
  • d)      Mithel

112)Repertory of cough and expectoration by lee and clarcke is published in the year

  •      a)1878
  •      b)1884
  •      c)1865
  •      d)1892

113) A repertory of comparative material medica is made by

  • a)      Hering
  • b)      Hempel
  • c)      Bryant
  • d)      Lippe

114) BTPB was written in which language

  • a)      Latin
  • b)      English
  • c)       Greek
  • d)      German

115) Under mind section of BTPB undue importance is given to which drug

  • a)      Natrum mur
  • b)      Pulsatilla
  • c)       Verbescum
  • d)      Veratrum album

116) Relationship of remedies is a chapter named by

  • a)      T F Allen
  • b)      Boenninhausen
  • c)      Roberts
  • d)      None

117) Doctrine of causation and time is a fundamental concept of which repertory

  • a)      BTPB
  • b)      Kent
  • c)      Synthetic
  • d)      BBCR

118) Who is the father of clinical repertory

  •    a) Bogar
  •    b) Jahr
  •    c) Allen
  •    d) None

119) Night blooming cereus is the name for

  • a)      Helianthus
  • b)      Cactus grandiflorus
  • c)      Calendula
  • d)      Chamomilla

120) Santonine is active principle of

  • a)      Belladonna
  • b)      Santalum album
  • c)      Cina
  • d)      Puls

Download Answer Key : www.similima.com/pdf/delhi-university-md-2010-key.pdf

Prepared by Dr.Anil.K & Dr.Jithesh T.K. Authors ”Crack the Entrance”

All rights reserved @ similima

West Bengal PSC Homoeopathy Medical Officer Examinations 2010

Time allowed: 1 hour 30 minutes
Full marks : 200
Answer all the questions
Questions are of equal value
Test Booklet Series – A  

Candidates should read the following instructions carefully before answering the questions:

1. This booklet consists of 12 pages including this front page. Verify the Page Nos. and Test Booklet Series on each page and bring at once to the Invigilator’s notice any discrepancy.

2. Answers will have to be given in the Special Answer-Sheet supplied for the purpose.

3. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer-Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer-Sheet as per instructions sent to you in the Admit Card. Do not fold the Answer-Sheet as this will result in error in your marks.

4.All questions are of multiple-choice answer-type. You will find four probable answers (A), (B), (C) and (D) against each question. Find out which of the four answers appears to be correct or the best. Now darken the oval corresponding to the letter of the selected answer in the Answer-Sheet with Black Ball Point Pen as per instructions printed in the Admit Card and in the Answer-Sheet.

5. If more than one oval is encoded for a particular answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer.

6.There will be negative marking for wrong answers. Each question carries 2 marks. A deduction of 2/3 mark will be made for each wrong answer.

7. There are blank pages at the end of this booklet for Rough Work.

8. Work as fast and as carefully as you can. There are 100 questions.

9. The Special Answer-Sheet should be handed over to the, Invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall, You are permitted to take away the used Test Booklet after completion of the examination. 

1. Homoeopathic Pharmacopoeia first published in the year

  • (A) 1795
  • (B) 1825
  • (C) 1802
  • (D) 1798

2. When passing flatus, sensation as if stool would pass with it. Awkward, hasty, drops things from nervous weakness

  • (A) Apis Mellifica
  • (B) Bovista
  • (C) Aloe Socotrina
  • (D) Natrum Muriaticum

3. Normal level of Creatinine in the blood serum is

  • (A)1.2-2.4 mg %
  • (B) 0.8-2.6 mg %
  • (C) 0.2-3.2 mg %
  • (D) 0.6-1.2 mg %

4. Mention preventive medicine for Japanese Encephalitis on the following symptoms.-Nocturnal aggravation, restless, fear of death, anxiety, thirsty, headache better by cold, other symptoms worse

  • (A) Aconite-Nap
  • (B) Arsenic-Alb
  • (C) Gelsemium
  • (D) Bryonia-Alb

5. Placebo is discussed in the organon in the aphorism

  • (A) § 270
  • (B) § 272
  • (C) § 280
  • (D) § 281

6. Music is unbearable, makes her sad during menses

  • (A) Sabina
  • (B) Natrum Carbonicum
  • (C) Aurum Metallicum
  • (D) Aconitum Napellus

7. `Law of simplex’ means

  • (A) Similar medicine
  • (B) Single medicine
  • (C) Simple medicine
  • (D) Single medicine in simple form

8. Mental confusion, cannot find the right word for anything. Rash before the menses

  • (A) Conium Maculatum
  • (B) Bovista
  • (C) Zincum Metallicum
  • (D) Dulcamara

9. Half homoeopathic remedy is

  • (A) Half dram homoeopathic medicine
  • (B) Half pound homoeopathic medicine
  • (C) The form and appearance homoeopathic but selection and application unhomoeopathic
  • (D) Allopathic drug

10. Tabacum is under the family of

  • (A) Polygonaceae
  • (B) Ericaceae
  • (C) Umbelliferae
  • (D) Solanaceae

11. Which one of the following do not take part in the boundary of Inguinal triangle?

  • (A) Lateral border of Rectus abdominis
  • (B) Inguinal ligament
  • (C) Linea Semilunaris
  • (D) Inferior epigastric artery

12. Maximum absorption of water takes place in

  • (A) Collecting tubules
  • (B) Loop of Henle
  • (C) Proximal convoluted tubule
  • (D) Distal convoluted tubule

13. Adapted to indolent, “weary” persons; Averse to either mental or physical labor. Itch appears each year, as winter approaches

  • (A) Hepar Sulphuris
  • (B) Rumex Crispus
  • (C) Aloe Socotrina
  • (D) Graphites

14. What is not the criteria of 2nd prescription?

  • (A) After the 1st  prescription that has acted
  • (B) The 1st  prescription is always a right one
  • (C) The 1st  prescription may be right or wrong
  • (D) Sufficient time has been passed after the first prescription and produce some changes in the patient

15. The natural order of podophyllum peltatum is

  • (A) Berberidaceae
  • (B) Liliaceae
  • (C) Umbelliferae
  • (D) Ranunculaceae

16. Medicine for after effects of eating decayed food, drinking alcohol and polluted water with symptoms of vomiting, purging, weakness, restless, frequent thirst

  • (A) Arsenic-Alb
  • (B) Baptisia
  • (C) Nux-Vom
  • (D) Pulsatilla

17. Vertigo, sensation as if falling to the left. Pains come quickly and go away as quickly

  • (A) Colocyrithis
  • (B) Eupatorium Perfoliatum
  • (C) Belladona
  • (D) Magnesia Phosphorica

18. Promotes expulsion of retained placenta due to atony of uterus with constant urging to urinate. Burning, cutting pains in urethra with increased sexual desire

  • (A) Arnica-Mont
  • (B) Belladona
  • (C) Cantharis
  • (D) Murex

19. The 8th cranial nerve is

  • (A) Abducent
  • (B) Facial
  • (C) Vagus
  • (D) Auditory

20. Habitat of Acalypha indica is

  • (A) England
  • (B) America
  • (C) Germany
  • (D) India

21. Which is not the characteristic symptom?

  • (A) Key-notes symptom
  • (B) Negative general symptom
  • (C) Determinative symptom
  • (D) Basic symptom

22. Sudden flushes of heat, followed by great nervous weakness and irregular intermitting pulse, occurring at the climacteric by least motion. Fatal syncope may occur when being raised to upright position

  • (A) Lachesis
  • (B) Sulphur
  • (C) Cinchona
  • (D) Digitalis Purpurea

23. Postpartum Haemorrhage due to atony of uterus after prolonged malhandled labour with soreness in abdomen

  • (A) Arnica-Mont
  • (B) Caulophyllum
  • (C) China-Off
  • (D) Sepia

24. Great soreness of all the parts upon which one lies. Aggravation lying on affected side

  • (A) Nux Moschata
  • (B) Baptisia Tinctoria
  • (C) Pyrogen
  • (D) Arnica Montana

25. Sundew is the common name of

  • (A) Sabadilla
  • (B) Sarsaparilla
  • (C) Drosera
  • (D) Thlaspi bursa pastoris

26. The principles of diet during homoeopathic treatment should be based on except

  • (A) Considering the minuteness of the doses everything must be removed from the diet and regimen which can have any medicinal action
  • (B) Suitable, nutritious, unmedicinal food and drink are to be taken by the patient
  • (C) In all acute diseases, the diet should be given according to patient’s urgent desire
  • (D) The desire of the patient affected by an acute disease with regard to food and drink is certainly, chiefly for things that give palliative relief

27. What medicine you prefer to prescribe in uric acid diathesis with blue urine, joint pain, nausea?

  • (A) Ars-Alb
  • (B) Benzoic Acid
  • (C) Bryonia-Alb
  • (D) Colchicum

28. In a chronic alcoholic patient all the following may be seen in the liver except

  • (A) Fatty degeneration
  • (B) Chronic hepatitis
  • (C) Granuloma formation
  • (D) Cholestatic hepatitis

29. Haemorrhages; blood oozes from mouth, nose, anus or sexual organs; black, thick, tar like, rapidly decomposing. When Arsenicum or the best selected remedy fails to relieve the burning pain of carbuncle or malignant ulceration

  • (A) Lachesis
  • (B) Apis Mellifica
  • (C) Anthracinum
  • (D) Crotalus Horridus

30. Drugs which are prepared from the morbid product are called

  • (A) Drugs
  • (B) Medicines
  • (C) Sarcodes
  • (D) Nosodes

31. Acute hydrocephalus, with open sutures; stupor, sight of one eye lost; constant and voluntary motion of one arm and one leg. Excretions diminished, specially urine and sweat

  • (A) Bryonia Alba
  • (B) Apocynum Cannabinum
  • (C) Zincum Metallicum
  • (D) Apis Mellifica

32. Labour pains-violent, spasmodic caused urging to stool or to urinate in irritable patient

  • (A) Cantharis
  • (B) Nux-Vom
  • (C) Pulsatilla
  • (D) Sulphur

33. Which one is right?

  • (A) There is no specific remedy in homoeopathy (B) There is specific remedy to the disease in homoeopathy
  • (C) There is specific remedy to the case of disease in homoeopathy
  • (D) There is specific remedy to a person in homoeopathy

34. Hammering headache from exposed to sun better by perspiration. Great debility and emaciation while living

well in constipated patient. Mention the medicine

  • (A) Belladona
  • (B) Bryonia
  • (C) Nat-Mur
  • (D) Pulsatilla

35. From which triturated potency the drug is converted to liquid potency

  • (A) 4x
  • (B) 6x
  • (C) 8x
  • (D) 12x

36. What is not the character of typical intermittent disease?

  • (A) A morbid state of unvarying character
  • (B) The morbid state returns at a ,tolerably fixed period
  • (C) The pattern is typically found in febrile intermittent disease only
  • (D) In between the two outbreaks, the patient appears to be in good health

37. Traumatic Chronic neuritis; neuralgia of stump after amputation; burning and stinging pains. Aggravates predominantly in the evening and in warm room

  • (A) Pulsatilla
  • (B) Sulphur
  • (C) Carbo Animalis
  • (D) Allium Cepa

38. Rheumatism of the shoulder joint, or at insertion of deltoid-worse from raising arm laterally and at night better by daybreak. Used to wash hands several times even it is clean. There is hereditary tendency to alcoholism. Mention the medicine

  • (A) Pulsatilla
  • (B) Rhus-Tox
  • (C) Ruta-G
  • (D) Syphilinum

39. Severe left sided inframammary pains. Heart troubles from reflex symptoms of uterus or overies. Heart’s action ceases suddenly; impending suffocation; palpitation from least motion

  • (A) Digitalis Purpurea
  • (B) Ustilago
  • (C) Actaea Racemosa
  • (D) Glonoine

40. The meaning of the abbreviation O.m is used in prescription writing

  • (A) Every morning
  • (B) Morning and Evening
  • (C) Only in the morning
  • (D) Alternate day morning

41. Caries of mastoid, Bloody Saliva, Old people with great weakness and diarrhoea

  • (A) Aurum Met
  • (B) Mere S
  • (C) Acid Nit
  • (D) Baryta C

42. The cause is known when questioned privately to the patient or when carefully interrogated. They are causes of a disgraceful character. What is the actual name of the cause?

  • (A) Exciting cause
  • (B) Maintaining cause
  • (C) Obvious cause
  • (D) Fundamental cause

43. Mastitis-pain worse least jar in Galactorrhoea helps to dry up breast milk in very forgetful patient with history of alternating sides tonsilar pain

  • (A) Asafoetida
  • (B) Bufo
  • (C) Lac-caninum
  • (D) Lycopodium

44. Which is not the character of epidemic intermittent fever?

  • (A) It is of the nature of chronic disease
  • (B) It is composed of single acute paroxysm
  • (C) It occurs in situations where none are endemic
  • (D) Patients (in an epidemic) who are suffering from developed psora are affected and show their individual peculiarity

45. Preparation of Mother tincture of Thuja occ is underclass of

  • (A) I
  • (B) II
  • (C) III
  • (D) IV

46. In Appendicities-pain in right iliac fossa worse by slightest touch, during sleep, in morning of haemorrhagic diathesis patient. Suggest the medicine

  • (A) Arnica-Mont
  • (B) Belladona
  • (C) Lachesis
  • (D) Lycopodium

47. Rheumatic affections, with contraction of the flexors and stiffness of the joints; tension and shortening of muscles. Must move constantly but motion does not relieve. It affects the right side most prominently

  • (A) Ammonium Muriaticum
  • (B) Cimex
  • (C) Guaiacum
  • (D) Causticum

48. Palliation is done by homoeopathic medicine following

  • (A) Law of contrary
  • (B) Law of similia
  • (C) Law of simplex
  • (D) All of the above

49. Prolapsed and indurated uterus from over-reaching or straining; Vascular Cornea

  • (A) Rhus Tox
  • (B) Con Mac
  • (C) Aurum Met
  • (D) Ruta G

50. Should never be given in syphilis; always aggravates the condition. The medicine is¬

  • (A) Syphilinum
  • (B) Aurum Met
  • (C) Ferrum Met
  • (D) Mere Sol

51. Acute idiosyncrasy is due to

  • (A) Acute miasm
  • (B) Chronic miasm
  • (C) Telluric cause
  • (D) Mateoric cause

52. Puerperal mania-very suspicious, talkative,obscene, lascivious, uncovers private parts, jealous, great hilarity, laughing mania

  • (A) Belladona
  • (B) Hyoscyamus
  • (C) Lachesis
  • (D) Sepia

53. Varicose veins and ulcers, obstinate long standing cases, in women who have borne many children having increased ability to exercise without danger. She is having cavities in tooth and likes cold drinks. Who is she?

  • (A) Acid-Fluor
  • (B) Arnica-Mont
  • (C) Coca
  • (D) Phosphorus

54. `Take the minimum symptoms of maximum importance’ is said by

  • (A) Dr. P. Schmidt
  • (B) Dr. Stapf
  • (C) Dr. Weir
  • (D) Dr. Gross

55. This medicine antidotes the bad effects of mercury

  • (A) Podophyllum
  • (B) Rhus Tox
  • (C) Ledum P
  • (D) Anacardium

56. Heels and balls of feet tender; time passes too slowly

  • (A) Stron C
  • (B) Medorrhinum
  • (C) Can Sat
  • (D) Lac Can

57. `Happy-go-lucky’ operation is written in Organon of Medicine in aphorism No.

  • (A) 37
  • (B) 51
  • (C) 59
  • (D) 156

58. Which is not true?

  • (A) Susceptibility is prior to contagion
  • (B) Psora is the sole fundamental cause of all chronic maladies
  • (C) The state of the disposition of the patient often chiefly determines the selection of the homceopathic remedy
  • (D) None of the above

59. Inactivity of rectum, even soft stool requires great straining. After lead poisoning, of emigrants

  • (A) Alumina
  • (B) Platina
  • (C) Silicea
  • (D) Ledum Palustre

60. All of them belong to Solanaceae except

  • (A) Dulcamara
  • (B) Stramonium
  • (C) Capsicum
  • (D) Veratrum Alb

61. A patient of post surgical operations; having stinging, smarting. Pains like the cutting of knife with history of onanism. Mention the medicine

  • (A) Arnica-Mont
  • (B) Chamomilla
  • (C) Nitric-Acid
  • (D) Staphisagria

62. Selection of potency depends on

  • (A) Susceptibility of the patient
  • (B) Nature, intensity, stage, duration and seat of the disease
  • (C) Previous treatment
  • (D) All of the above

63. Leucorrhoea-worse by mental depression happier when leucorrhoea is worse in weak rundown patient with violent sexual excitement

  • (A) China-off
  • (B) Nat-Mur
  • (C) Staphisagria
  • (D) None of the above

64. What is the similarity between antipathically chosen medicine with that of homoeopathically chosen medicine in a case?

  • (A) They are used both in small doses
  • (B) They touch precisely the same diseased point
  • (C) They are both called symptomatic treatment
  • (D) None of the above

65. Spluttering diarrhoea with forcible expulsion of noisy flatus

  • (A) Nat Sulph
  • (B) Aloe S
  • (C) Acalypha Ind
  • (D) Podophyllum

66. Qualification necessary for comprehending the image of a disease is described in Organon in aphorism No.

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 3, 4
  • (C) 83
  • (D) 83, 98

67. Patients crave things that make them sick. Epistaxis in daily attacks, with pale face

  • (A) Opium
  • (B) Carbo Veg
  • (C) Stanum Met
  • (D) Ipecac

68. Vertigo spreading from the occiput with diplopia, dim vision, loss of sight seems intoxicated when trying to move. Sensation of band around the head above eyes, scalp sore to touch

  • (A) Carbolic Acid
  • (B) Sulphur
  • (C) Silicea
  • (D) Gelsemium

69. Fistula in and with constipation, Abdominal Colic after anger-a relapse case after operation. Craving for tobacco of very sensitive patient to slightest mental impression; having spermatorrhoea with sunken feature; guilty abashed look. Select a medicine

  • (A) Acid-Phos
  • (B) Ignatia
  • (C) Sulphur
  • (D) None of the above

70. Kali Carb will bring on the menses, when Nat Mur though apparently indicated fails. It is the statement of

  • (A) Dr. T.F. Allen
  • (B) Dr. H.C. Allen
  • (C) Dr. Nash
  • (D) Dr. Hahnemann

71. A medicine was given to a child of nocturnal convulsion. He was irritable, cross, ill humoured averse to caresses, having naval pain, nausea, clean tongue, desire for sweets. Hungry but refuses mother’s milk. Convulsion stopped after passing lots of intestinal worms, what was the medicine?

  • (A) Bryonia-Alb
  • (B) Chamomilla
  • (C) Cina
  • (D) Staphisagria

72. Veratrum and cuprum alternately week about for the prevention of Asiatic cholera-was recommended by

  • (A) Hahnemann
  • (B) Boenninghausen
  • (C) Kent
  • (D) Aegedi

73. Diarrhoea as soon as he drinks. Swashing sensation in intestine, as from water, before stool. Constant urging to stool followed by sudden evacuation, which is shot out of the rectum

  • (A) Arsenicum Album
  • (B) Croton Tiglium
  • (C) Podophyllum
  • (D) Thuja Occidentalis 

74. Constipation from inactivity of rectum always before and during menses of sweaty and chilly patient. Unhealthy skin. Likes cold drinks

  • (A) Bryonia-Alb
  • (B) Lycopodium
  • (C) Nat-Mur
  • (D) Silicea

75. Cold bathing causes violent headache

  • (A) Tubercullinum
  • (B) Antim Crud
  • (C) Belladona
  • (D) Rhus Tox

76. Spinal irritation due to sexual excesses. Single vertebra sensitive to touch. Extremely sensitive to cold air

  • (A) Calcarea Ostrearum
  • (B) Psorinum
  • (C) Kali Phosphoricum
  • (D) Agaricus Muscarius

77. `The more I see a particular disease, the more I am able to treat it’, this is

  • (A) Expression
  • (B) Speculation
  • (C) Prejudices
  • (D) Egotism

78. Asthma in children, Piles swollen, pain most severe when sitting, Worse at night from heat of bed

  • (A) Nat Sulph
  • (B) Collinsonia
  • (C) Thuja oc
  • (D) Syphilinum

79. Which one is correct?

  • (A) Alternating action is a type of primary action
  • (B) Rheumatism alternates with dysentery-an example of alternating action
  • (C) The medicines having alternating action are mentioned in Aph. 115 of Organon of Medicine
  • (D) All of the above

80. Very forgetful in business but during sleep dreams of what he had forgotten

  • (A) Medorrhinum
  • (B) Selenium
  • (C) Nux Mos
  • (D) Arg Nit

81. Coition prevented by extreme sensitiveness of the vagina with left ovaritis and cystitis

  • (A) Lachesis ,
  • (B) Platina
  • (C) Sepia
  • (D) Thuja-Occ

82. Breast is full, stony, hard and painful, especially when suppuration is inevitable. Great exhaustion and profound prostration of the patient. Emaciation, chlorosis; loss of fat. The medicine hastens suppuration

  • (A) Hepar Sulphuris
  • (B) Silicea
  • (C) Mercurius Solubilis
  • (D) Phytolacca

83. In intermittent fever Nat Mur follows this medicine well when type changes

  • (A) China
  • (B) Kali Bi
  • (C) Lachesis
  • (D) Ignatia

84. Constipation: Since puberty; since last confinement; when away from home; of infants; with ineffectual urging; rectum contracts and protrudes during stool, developing piles. Canine hunger; the more he eats, the more he craves. Headache if he does not eat

  • (A) Anacardium
  • (B) Cina
  • (C) Lac Defloratum
  • (D) Lycopodium Clavatum

85. Restless fidgety starts at least noise. Disgust for meat and warm food

  • (A) Silicea
  • (B) Theridion
  • (C) Phosphorus
  • (D) Nux vom

86. Dr. Mahendralal Sarkar was greatly influenced and converted to Homoeopathy by reading

  • (A) Organon of Medicine by Dudgeon
  • (B) Organon of Medicine by Boericke
  • (C) Philosophy of Homoeopathy by Hahnemann
  • (D) Philosophy of Homoeopathy by Morgan

87. Symptoms following sour food and drink. Thirst for cold milk. Follows well after Nux in fainting

  • (A) Sulphur
  • (B) Antim C
  • (C) Acid Phos
  • (D) Mag Cark

88. Headache ceases during menses; returns when flow disappears with fidgety feet

  • (A) Lachesis
  • (B) Nat-Mur
  • (C) Sepia
  • (D) Zinc-Met

89. Leucorrhoea; transparent, but staining linen yellow; passes imperceptibly from the very relaxed parts

  • (A) Syphilinum
  • (B) Natrum Phosphoricum
  • (C) Agnus Castus
  • (D) Cyclamen Europaeum

90. Which one is incorrect for Lycopodium?

  • (A) Baby cries all day, sleeps all night
  • (B) Waking in morning feeling hungry
  • (C) Complementary Iodine
  • (D) Burning between scapulae as of hot coals

91. According to Aph. 247 of Organon of Medicine, in acute diseases medicine can be repeated at

  • (A) Every 24, 8, 6 hourly
  • (B) Every 24, 12, 8, 4 hourly
  • (C) Every 24, 8, 6, 4 hourly
  • (D) Every 24, 12, 8 hourly

92. Hahnemann’s 1st , 2nd and 3rd chronic criiasms are

  • (A) Syphilis, Psora and Sycosis
  • (B) Syphilis, Sycosis and Psora
  • (C) Psora, Syphilis and Sycosis
  • (D) Sycosis, Syphilis and Psora

93. Pain in pit of stomach; worse by bending forward; relieved by sitting erect. Severe stitching pain in right eye and orbit

  • (A) Bry Alb
  • (B) Kalmia Lat
  • (C) Dioscorea Vil
  • (D) Sang Nit

94. Large dose of specific medicine is advised to be used in¬

  • (A) Primary manifestations of chronic miasms
  • (B) Secondary manifestations of chronic miasms
  • (C) Incurable diseases
  • (D) None of the above

95. Sweats while eating, infallible for stooping, a cold commencing with sneezing and numbness tingling of tongue; the medicine

  • (A) Ignatia
  • (B) Nat Mur
  • (C) Sanicula
  • (D) Capsicum

96. Convulsion, with blue face and clenched thumbs; Clonic spasms; beginning in fingers and toes, and spreading over entire body; during pregnancy; puerperal convulsions; after fright or vexation; from metastasis from other organs to brain

  • (A) Zincum Metallicum
  • (B) Cuprum Metallicum
  • (C) Aethusa Cynapium
  • (D) Helleborus Niger

97. Uterine inertia during labor. Constipation in children with nocturnal enuresis

  • (A) Kreosotum
  • (B) Caulophyllum
  • (C) Causticum
  • (D) All of the above

98. Menopausal flashing and hot perspiration with loquacity, great sensitiveness to touch

  • (A) Acid-Nit
  • (B) Graphites
  • (C) Lachesis
  • (D) Sulphur

99. The four epochal figures in the history of Medicine are¬

  • (A) Hippocrates, the observer; Galen, the disseminator; Paracelsus, the assailer; Hahnemann, the experimenter
  • (B) Hahnemann, the observer; Hippocrates, the assailer; Galen, the experimenter; Paracelsus, the disseminator
  • (C) Hahnemann, the observer; Paracelsus, the experimenter; Galen, the disseminator; Hippocrates, the assailer
  • (D) Hippocrates, the observer; Galen, the assailer; Paracelsus, the disseminator; Hahnemann, the experimenter

100. The medicine indicated in diseases where the system has been injured by the abuse of Mercury

  • (A) Podophyllum        (B) Hepar Sulph
  • (C) Merc Sol                  (D) Puls Nig

We are  thankful to Dr. Jehan Ara PGT NIH Kolkatta for this question paper

All rights reserved @ similima

Madhyapradesh PSC Homoeopathy Medical Officer Exam 2008

1. The Scapula is a thin bone placed on the :
(A) Anterolaterral aspect of the thoracic cage
(B) Superiolateral aspect of the thoracic rage
(C)  Posterolateral aspect of the thoracic cage
(D) None of’ the above

2. The articular  surface of the clavicle is covered with :

  • (A) muscle                             (B) cartilage
  • (C) fibrous tissue                (D) fibrocartilage

3. Muscles of the first layer of the sole is :

  • (A) flexor hallucis longus                   (B) lumbricals
  • (C) flexor digitorum longus               (D) flexer digitorum brevis

4. Arch of Aorta lies behind the –

  • (A) Lower half of manubrium sterni
  • (B) Xiphoid process sternum
  • (C) Middle one-third manubrium sterni
  • (D) Jugular notch

5.  The facial bones are

  • (A) 10 in number
  • (B) 20 in number
  • (C) 13 in number
  • (D) 14 in number

6. It is dangerous when :

  • (A) diastolic value is high
  • (B) systolic value is high –
  • (C) both systolic and diastolic value is high
  • (D) value is low

7. FSH acts on the :

  • (A) Leydig cells                    (B) Macrophages
  • (B) Sartoli cells                     (D) Purkinje cells

8. In Myopia :

  • (A) image  falls on the back of the retina
  • (B) usually the  anteroposterior diameter is shorter
  • (C) image  falls in front of the retina
  • (D) use of convex lens is advisable

9. Sympathetic stimulation has no major effect on the vessel of ;

  • (A) skin                  (B) kidney
  • (C) brain                (D) lung

10. Class VI (a) includes those drug substances which are only soluble in

  • (A) purified water                (B) strong alcohol
  • (C) alcohol                            (D) none of these

11. The quality of an ideal prover

  • (A) sick                  (B) emotional
  • (C) idle                   (D) trustworthy

12.Centesimal scale was introduced by Hahnemann in 5th  edition Organon of Medicine

  • (A) Sec. 269          (B) Sec. 268
  • (C) Sec. 271          (D) Sec. 270

13. Triturition is done in :

  • (A) unglazed glass mart                      (B) glazed Porcelain mortar
  • (C) glazed iron mortar                        (D)unglazed porcelain mortar

14. The fifth edition of `Organon of Medicine’ contained :

  • (A) 294 aphorisms               (B) 293 aphorisms
  • (C) 292 aphorisms               (D) 291 aphorisms

15. Homoeopathy is a product of :

  • (A) deductive logic              ( B) inductive logic
  • (C) both (A) and (B)            (D) none of these

16. The first edition of Organon of Medicine was published in

  • (A) 1828                (B) 1805
  • (C) 1810                (D) 1817

17. Fundamental cause is due to :

  • (A) acute miasm
  • (B) fixed niiasm
  • (C) non-recurreent miasm
  • (D) chronic miasm

18. Cure has some special meaning in homoeopathic practice. Cure means :

  • (A) removal of common symptoms
  • (B) removal of symptoms of disease
  • (C) removal of the whole of the perceptible signs and symptoms of the disease
  • (D) removal of the disease symptoms in some extent

19. Natural  law of Cure was discussed in :

  • (A) Section 26      (B) Section 18
  • (C) Section 19      (D) Section 25

20. Proximate cause means :

  • (A)  main cause                    (B) internal cause
  • (C) immediate cause           (D) first cause

21. The necessary point which comprise the operation of curing is as follows

  • (A) cause determination
  • (B) investigation of disease
  • (C) investigation of medicine
  • (D) none of the above

22. ‘Organon of Medicine’ was originally written in :

  • (A) English            (B) Latin
  • (C) French             (T) German

23. Psora is the cause

  • (A) non-venereal chronic disease
  • (B) venereal chronic disease
  • (C) all acute and chronic diseases
  • (D) both, venereal and non-venereal chronic disease

24. Natural chronic diseases are those which are primarily caused by :

  • (A) fixed miasm                                      (B) acute  miasm
  • (C) both acute and chronic miasm    (D) chronic miasm

25. Secondary symptoms of psora is as follows :

  • (A) slow recovery of all complaints
  • (B) all  kinds of functional complaints when arising from emotional disturbances
  • (C) melancholy and condemn themselves
  • (D) desire of food hot or cold

26. Hahnemann described in sixth edition of  Organon of Medicine’ that the most commonly affected part by the medicine is :

  • (A) any part of the body    (B) nails
  • (C) tongue                              (D) blood vessels

27. Homoeopathy is a :

  • (A) Science            (B) Science and art
  • (C) Art                    (D) None of these

28. General quality of all the organism is to receive a stimulus and to react accordingly is

  • (A) irritability        (B) sensitivity
  • (C) indisposition   (D) susceptibility

29. Genuine medicine denotes :

  • (A) adulterated                     (B) unadulterated
  • (C) both (A) and (B)            (D) none of these

30. Complex disease means :

  • (A) mixture of many similar diseases
  • (B) mixture  of a dissimilar disease with a similar disease
  • (C) mixture of more than one dissimilar disease
  • (D) mixture of many dissimilar diseases

31. A slight alteration of health manifested by one or more trivial symptoms is : ,

  • (A) epidemic disease           (B) idiosyncrasy
  • (C) sporadic disease            (D) indisposition

32. Pseudochronic disease is :

  • (A) artificial chronic disease
  • (A) local disease
  • (C) chronic disease
  • (D) inappropriately named chronic disease

33. Alternate constipation and diarrhea : lienteria:

  • (A) Kali.sulp                           (B) Abrotanurn
  • (C) Ferrum Phos                    (D) Cina

34. Adapted to the strumous constitution; glands enlarged, indurated, scirrous or open caner :

  • (A) Sepia               (B) Borax
  • (C) Apis                 (D) Chamomilla

35. Dropsy : after suppressed sweat; suppressed eruptions; exposure to cold :

  • (A) Calcarea carb                (B) Baryta carb
  • (C) Merc. sol                         (D) Dulcmara

36.Sensation of growing larger in every direction :

  • (A) Nux vomica                   (B)Phosphorus
  • (C) Ipecacuanha                 (D) Platina

37. The skin feels cold to touch, yet the patient cannot tolerate covering :

  • (A) Arnica montana
  • (B) Lachesis
  • (C) Secale cor
  • (D) Silicea

38. Aggravation—at night; from heat at bed; at 3 A.M. and 5 P.M.; from cold, damp air; narcotics :

  • (A) Thuja occidentalis
  • (B) Sulphur
  • (C) Kali carbonicum
  • (D) Rhus toxicidendron

39. Bad effects from loss of vital fluids; haemmohrage  from any broken down condition of mucous membrane :

  • (A) Belladonna
  • (B) Hyoscyamus
  • (C) Conium maculatum
  • (D) Carbo vegetabilis

40. Great sadness and weeping :

  • (A) Bryonia
  • (B) Sepia
  • (C) Pulsatilla
  • (D) Natrum sulph

41. Diphtheria aggravated after sleep and cold drinks :

  • (A) Podophyllum                 (B) Nitric acid
  • (C) Lachesis                           (D) Lycopodium clavatum

42. Follows well after Calcarea carb in obesity of young women with large amount of unhealthy adipose tissue :

  • (A) Sulphur           (B) Lachesis
  • (C) Graphites        (D) Podophyllum

43. Patient is very chilly yet all the  complaints are relieved by cold application :

  • (A) Phosphoric acid             (B) Apis mel
  • (C) Natrum carb                    (D) Ledum Pal

44. Bad effects of re-percussed eruptions :

  • (A) Bovista
  • (B) Cuprum metallicum
  • (C) Lac caninum
  • (D) Sarsaparilla

45. The secretion is not diminished, the bladder is full but fullness is unrecognized :

  • (A) Strarmonium                 (B) Opium
  • (C) Sabina                              (D) Iodum

46. Headache : always hungry  during :

  • (A) Glonoine         (B) Kreosotum
  • (C) Psorinum        (D) Syphillinum

47. Stammering, repeat: first syllable three or four times; with abdominal ailments, with helminthiasis ;

  • (A) Ruta graveolens            (B) Spigelia
  • (C) Rumex crispus               (D) Variolinum

48. Headache of school girls from eve strain or overuse of’ eves :

  • (A) Phosohoric acid             (B) Cactus
  • (C) Sanguinaria                    (D) Fluoric acid

49. Frequently called for after abuse of mercury :

  • A) Petroleum        (B) Rhododendron
  • (C) Psorinurn        ‘D) Sarsaparilla

50. The burning feet of Sulphur and restless fidgety legs and feet of Zincum Metallicum are both found at the same time in :

  • (A) Syphillinum                    (B) Medorrhinum
  • (C) Sambucus                        (D) Causticum

52. Menses : flow on lying down:

  • (A) Hydrastis                        (B) Lac caninum
  • (C) Natrum carbo                (D) Kreosotum

52.  Convulsion with pale face, no heat, except perhaps in occiput, no increase  in temperature :

  • (A) Camphora                        (B) Conium mac
  • (C) Zincum metallicum      (D) Stannum metallicum

53. The benign epithelia  tumor is :

  • (A) Adenoma                       (B) Liposarcprna
  • (C) Mesothelioma               (D) Neuroblastoma

54. The Polycystic kidney disease occurs :

  • (A) young                              (B) adult
  • (C) old                                   (D) none of these

55. The lesions of Bacillary Dysentery is mainly found in :

  • (A) duodenum                      (B) stomach
  • (C) colon                               (D) rectum

56. The common name of Ascaris lumbricoids ;

  • (A) Threadworm                  (B) Tape worm
  • (C) Guineaworm                  (D) Roundworm

57. Coroner is only a court of :

  • (A) trial                                      (B) inquiry
  • (C)both trial and inquiry    (D) none of these

58. Suicidal strangulation is :

  • (A) rare                  (B) commen
  • (C) uncommon    (D) none of these

59. Where dose rigor mortis starts    from :

  • (A) kidney             (B) Heart
  • (C) Stomach         (D) Eye

60. The local action of carbolic acid :

  • (A) burning                            (B) painless condition
  • (C) painful condition          (D) tingling

61. Medico legal importance of abrasion helps :

  • (A) to know the age of  abrasion
  • (B) to know the type of weapon used
  • (C) to detect the direction of’ force
  • (D) none of the above

62. External atmosphere means :

  • (A) the space inside the room of a building
  • (B) the space outside the room of a building
  • (C) both A and B
  • (D) none of the above

63. Direct water borne disease is :

  • (A) Gunea worm                  (B) Schistasomiasis
  • (C) Ascariasis                       (D) Hepatitis

69. Smallpox was eradicated in the year :

  • (A) 1977                (B) 1978
  • (D) 1989                (D) 1980

65. Primary prevention included :

  • (A) rehabilitation                  (B) early  diagnosis and treatment
  • (C) disability limitation       (D) health promotion

66. The Medical Termination of  act passed by Parliament of India

  • (A) 1905                (B)1865
  • (C) 1960                (D) 1971

67. Neurogenic ulcer is :

  • (A) Varicose ulcer                (B) post thrombotic ulcer
  • (C) Gravitational                   (D) Diabetic ulcer

68. The initial typical pain of Acute Appendicitis is

  • (A) localized and aching                    (B) diffused arid burning
  • (C) widespread and pressive              (D) diffused and dull

69. Benign tumour of breast is usually localized at :

  • (A) upper part of breast
  • (B) upper quadrant of’ breast
  • (C) outer quadrant of breast
  • (D) lower part of breast

70. The rare form of hernia is :

  • (A) inguinal           (B) obturator
  • (C) incisional        (D) umbilical

71. Fever in Pyogenic Liver Abscess usually is :

  • (A) intermittent type           (B) relapsing type
  • (C) hectic type                      (D) continuous type

72. Pruritus vulvae is present in :

  • (A) Bratholine cyst                              (B) vulvo vaginitis
  • (C) Non-specific hectictype             (D) senile vaginitis

73. The cause of Retroversion of  uterus is .

  • (A) inflammatory
  • (B) congenital
  • (C) inflammatory and congenital
  • (D) congenital and acquired

74. The incidence of Primary Dysmenorrhea is found commonly in

  • (A) middle age                      (B) old age
  • (C) adolescents                   (D) none of these

75. The odor of  Lochia is :

  • (A) odorless           (B) offensive fleshy
  • (C) irritating          (D) none of these

76. Preterm labour is defined as one where the labour starts before

  • (A) 36th completed week   (B) 37th completed week
  • (C) 35th completed week    (D) 30th completed week

77. Atrial septal defect is common in :

  • (A) males                               (B) females
  • (C) both male and female (D) none of these

78. The serious complications of a rupture of tuberculous lesion into the pleural space is :

  • (A) Bronchitis
  • (B) Bronchial asthma
  • (C) Pleural effusion
  • (D) Empyema

79. The most conrmon cause of Chronic diarrhea is :

  • (A) malabsorption                                   (B) dyspepsia
  • (C) irritable bowel syndrome             (D) none of these

80.The incubation period in men with Gonoeocccal urethritis is :

  • (A) 2-5 days                         (B) 3-7 days
  • (C) 2-15 days                       (D) 2-10 days

81.Pigmentation in Addion’s disease is usually seen on :

  • (A) eyelid                               (B) forearm
  • (C) Knee                                (D) Leg

82. Dietary management in diabetes mellitus included :

  • (A) abolish symptoms of hyperglccaemia
  • (B) low protein intake
  • (C) high fat intake
  • (D) none of the above

83.A high MCV suggests :

  • (A) Iron deficiency anaemia             (B) Vitamin B12 deficiency
  • (C) Acute blood loss                            (D) Thalassaemia

84. A diagnosis of Scabies is confirmed by :

  • (A) Blood test
  • (B) scraping the mite out of burrow
  • (C) Urine test
  • (D) none of the above

85. The investigation for Simple Mechanical Low Back Pain is :

  • (A) Blood test                                            (B)Radiograph
  • (C) No blood test or radiograph        (D) MRI

86. The CSF of meningitis contains

  • (A) less lymphocytes
  • (B) excess lymphocyte
  • (C) normal lymphocyte
  • (D) none of the above

87. The lesion of cerebellar hemisphere leads to :

  • (A) lack of co-ordination on the opposite side of the body
  • (B) lack of co-ordination on both the sides of the body
  • (C) lack of co-ordination on the same side of the body
  • (D) none of the above

88. Bell’s Palsy is a common condition affecting

  • (A) male                                   (B) female
  • (C) both (A) and (B)            (B) none of these

89.The common variety of leukaemia is

  • (A) Acute myeloblastic Leukaemia
  • (B) Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia
  • (C) Chronic Lympoblastic  Leukaemia
  • (D) Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia

90. The blood picture of Dengue is :

  • (A) thrombocytosis
  • (B) leucocytosis
  • (C) monocytosis
  • (D) thrombocytopenia

91. Hahnemann told that the duty of physician after case taking should be as follows :

  • (A) he will pick up the common symptoms
  • (B) he will pick up the mental symptoms
  • (C) he  will pick up the characteristic symptom
  • (D) he will pick up the general symptoms

92. The eliminating symptoms must come from :

  • (A) basic symptoms
  • (B) particular symptoms
  • (C) common symptoms
  • (D) general symptoms

93. Minute peculiarities are :

  • (A) drug symptoms          (B) disease symptom
  • (C) clinical symptoms     (D) patients symptoms

94.Necessity of record keeping is :

  • (A) selection of potency
  • (B) selection of medicine
  • (C) portrait formation
  • (D) none of the above

95. First Alphabetical Pocket Repertory was written by :

  • (A) Weber Peschier
  • (B) Adolph Von Lippe
  • (C) Glazer
  • (D) James Tyler Kent

96. “I’he biggest chapter of Kent’s Repertory is :

  • (A) extremities
  • (P) Mouth
  • (C) skin
  • (D) larynx and trachea

97.First card repertory appeared in the form of :

  • (A) disc
  • (B) strip
  • (C) slip
  • (D) spindle

98. Dr. C.M. Boger explained that the peculiarity of the symptoms are judged on :

  • (A) 3 considerations
  • (B) 5 considerations
  • (C) 2 considerations
  • (D) 7 considerations

99. Some  of the emotional rubrics have been placed in Boenninghausen’s repertory under the chapter :

  • (A) fever
  • (B) sleep
  • (C) sensations and complaints
  • (D) aggravation

100. The sources of Boger-Boenninghausen’s Repetory is :

  • (A) Aphorism’s of Hippocrates
  • (B) Jhar’s Repertory
  • (C) Lippe’s Repertory
  • (D) Bigger’s Repertory

We are thankful to Dr.Anil.K for providing this question booklet

All rights reserved @ similima

Rajasthan PSC Homoeopathy Medical Officer Exam Questions 2008

Question Paper of Rajasthan Public Service Commission Homeopathy Medical Officer Exam 2008

1.British Homoeopathic Pharmacopoeia” by British Homoeopathic society was published in
(1) 1690
(2) 1774
(3) 1870
(4) 1940

2. The science that deals with different aspects of drug is

  • (1) Pharmacy                           (2) Pharmacology
  • (3) Pharmacochemistry      (4) Pharmacogenetics

3. Desire to be let alone; wants to lie down and sleep

  • (1) Aloes                (2) Caps.
  • (3) Ign.                   (4)Zinc

4. Children ; impudent, teasing, laugh at reprimands

  • (1) Croc.                                (2) Ign.
  • (3) Graph.                              (4) All

5. Feels badly, week before menstruation.

  • (1) Puls                                   (2) Kali C.
  • (3) Sab.                                  (4) Sep.

6. Baby cries all day, sleeps all night.

  • (1) Psor.                 (2) Jalapa
  • (3) Lyco                  (4) Borax

7. Progressive pernicious anaemia, neurasthenia

  • (1) Crat.                 (2) Fern Met.
  • (3) Val.                   (4) Pic-acid.

8. Delirium alternating with colic

  • (1) Coloc.              (2) Cina
  • (3) Plumb.             (4) All

9. Sexula desire absent in fleshly people

  • (1) Cal.c                 (2) Kali. bich
  • (3) Both                 (4) All

10. Severe headache before and during menses

  • (1) Sil                      (2) Ferr. M.
  • (3) Actea. R            (4) Kreos

11. Headache alternates with diarrhoea, headache in winter, diarrhea in summer

  • (1) Ptero                 (2) Led.
  • (3) Staph.               (4) Podo.

12. Palpitation of ‘heart is fe.lt in the face

  • (1) Bell                   (2) Lil.
  • (3) Mur, ac.         (4) Glon.

13. Breast cold as ice to touch, esp. the nipple, rest of body warm (during menses).

  • (1) Medo.              (2)Sil
  • (3) See.                   (4)Merc.

14.Boger was a student of

  • (1) Boenninghaussen          (2) Kent
  • (3) Hahnemann                   (4) Jahr

15. Mental disease is due to

  • (l) Psora                 (2)Pseudo psora
  • (3) Sycosis             (4)Syphilis

16. Mention the drug which is prepared from the normal section of living  animal,

  • (1) Adrenalin                        (2) Adonis vernalis
  • (3) Actaea shicats                (4) Agraphis nutans

17. ldiosyncracy is helpful in

  • (1) Assessment of prognosis              (2) Drug proving
  • (3) Management of  cases                 (4) Case taking

18.Extreme hungry even when stomach is full of’ food

  • (1) Iodium             (2 Cina
  • (3) Staph               (4) Calc. C.

19. The meaning of abbreviation  H.S. is

  • (1) At bedtime                            (2) in the morning
  • (3) Tomorrow evening            (4) every hour

20. A sycotic patient desire for

  • (1) Sweet               (2) Narcotics
  • (3) Beer                  (4) Cold food

21. Mntion which one is published by Authority of Government of India ?

  • (1 ) Pharmacy                      (2) Pharmacology
  • (3) Pharmacodynamics         (4) Pharmacopeia

22. At the end of  treatment  the anti-miasmatic medicine required is

  • (1) anti syphilitic                    (2) antisycotic
  • (3) anti-psoric                       (4) antipseudopsoric

23. Mapped tongue, with involuntary urination when coughing, walking, laughing

  • (1) Causticum                      (2) Nat. Mur.
  • (3) Taraxacum                     (4) Squilla

24.Mention the name of  drug which is to be triturated from liquid substance.

  • (1) Acid benzoic                     (2) Guaiacum
  • (3) Petroleum                        (4) Iodine

25. Repertorisation starts  from

  • (1) Case taking                     (2) Evaluation
  • (3) Calculation                      (4) Rubric hunting

26. “Causam Tolle” means

  • (l) Remove the cause          (2) Total cause of the disease
  • (3) Totality of  symptoms    (4) Proximate cause

27. The  father of repertory  is

  • (1) Hahnemann                  (2) Boenningahusen
  • (3) Kent                                 (4) Boger

28. Mention the vehicle by which you can prepare liniment.

  • (1)  Distilled water                 (2) Alcohol
  • (3) Glycerin                             (4) Olive oil

29. Surgical removal of an organ  causes

  • (1) Palliation                         (2) Suppression
  • (3) Temporary relief         (4) Cure

30. Cough  > by lying on abdomen

  • (1) Medo                               (2) Staph
  • (3) Cup met                          (4) Acet. Acid

31. Largest  source of drug substances in homoeopathy is from

  • (1)  Animal kingdom           (2) P1ant Kingdom
  • (3) Mineral kingdom           (4) Synthetci chemicals

32. Menstruation is a……..symptom.

  • (1) Particular                                (2) Common general
  • (3) Peculiar Particular             (4) Peculiar general

33. Fidgety of hands

  • (1) Zinc                  (2) Kaii Br.
  • (3) Cicuta. v         (4) Medo

34. Which  is indicated  for vertigo after fright ?

  • (1) gels                   (2) Conium
  • (3) Silicia                (4) Acon. Nap.

35. Concordance  means

  • (l) Relatioship between two remedies
  • (2) Concomitant
  • (3) characteristic  symptom
  • (4) All

36.  Drug power of class-III is

  • (1) 1/6                    (2) 1/2
  • (3) l/10                   (4) 1/100

37. Mercury’s vegetable analogue is

  • (1) Podo                (2) Mez.
  • (3) Sil                    (4) Phyto

38.”Spanish fly” is the common name of

  • (1) Causticum      (2) Cantharis
  • (3) Terebinth       (4) Tarantula C.

39. All are  complementary except

  • (I) Ignatia.-  Nat.mur          (2) Mere. – Sil
  • (3) Bell – Cal.                          (4) Apis. Nat.m

40.Hears better in a  noise

  • (1) Aconite                            (2) Thuja
  • (3) Grap                                (4) Bella donna

41. Cannot bear the smell  or sight of food

  • (1) Arsenic alb                      (2) Ammon carb
  • (3) Cal. Cartb                       (4) Aethusa cynapium

42. Bed feels hard

  • (1) Pyrogen           (2) Bap
  • (3) Arnica              (4) Opium

43.Anaemia is found in chapter………….of BBCR.

  • (1) Circulation                      (2) Blood
  • (3) Generalities                     (4) Sensation

44. Teeth decay at edges

  • (1) Staph.              (2) Thuja
  • (3) Kreosote        (4) Mag C.

45. Chronischen Krankheiten means

  • (1) Chronic diseases            (2) Chronic miasm
  • (3) Deep acting drugs          (4) Crude drugs

46. Aura begins from heart, medicine in Kent’s repertory

  • (1) Cal. ars.                           (2) Lachesis
  • (3) Bufo Rana                      (4) Aur. Met.

47. Which of the  is not a common feature of Anorexia  Nervosa

  • (1) Binge eating
  • (2) Amenorrhea
  • (3) Self  perception of being “fat”
  • (4) Underweight

48.Which of the following is the  most common presenting symptom of non-cirrhotic portal hypertension

  • (1) Chronic liver failure
  • (2) Ascitis
  • (3) Upper gastro intestinal bleeding
  • (4) Encephalopathy

49.Joint erosions are not a feature of

  • (1) Rheumatoid arthritis
  • (2) Psoriasis
  • (3) Multicentric reticulohystocytes
  • (4) SLE

50. Apart from eschrerichia coli, the other most common organism implicated in acute suppurative bacterial peritonitis

  • (1) Bacteriods                          (2) Klebsiella
  • (3) Pepto streptococcus      (4) Pseudomonas

51. The most common cause of gastric Outlet obstruction in India as

  • (1) Tubercuulosis                 (2) Cancer of stomach
  • (3) Duodenal lymphoma   (4) Peptic ulcer disease

52. Which vitamin deficient is most commonly seen in a pregnant mother  who is on phenytoin therapy for epilepsy?

  • (1) Vitamin B6                     (2) Vitamin B 12
  • (3) Vitamin                           (4) Folic acid

53. The following complications during pregnancy increase the risk of PPH  except

  • (1) Hypertension                  (2) Macrosomia
  • (3) Twin pregnancy             (4) HYdramnios

54.palpabale  purpura could occur in the following conditions, except

  • (1) Thrombocytopenia
  • (2) Small vessel vasculitis
  • (3) Disseminated gonococcal infection
  • (4) Acute menigiococcemia

55. All the following  can cause osteoporosis, except

  • (1) Hyprthyrodism                              (2) Steroid use
  • (3) Fluorosis                                          (41) Thyrotoxicosis

56. All the  following conditions are known to cause diabetes insipidus  except

  • (1) Multiple sclerosis                           (2) Head injury
  • (3) Histocytosis                                    (4) Viral encephalitis

57. All of  the following CSF findings are present in tuberculous meningitis, except

  • (1) Raised protein levels                     (2) Low chloride levels
  • (3) Cob web formation                       (4) Raised sugar levels

58. Vitamin B12 deficiency can give rise to all of the following, except

  • (1) Myelopathy                                    (2) Optic atrophy
  • (3) Pherpheral  Neuropathy          (4) Myopathy

59.  A blood stained discharge from the nipple indicates one of the following

  • (1) Breast abscess                                (2) Fibroadenorna
  • (3) Duct papilloma                              (4) Fat necrosis of breast

60. The most  common complication seen in hiatus hernia is

  • (1) Oesophgitis                     (2) Aspiration pneumonitis
  • (3) Volulus                            (4) Esophageal stricture

61.All are the cause of intrauterine growth retardation except

  • (1) Anemia
  • (2) Pregnancy induced hypertension
  • (3) Maternal heart disease
  • (4) Gestational diabetes

62. Use of one of the following vaccination is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy

  • (1) Hepatitsi B                      (2) Cholera
  • (3) Rabies                             (4) Yellow fever

63. The most common  cause of secondary amenorrhoea in  India is

  • (1) Endometrial tuberculosis
  • (2) Premature ovarian failure
  • (3) Polycystic ovarian syndrome
  • (4) Sheehan’s syndrome

64. All the following  are used as proxy measure for incubation period, except

  • (1) Latent period
  • (2) Period of communicability
  • (3) Serial interval
  • (4) Generation time

65. All of the  following are the mode of transmission of leprosy, accept

  • (1) Breast milk
  • (2) Insect bite
  • (3) Transplacental spread
  • (4) Droplet infection

66. The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of tuberculosis infection in a community is

  • (1) Mass Miniature Radiotherapy
  • (2) Sputum Examination
  • (3) Tubcrculin Test
  • (4) Clinical Examination

67. Bone marrow transplantation can be used as a treatment for all, except

  • (1) Osteoprosis
  • (2) Adrenoleukodystrophy
  • (3) Hurler’s syndrome
  • (4) Hemochromatosis

68. Polycystic disease  of  the kidney may have cysts in all of the following organs, except

  • (1) Lung                 (2) Liver
  • (3) Pancreas          (4) Spleen

69. Persistent vomiting most likely causes

  • (1) Hyperkalemia
  • (2) Acidic urine excretion
  • (3) Hypochloremia
  • (4) Hyperventilation

70. In Budd chiari syndrome, the site of venous thrombosis is

  • (1) lntrahepatic inferior vena cava
  • (2) Intrarenal inferior vena cava
  • (3) Hepatic veins
  • (4) Portal veins

71. Estimation of the following hormones is useful while investigating a case of gynaccomastia, except

  • (1) Testosterone                   (2) Prolactin
  • (3) Estradiol                          (4) Lutenizing hormnone

72. The most  common site of intestinal obstruction in gall stone ileus

  • (1) Jejanum                          (2) Ileum
  • (3) Transverse  colon     (4) Sigmoid colon

73.  Which of the following types of pancreatitis has the best prognosis

  • (1) Alcoholic pancreatitis
  • (2) Gall stone pancreatitis
  • (3) Post operative pancreatitis
  • (4) Idiopathic pancreatitis

74. Which one of the following is not  an important cause hyponatremia

  • (1) Gastric fistula
  • (2) Excessive vomiting
  • (3) Excessive sweating
  • (4) Prolonged Ryle’s tube aspiration

75. All  the following conditions are risk factor for urinary tract infections in pregnancy,except

  • (1) Diabetes                      (2) Hypertension
  • (3) Sickle cell anemia  (4) Vesiscoureteral relflux

76. In one single visit,  a  9-months old, unimmunized child can he given the  following vaccination

  • (1) Only BCG
  • (2) BCG, DPT-I, OPV-l
  • (3) DPT-1, OPV-1, Measles
  • (4) BCG,  DPT-l, OPV-1, Measles

77. The organism most commonly causing genital filariasis in most part Bihar and Eastern UP is

  • (1) Wichercriat bamcrofti                  (2) Brugia malayi
  • (3) Onchocera volvulus                      (4) Dirofilaria

78. Magnum opus is the work of

  • (1) Hahnemann                   (2) Lord Bacon
  • (3) Aristotle                           (4) Hippocrates

79. Fragemnta de viribus medicamentarum positivis humano observitus was published in

  • (1) 1810                                 (2) 1796
  • (3) 1805                                 (4) 1821

80. Mental  diseases are …..diseases

  • (1) Acute                               (2) Chronic
  • (3) Local                                (4) One sided

81. Electrotherapy deals with sec………..of 6th edition

  • (1) 285                   (2) 285-286
  • (3) 286                   (4) 284

82. The name  50 millisimal  potency was given by

  • (l) Hering               (2) Hahnemann
  • (3) Boericke          (4) Dr. P. Schmidt

83. With a family history of tubercuiosis a few dose of  tuberculinum act as …………..remedy

  • (1) Complementary            (2) Intercurrent
  • (3) Cognate                           (4) Antimiasmatic

84. Who says, “There is no disease, but sick people” ?

  • (1) Hahnemann                   (2) Kent
  • (3) Stuart Close                    (4)Hippocrates

85. The 5th edition of organon  was published from

  • (1) Leipsic             (2) Kothen
  • (3) Paris                 (4) Meisson

86. Cullen was a professor in

  • (1) Botany            (2) Zoology
  • (3) Medicine         (4) Veterinary

87. Autocracy means

  • (1) Self powered                   (2) Powerless
  • (3) Empower                        (4) Self knowledge

88. ‘Rubric’ – word originated  from

  • (1) Rubrica            (2) Rubrik
  • (3) Rubrecea         (4) Rubrika

89. Symptom is derived from the……….word symptoma.

  • (1) Latin                 (2) Greek
  • (3) German           (4) French

90. First English repertory written by

  • (1) Hering              (2) Cipher
  • (2) Lippe                (4) Bryont

91. Boenninghausen born in the year

  • (1) 1812                 (2) 1785
  • (3) 1793                 (4) 1801

92. Who is the father of clinical repertory?

  • (1) Boger               (2) Jahr
  • (3) Allen                (4) None

93. Diarrhoea found in the chapter _______ in Kent’s repertory. Abdomen, IOiarrhvc,w Abdomen

  • (1) Rectum          (2) Abdomen, Diarrhoea
  • (3) Stool                 (4) Generalities

94. Yawning is found in chapter of Kent’s repertory.

  • (1) Respiration                     (2) Larynx & trachea
  • (3) S1eep                               (4) Generalities

95. Boericke repertory is a ………repertory

  • (1) Clinical            (2)Pathological
  • (3) General            (4) Nosological

96. The size of globule vary from

  • (1) 6 to  80            (2) 8 to 80
  • (3) 8 to 90             (4) 10 to 80

97. Pulstilla is included underclass

  • (I) I                         (11) IV
  • (2) III                     (4) II

98. For 1st fifty millisimal scale potency………potency of titration is needed

  • (1) 8X.                    (2)4 X
  • (3) 3 C                    (4) 4 C

99. Decimal scale was introduced by

  • (1) Dr. C. Hering                   (2) Hahnemann
  • (3) Hart Laub                       (4) None

100. Rx   stands for the…….. word “Recipe”.

  • (1) Greek                               (2) Latin
  • (3) German                           (4) None

We are thankful to Dr.Anil.K for providing this question booklet

All rights reserved @similima

Tamilnadu PSC Homoeopathy Examination Questions 2009

Time : 3 hours
Marks : 100
Number of questions : 200

Read the following before you begin to answer

  • The booklet  has a cover which should not be opened till the invigilator give signal.
  • This booklet contains 200 questions
  • Answer all questions
  • All questions carry equal marks
  • Answer sheet will be supplied separately
  • Each questions comprises four responses A B C & D. You are to select only one correct response and mark in your answer sheet. Mark the answer you considered the best. In any case choose only one response for each question.
  • Mark with ball point pen only one bracket of your choice – by darkening the entire bracket
  • Do not tick mark or mark the answers in the question booklet

1.  Never repeat the remedy

  • A) when the patient is improving
  • B) when symptoms follow the Hering’s Law of cure
  • C) when discharge or eruption follows
  • D) all of these.

2 . Second prescription means

  • A) prescription given in the second time
  • B) placebo
  • C) the one after the previous remedy that is acted
  • D) well selected remedy.

3. Selection of antidotal second prescription is based on

  • A) original symptoms               ‘
  • B) disease aggravation
  • C) return of original symptoms
  • D) original symptoms and new symptoms.

4. Sleep is considered as

  • A) rare symptom
  • B) particular symptom
  • C) physical  general symptom
  • D) mental symptom.

5. Body secretions and discharges belonging to

  • A) III grade general
  • B) II grade general
  • C) common symptom
  • D) objective symptom.

6. 50 millesimal potency is included in

  • A) 4th edition of organon
  • B) 6th edition of organon
  • C) 5th edition of organon
  • D) none of these.

7. In tonsillitis, purple colour of throat began on left side. This is symptom of

  • A) Lachesis
  • B) Ruta
  • C) Conium
  • D) Hep. sulph.

8. Atrophic rhinitis is the main symptom in

  • A) Lemna Minor
  • B) Ledum
  • C) Mer, sol.
  • D) Kali carb.

9. Nodular swellings in joints is the symptom of

  • A) Lithium carb
  • B) Bryonia
  • C) Conium
  • D) Allium cepa

10.Diarrhoea of green watery frothy like a frog pond’s scum is the symptom of

  • A) Mag. carb
  • B) Mag. mur
  • C) Arnica
  • D) Aconite.

11. Pain of psoric Miasm is made better by

  • A) cold application
  • B) warmth
  • C) dryness
  • D) none of these.

12. Mental diseases are due to

  • A) sudden fright
  • B) fault of education
  • C) superstition
  • D) all of these.

13. All the structural changes are belonging to

  • A) Sycotic Miasm
  • B) Tubercular Miasm
  • C) Syphilitic Miasm
  • D) All of these.

14. Idiosyncrasy is explained in

  • A)  Aphorism 120
  • B)  Aphorism 117
  • C)  Aphorism 115
  • D)  Aphorism 116.

15. Intermittent fever appears in the form of

  • A)  Sporadic type
  • B)  Endemic type
  • C)  Pernicious type
  • D)  All of these. .

16. Time of administration of the remedy in intermittent fevers is

  • A)  at the commencement of apyrexial period
  • B)  at the stage of apyrexia
  • C)  in the chill stage
  • D)  none of these.

17. Migrane is

  • A)  due to acute miasm
  • A)  due to acute miasm
  • B)  epidemic
  • C)  one-sided disease
  • D)  occupational.

18. Susceptibility is modified by

  • A)  age
  • B)  constitution
  • C)  habit and temperament
  • D)  all of these.

19. Vitamin deficiency diseases are

  • A)  one-sided ‘diseases .
  • B)  acute diseases
  • C)  miasmatic diseases
  • D)  none of these.

20. After the administration of the remedy, if the aggravation is short and violent

  • A)  it is favourable
  • B)  it is palliation
  • C)  it is proving the remedy
  • D)  none of these.

21. Fragmenta de Viribus Medicamentorum Positivis was written in which year ?

  • A)  1845
  • B)  1830
  • C)  1805
  • D)  1800.

22. How many volumes are there in Synthetic Repertory ?

  • A)  Five
  • B)  Seven
  • C)  Two
  • D)  Three.

23. In which year was Kent’s Indian sixth edition published ?

  • A)  1970
  • B)  1961
  • C)  1958
  • D)  1972

24. Impulse on coughing is present in all the following except

  • A)  Hydrocele
  • B)  Inguinal hernia
  • C)  Varicocele
  • D)  Lymph varix.

25.How many chapters are there in Kent’s Repertory ?

  • A)  39
  • B)  27
  • C)  32
  • D)  37

26. Boenninghausen Repertory is arranged under how many sections ?

  • A)  Nine
  • B)  Ten
  • C)  Seven
  • D)  Six.

27. Synthetic Repertory was published by whom ?

  • A)  Kent
  • B)  Dr. Barthel and Dr. Klunker
  • C)  Knerr. C. B.
  • D)  Boericks  O. E.

28. Lachesis in Tonsillitis is indicated by

  • A)  right sidedness
  • B)  shiny glazed appearance
  • C)  dark purple appearance mottled
  • D)  none of these.

29.One sided diseases are

  • A)  diseases with only physical symptom
  • B)  diseases with only mental symptom
  • C)  none of these
  • A)  both (A) & (B)

30. Removal of  local affections by tropical administration leads to

  • A)      suppression
  • B)      persistence of local affection
  • C)      incompleteness. of cure
  • D)      all of these.

31. Milk in the breast instead of menses is the symptom of

  • A)      Silicea
  • B)      Pulsatilla
  • C)      Phytolacca
  • D)      Mercurius sol.

32. Complaints of fluoric acid are better by

  • A)      Warmth
  • B)      open air
  • C)      cold application
  • D)      all of these.

33.  Antidote for snake poisoning characterized by neuralgias with clock like periodicity is

  • A)      Kalmia
  • B)      Spigelia
  • C)      Cedron
  • D)      Natrum mur.

34. The characteristic tongue of Ipecac is

  • A)      clean
  • B)      thickly coated
  • C)      mapped
  • D)      red tipped.

35. Misanthropic wants to fly away from his own family, mistrustful are the symptom of

  • A)      Hepar sulph
  • B)      Lycopodium
  • C)      F1uorlc acid
  • D)      all of these.

36. Remedies for Leucorrhoea at night are

  • A)      Ambra grisea, Causticum
  • B)      Pulsatilla, Natrum carb
  • C)      Natrum mur, Kreosote
  • D)      Hepar sulph, Silicea.

37. The relationship of nitric acid with lachesis is

  • A)      complementary
  • B)      antidote
  • C)      inimical
  • D)      none of these.

38.  Foulness, chilliness and hunger are the key note symptoms of a great anti psoric

  • A)      Sulphur
  • B)      Calcarea carb
  • C)      Phosphorus
  • D)      Psorinum.

39. Calcarea carb is adapted to constitution of

  • A)      Leucophlegmatic
  • B)      Scrofulous
  • C)      Phlegmatic
  • D)      None of these.

40. Surgeon’s friend in anti-doting chloroform is

  • A)      Chamomilla
  • B)      Nux vomica
  • C)      Coffea
  • D)      Phosphorus

41.  Asthma relieved by rocking in a chain is the symptom of

  • A)      Sepia.
  • B)      Hepar sulph
  • A)      Pulsatilla
  • B)      Kali carb.

42. The pain of La.c caninum is confined to

  • A)      right side
  • B)      left side
  • C)      alternating sides from left to right, then from right to left
  • D)      left to right.

43. Pneumonia 3rd stage with foetid expectoration, cold breath, cold sweat with desire to be fanned with threatened paralysis of lungs, are the symptom of

  • A)      Pyrogen
  • B)      Carbo veg
  • C)      Arsenicum album
  • D)      all of these.

44.Gelsemium is indicated in ………………         type of fever.

  • A)      intermittent
  • B)      remittent
  • C)      cerebrospinal
  • D)      all of these.

45. Timorous,anxiety, always anticipating some dreadful event, fears that some will happen to his family are the symptom of

  • A)      Argentum nitricum
  • B)      Aconite
  • C)      Gelsemium
  • D)      Causticum

46. Potatoes and starchy food disagree to

  • A)      calcarea carb
  • B)      colocynth
  • C)      both of these
  • D)      none of these.

47. Hyoscyamus cough is characterised by

  • A)      nervous cough,
  • B)      aggravated by lying down when head touches the pillow
  • C)      caused by elongated uvula all of these.
  • D)      all of these

48. Red tipped nose as if frost bitten is seen in

  • A)      ledum Pal
  • B)      lachesis
  • C)      Agaricus
  • D)      all of these

49. In  Cuprum met convulsion, the aura begins in

  • A)      lower extremities
  • B)      upper extremities
  • C)      abdomen
  • D)      face.

50.The remedy for dreams of falling, nightmare and fright in cardiac affection characterized by slow pulse with irregular beat is

  • A)      Cactus
  • B)      Kalmia
  • C)      Digitalis
  • D)      all of these

51. Uterine hemorrhage before puberty indicate

  • A)      Convallaria
  • B)      Cina
  • C)      Euphrasia
  • D)      Ferrum met.

52. Diarrhoea always forcibly shot  out with gargling in intestines indicate

  • A)      Croton tig.
  • B)      Crategus
  • C)      Conium
  • D)      Convallaria.

53. In incontinence of urine …………… patient feels no desire when lying on sides, passes involuntarily when attempts to lie on back.

  • A)      Sepia
  • B)      Gelsemium
  • C)      Pulsatilla
  • D)      None of these.

54. Toothache aggravation by drawing cold air into mouth or cold drinks, teeth turn black, crumble and decay on edges. Drug is

  • A)      Mercurlus
  • B)      Mezerium
  • C)      Staphysagni
  • D)      None of these.

55. Headache or nuralgia begin lightly, increase gradually to the highest point and then gradually decline seen in

  • A)      Kali bichromicum
  • B)      Pulsatilla
  • C)      Stannum met.
  • D)      None of these.

56. Epilepsy at the time of menses indicates

  • A)      Bufo
  • B)      Bryonia
  • C)      Bell.
  • D)      Borax

57. In cough, spongea follows well after

  • A)      Bryonia
  • B)      Kali bichromicum
  • C)      Aconite
  • D)      All of these.

58. Sensation as if a thread was hanging down the throat, a hysterical tendency is  seen in

  • A)      Sepia
  • B)      Lac coninum
  • C)      Valeriana
  • D)      None of these.

59. A Haemorrhagic remedy with- passive haemorrhage from every outlet of body, with common name Shepherd’s purse. The drug is

  • A)      Sabina
  • B)      Viburnum
  • C)      Thlaspi Barsa
  • D)      None of these.

60.  Angina pectoris, pain radiate from the centre of sternum, acute dilatation caused by shock indicate

  • A)      Tabcum
  • B)      Thyroidinum
  • C)      Valertana
  • D)      Drosera.

61. Umbilical hernia of infants indicates

  • A)      Nux. Vomica
  • B)      Aconite
  • C)      Arnica
  • D)      Bryonia.

62. Pulses paradoxus is seen in

  • A)      Mitral stenosis
  • B)      Atrial fibrillation
  • C)      Aortic  stenosis
  • D)      Asthma.

63. Recurrent gastralgic, stomach pain is temporarily relieved by eating .               .

  • A)      Lemna minor
  • B)      Ruta
  • C)      Rhus tax
  • D)      Graphitis.

64. Albuminuria during pregnancy indicates

  • A)      HeIonias
  • B)      Hepar sulph
  • C)      Aconite
  • D)      Belladonna.

65. Stool hard, round balls like sheep’s dung: the drug is

  • A)      Opium
  • B)      Plumbum
  • A)      Chelidonium
  • B)      All of these.

66. The aggravating factor of Causticum in weather condition is

  • A)      damp wet weather
  • B)      clear, fine weather
  • C)      warm air
  • D)      all of these.

6 7. In Argentum nitricum, the symptoms are aggravated

  • A)      during menses
  • B)      during intermenstrual period
  • C)      before menses
  • D)      after menses.

68. Uterine inertia during labour indicates

  • A)      Causticum
  • B)      Gelsemium
  • C)      Kali carb
  • D)      Bryonia.

69.Puerperal metritis  with inflammation of bladder indicates

  • A)      Convallaria
  • B)      Cantharis
  • C)      Croccus sat
  • D)      Cup. met.

70. Abdominal muscles weak, it seems as if a hernia would take place indicate

  • A)      Nux. Vomica
  • B)      Cocculus
  • C)      Dulcamara
  • D)      Gelsemium.

71. Pre-eclampsia is characterised by all, except

  • A)      raise in blood pressure
  • B)      oedema
  • C)      proteinuria
  • D)      glycosuria.

72. ‘Infertility’ means

  • A)      absolute’ inability to conceive
  • B)      apparent failure to conceive
  • C)      impotency
  • D)      none of these.

73. Monilial infection is due to

  • A)      Candida aibicans
  • B)      Tichomoniasis
  • C)      Oxyuris vermicularis
  • D)      none of these.

74. Menorrhagia with disposition to faint indicates

  • A)      Moschus
  • B)      Bryonia
  • C)      Aconite
  • D)      Allium cepa.

75. Haemorrhoids during pregnancy sensitive to touch indicate

  • A)      Muriatic acid
  • B)      Bryonia
  • C)      Aconite
  • D)      Hep. sulph.

76.Metorrhagia after parturition indicates

  • A)      Nitric acid
  • B)      Cocculus
  • C)      Bryonia
  • D)      Aconite.

77. The least mental excitement causing profuse return of menstrual flow indicate

  • A)      Calc. carb.
  • B)      Capsicum.
  • C)      Hyocyamus
  • D)      Mercurius.

78. Menses flow only at night not in the day time indicate

  • A)      Borax
  • B)      Bovista
  • C)      Bromium
  • D)      Conium.mac

79. Climacteric disturbances following excision of ovaries indicate

  • A)      Oophorinum
  • B)      Kali carb.
  • C)      Nat. Mur.
  • D)      Sepia.

80.Remedy that prevents tendency to abort at 3rd month is

  • A)      Nit. acid
  • B)      Sepia
  • C)      Plumbum met
  • D)      Naja.

81.  Hollow of the knee is painful on ‘motion in arthritis is the symptom of

  • A)      Nat. carb
  • B)      Sepia
  • C)      Cal. Carb
  • D)      Pulsatilla.

82. Asthma  at  4AM and 5 AM. is the symptom of

  • A)      Bryonia
  • B)      Aconite
  • C)      Ars. alb.
  • D)      Nat. sulph

83. Cough often ends in sneezing is the symptom of

  • A)      Conium
  • B)      Bryonia
  • C)      Sepia
  • D)      Senega.

84.  The following remedies are used in renal calculi, except

  • A)      Berberis vul
  • B)      Lycopodium
  • C)      Hydrangia
  • D)      Drosera.

85. Neuritis in lacerated wounds is the symptom of

  • A)      Camphor
  • B)      Calendula
  • C)      Croton tig.
  • D)      Crotalus hor.

86. Contracture of muscles and tendons either ~due to an injury or burn is the symptom of

  • A)      Hep. sulph.
  • B)      Silicea
  • C)      Caulophyllum
  • D)      Causticum.

87. Travelers diarrhoea is caused by all, except

  • A)      Giardia tambile
  • B)      Vibria’cholerae
  • C)      Salmonellae
  • D)      Staphylococci.

 88. Menstrual flow only when moving about is the symptom of

  • A)      Liliurn tig.
  • B)      Sepia
  • C)      Pulsatilla
  • D)      Arnica.

89. In ‘DUB’, bleeding is too early, too profuse; partly fluid and partly clotted with labour like pain indicate

  • A)      Ipecac
  • B)      Sabina
  • C)      Phos
  • D)      Sepia

90. Infertility due to the weakness of reproductive organ or atonicity indicates

  • A)      Sepia
  • B)      Caulophyllum
  • C)      Nux. vom.
  • D)      Kali Bich.

91. Tuberculous lesions are called

  • A)      Koch’s
  • B)      Loeffler’s
  • C)      Pasteur’s
  • D)      Wilde’s.

92. Hydrochloric acid is

  • A)      prismatic crystals
  • B)      pungent, colourless liquid
  • C)      black liquid
  • D)      none of these.

93. Fatal dose of ammonia is

  • A)      10-20g
  • B)      15 – 20g
  • C)      30 g
  • D)      50 g.

94. Examples of diplococci are

  • A)      gonococci
  • B)      meningococci
  • C)      both of these
  • D)      none of these.

95. Professional secrecy of a doctor is

  • A)      obliged- to keep secrets of patient
  • B)      maintain the secrets of their family
  • C)      keeping the secrets of infectious disease
  • D)      none of these.

96. Cerebral malaria is by

  • A)      Plasmodium vivax
  • B)      Plasmodium falciparum
  • C)      Plasmodium sickle
  • D)      Plasmodium malariae.

97.  Oblique fissure of the left lung arises opposite to the level of

  • A)      6th rib
  • B)      right second intercostal space
  • C)      4th thoracic vertebra
  • D)      sternal angle.

98.  The spleen underlies posteiorly between

  • A)      9th to 11th  rib
  • B)      10th to 12th  rib
  • C)      8th to 10th  rib
  • D)      7th to 9th  rib.

99. Citrate is added to conventional Oral Rehydration Solution (ORS) in order to

  • A)      correct acidosis
  • B)      increase its shelf life .
  • C)      improve glucose absorption
  • D)      improve sodium chloride absorption.

100. Entamoeba causes

  • A)      amoebic liver abscess
  • B)      typhlitis
  • C)      colitis
  • D)      all of these.

101. Healing is best done by

  • A)      first order intention
  • B)      second order intention
  • C)      tertiary intention
  • D)      all of these.

102. Material suitable for analysis of corrosive poisons is’

  • A)      Blood
  • B)      Urine
  • C)      Material found in the stomach
  • D)      Brain.

103. Employees State Insurance Act was framed in the year of

  • A)      1936
  • B)      1948
  • C)      1923
  • D)      1964.

104. Repair is done by

  • A)      fibrosis
  • B)      scar tissue
  • C)      fibrocytes
  • D)      all of these.

105.Ankylosis in bony healing is due to

  • A)      excess calcification
  • B)      fibroblast deposition
  • C)      weak healing
  • D)      scar formation.

106. Inflammation is a

  • A)      response of vascular tissue
  • B)      destructive phenomenon
  • C)      protective response
  • D)      both, (A) & (C).

107. Administration of  D.P.T. Vaccine is contraindicated in .

  • A)      URI
  • B)      diarrhoea
  • C)      fever
  • D)      none of these.

108. In fatty acid synthesis, which of the following is required ?

  • A)      Niacin
  • B)      Pantothenic acid
  • C)      Biotin
  • D)      All of these.

109. Necrosis is defined as

  • A)    cell death
  • B)    cell degeneration
  • C)    atrophy
  • D)    hypertrophy.

110. Infarction is a type of

  • A)      Inflammation
  • B)      cell death
  • C)      gangrene
  • D)      narcolepsy.

111. Fatal dose of oxalic acid poison is

  • A)      15 – 20 gm
  • B)      20 – 30 gm
  • C)      25 – 40 gm
  • D)      30 – 40 gm.

112. All the muscles of face are supplied by facial  nerve except ?

  • A)      Levator palpebrae superioriy
  • B)      Risorius
  • C)      Corrugator supercilli
  • D)      Levator anguli oris.

113. The muscle stylopharyngeus gets nerve supply from

  • A)      hypoglossal nerve
  • B)      glossopharyngeal nerve
  • C)      lingual nerve
  • D)      vagus nerve.

114. Wet gangrene is an example to

  • A)      Raynaud’s phenomena
  • B)      T.A.O.
  • C)      Buerger’s disease
  • D)      none of these.

115.  Gangrene may be caused by

  • A)      Clostridium welchii
  • B)      Clostridium botuUndM
  • C)      Tetanus
  • D)      None of these.

116. Dichotomy means

  • A)      disclosing secrets of a patient
  • B)      running an open shop
  • C)      receiving or giving commission
  • D)      selling scheduled poison.

117. Keloid is

  • A)      hypertrophied scar
  • B)      hyperplastic scar
  • C)      inflamed scar
  • D)      atrophic scar.

118. Amyloidosis is a

  • A)   Degeneration
  • B)   Regeneration
  • C)   Neurosis
  • D)  Healing method.

119.. Ochronosis is a type of

  • A)      necrosis
  • B)      pigment disorder
  • C)      degeneration
  • D)      jaundice.

120. Excessive fibroin in sclerosis is

  • A)   scar tissue
  • B)  fibrocytosis
  • C)  fibrolysis
  • D)  calcinosis.

121. The base of the heart is related to

  • A)      azygos vein
  • B)      tracheal bifurcation
  • C)      descending aorta
  • D)      central tendon of diaphragm.

122. Poorest source of Vit-D is

  • A)      shark liver oil        –
  • B)      fish fat
  • C)      cod liver oil
  • D)      halibut liver oil.

123. Embolism can be a case of

  • A)      caisson Disease
  • B)      stroke in evolution
  • C)      infarction
  • D)      all of these.

124. Thromboembolic phenomena lead to

  • A)      cerebral stroke
  • B)      myocardial ischemia
  • C)      both (A)& (B)
  • D)      none of these.

125. Anaemia along with leukaemia is –

  • A)      hypochromic
  • B)      hyperchromic
  • C)      macrocytic
  • D)      microcytic.

126. Tympanic plexus is formed by

  • A)      tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve
  • B)      vagus nerve
  • C)      facial nerve
  • D)      mandibular nerve.

127. HIV may spread through

  • A)      sexual contact
  • B)      hand shake
  • C)      blood
  • D)      both,(A) & (C).

128. Following are ketogenic except

  • A)      Alanine
  • B)      Tyrosine
  • C)      Glycerol
  • D)      Fatty Acid.

129. Recommended daily dietary allowance of protein for an average 70 kg male is

  • A)      110 gm
  • B)      65 gin
  • C)      13 gm
  • D)      20 gm.

130. Penal erasure means

  • A)      after the death of the registered practitioner
  • B)      entries which are made in error
  • C)      main cause is serious professional misconduct
  • D)      absconding from service.

131. Stapedius muscle is supplied by the nerve

  • A)      Facial
  • B)      Vagus
  • C)      Glossophaxyngeal
  • D)      Trochlear.

132. Loco parentis is / are

  • A)      an emergency consent taken from the person in charge of child
  • B)      the relatives of child
  • C)      a police person
  • D)      none of these.

133. Bleeding diathesis is   ,

  • A)      Thrombocytopenia
  • B)      Christmas factor deficiency
  • C)      Stuart factor deficiency
  • D)      All of these

134. Parasympathetic fibres that pass through the vagus nerve supply the

  • A)      stomach
  • B)      spleen
  • C)      ileum
  • D)      all of these.

135. Inferior surface of the heart is formed by

  • A)      right and left ventricles
  • B)      separated from base by right ventricle
  • C)      posterior AV groove
  • D)      right and left atria.

136. Nucleus in brain common to LX, X and XI cranial nerves is

  • A)      nucleus solitaries
  • B)      nucleus ambiguous
  • C)      dentate nucleus
  • D)      red nucleus.

137. Saphenous opening is situated

  • A)      just below the pubic tubercle
  • B)      below and lateral to pubic tubercle
  • C)      above and medial to pubic tubercle
  • D)      just above the pubic tubercle.

138. Which nerve does not arise from the medulla ?

  • A)      Facial
  • B)      Glossopharyngeal
  • C)      Vagus
  • D)      Hypoglossal.

139. Which vertebra has the most prominent spine ?

  • A)      C2
  • B)      C7
  • C)      T 10
  • D)      T12

140. The facial nerve

  • A)      arises from the medulla oblongata
  • B)      transverses through parotid gland
  • C)      supplies muscles of mastication
  • D)      carries no taste fibres.

141. Cardinal signs of inflammation are

  • A)      rubor, callor, tumour, dolor & loss of  ferulin
  • B)      dolor; pallor, tumour.
  • C)      bleeding, congestion, haematoma
  • D)      inflammation, healing.

142. Metastasis is a phenomenon in

  • A)      benign neoplasm
  • B)      malignant neoplasm
  • C)      both of these
  • D)      none of these.

143. From lung to tissues oxygen transported is

  • A)      70%
  • B)      86%
  • C)      91%
  • D)      97%

144. Right upper motor neuron lesion of facial nerve causes

  • A)      loss of taste sensation in right anterior part of tongue
  • B)      loss of corneal reflex on right side
  • C)      loss of wrinkling of forehead on left side
  • D)      paralysis of lower facial muscles on left side.

145. Severe hypertension may cause

  • A)      pulmonary oedema
  • B)      reduced visual acuity
  • C)      rise in coronary flow
  • D)      all of these.

146. Protein deficiency leads to

  • A)      inflammation
  • B)      necrosis
  • C)      kwashiorkor.
  • D)      oedema.

147. Anasarca is a type of

  • A)      inflammation
  • B)      nutritional disorder
  • C)      oedema
  • D)      none of these.

148. Degeneration follows

  • A)      Inflammation
  • B)      necrosis
  • C)      disease
  • D)      regeneration.

149. Which nerve passes through Menke’s cave’?

  • A)      Abducens
  • B)      Facial
  • C)      Trigeminal
  • D)      Trochlear.

150. The posterior 1/3rd  of the tongue is supplied by

  • A)      hypoglossal
  • B)      chorda tympani
  • C)      lingual
  • D)      glossopharyngeal

151. In Laryngitis, painless hoarseness of voice, vocal cords are fired with tubercular tendency are the symptom of

  • A)   Belladona
  • B)   Phosphorus
  • C)   Calcarea carb
  • D)  All of these.

152. In nursing women, when the child is nursing, there is pain in the opposite breast, are the symptom of

  • A)   Phytolacca
  • B)   Mercuricus
  • C)   Borax
  • D)   Conium.

153. The cough immediately getting worse from dust, handling old books from the shelf aggravates. The suggestive drug is

  • A)      Pulsatilla
  • B)      Bromium
  • C)      Arsenicum album
  • D)      All of these.

154. Baryta carb is incompatible after ………..:. in scrofulous affection

  • A)      Sulphur
  • B)      Tuberculinum
  • C)      Mercurius
  • D)      Calcarea carb.

155. Ferrum met. patient is of …………… temperament.

  • A)      sanguine
  • B)      melancholic
  • C)      mild
  • D)      nervous

156. Child cries all day and sleeps all night. The choice of drug is

  • A)      Psorinum
  • B)      Cina
  • C)      Lycopodium
  • D)      Chamomilla.

157. Every change of weather to every draft taking new cold, spasmodic cough and every cough ends in belching, heat in palms and soles are characterised by

  • A)      Hepar sulph
  • B)      Carbo veg
  • C)      Kali carb
  • D)      Sanguine

158. Digitalis patient complains of palpitation, which is aggravated from

  • A)      lying on left side
  • B)      least movement
  • C)      lying on abdomen
  • D)      bending forward.

159. Which is the drug for injuries to spinal cord, bad effects of spinal concussion and pains after fall on coccyx ?

  • A)      Symphytum
  • B)      Ruta
  • C)      Arnica
  • D)      Hypericum.

160. The objective symptom of Ignatia is

  • A)      Contradiction
  • B)      Irritability
  • C)      Mildness
  • D)      Long involuntary sigh.

161. In anaemias

  • A)      there is hurried breathing
  • B)      there is normal breathing
  • C)      hypopnoea
  • D)      hypertension.

162. Heparin plays a role in

  • A)      cellular phase
  • B)      humoral phase
  • C)      vascular phase
  • D)      all of these.

163. Euthanasia is

  • A)      killing a criminal
  • B)      giving punishment
  • C)      producing, painless death
  • D)      none of these.

164. Chemotaxis is defined as

  • A)      attracting cellular elements to the site of inflammation
  • B)      chemicals involved in various phases
  • C)      both (A) & (B)
  • D)      only (B).

165. Section 201 IPC deals in

  • A)      causing disappearance of evidence of offence
  • B)      fabricating false evidence
  • C)      omission to give notice to public
  • D)      giving false evidence.

166. Cellular phase follows

  • A)      vascular phase
  • B)      prostaglandins
  • C)      cellular elements
  • D)      none of these.

167. Lewis described

  • A)      vascular phase
  • B)      triple’ response
  • C)      cellular phase
  • D)      humoral phase.

168. Fatal dose of sulphuric acid poison is

  • A)      5 -10 ml
  • B)      10 – 20 ml
  • C)      15 – 20 ml
  • D)      20 – 30 ml.

169 .The recommended ideal dose(s) of tetanus toxoid in an unimmunized pregnant mother is / are

  • A)      two doses
  • B)      four doses
  • C)      single dose
  • D)      three doses

170. In a cross-section of thorax at T4, which of the following is found ?

  • A)      Azygos vein
  • B)      Brachiocephalic artery
  • C)      Arch of Aorta
  • D)      Left subclavian.

171. The oesophagus commences at which of the following levels ?

  • A)      Lower end of cricoids
  • B)      C5vertebra
  • C)      10 cm from incisor teeth
  • D)      C 7 vertebra.

172. Teratoma is ……:….:.. malignant than sarcoma.

  • A)      more
  • B)      Less
  • C)      slower
  • D)      faster.

173. Vitriolage means

  • A)      throwing of carbolic acid
  • B)      throwing of water
  • C)      throwing of sulphuric acid
  • D)      throwing of kerosene.

174. Fibroadenoma is a

  • A)      benign neoplasm
  • B)      not a neoplasm
  • C)      malignant
  • D)      systemic disease.

175. Fatal dose of carbolic acid poison is

  • A)      5- 10g
  • B)      3-5g
  • C)      1-2g
  • D)      10-15g.

176. First heart sound occurs during the period of

  • A)      Isotonic relaxation
  • B)      Isovolumetric relaxation
  • C)      Isovolumetric contraction
  • D)      Isotonic contraction.

177. Neoplasm is defined as

  • A)      new growth
  • B)      malignancy
  • C)      benign growth
  • D)      all of these.

178. In carcinoma base of tongue pain is referred to the ear through

  • A)      hypoglossal nerve
  • B)      vagus nerve
  • C)      glossopharyngeal nerve
  • D)      lingual nerve.

180. The smallest cranial nerve is the

  • A)      Olfactory
  • B)      Oculomotor
  • C)      Trochlear
  • D)      Accessory

181. Cause of death in carbolic acid poison  is

  • A)      brain damage
  • B)      asphyxia
  • C)      renal failure
  • D)      none of these.

182. Toxoids are

  • A)    inactivated toxins of micro-organisms
  • B)    produced by micro-organisms
  • C)    produced by host in reaction to toxins
  • D)    those which give passive immunity.

182. DPT is stored at

  • A)      4°C
  • B)      14°C
  • C)      0°C
  • D)       40C.

183. Xiphisternal junction is usually at the level of disc between which of the following thoracic vertebrae ?

  • A)      9 and 10
  • B)      7 and 8
  • C)      1 and 12
  • D)      None of these

184. Treatment for sulphuric acid is to

  • A)      avoid gastric lavage -and emetics
  • B)      give demulcent
  • C)      correct circulatory shock
  • D)      all the above

185.  Hydropic degeneration is also called

  • A)      Apoptosis
  • B)      Calcinosis
  • C)      Orchronosis
  • D)      SLE.

186. Kulchitsky cells are seen in

  • A)      Rheumatic fever
  • B)      Syphilis
  • C)      Tuberculosis
  • D)      Multiple sclerosis.

187. Which of the following is not a feature of occulomotor nerve palsy ?

  • A)  Miosis
  • B)  Difficulty in accommodation
  • C)  Superior gaze palsy
  • D)  Diplopia.

188. Cranial accessory nerve supplies

  • A)   Sternomastoid
  • B)   Trapezius
  • C)   Splenius capitis
  • D)  Soft palate.

189. Calcium requirement during pregnancy per day is

  • A)      100 mg
  • B)      400 mg
  • C)      1400 mg
  • D)      800 mg.

190. Which one of the following is a branch of the facial nerve ?

  • A)      Deep petrosal nerve
  • B)      Lesser superficial petrosal nerve
  • C)      External petrosal nerve
  • D)      Greater superficial petrosal nerve.

191.The transpyloric plane corresponds with  the level of .

  • A)      T11
  • B)      T12
  • C)      L1
  • D)      L2

192. Leucine true is

  • A)      non polar
  • B)      polar
  • C)      non-essential amino acid
  • D)      aromatic.

193. Amino acid involved in creatine synthesis is

  • A)      Glycine
  • B)      Lysine
  • C)      Glutamic acid
  • D)      Threonine.

194. Increased pressure within carotid sinus produces

  • A)      reflex increase in venous pressure
  • B)      reflex hyperpnoea
  • C)      reflex bradycardia
  • D)      increase in heart rate.

195. Parasympathetic stimulation of heart causes

  • A)      decreased rate of S. A node
  • B)      increased excitability of A. V. fibres
  • C)      prevents ventricular contraction
  • D)      none of these.

196.. Mycobacteria are

  • A)      gram – ve
  • B)      acid –fast
  • C)      non -acid fast
  • D)      none of these.

197. Sampling in village of 200 houses and 1000 population to screen 100 persons is best taken by

  • A)      selecting every tenth person
  • B)      selecting every fifth person
  • C)      selecting randomly any 100 patients from a random chart
  • D)      selecting one person per house.

198. Streptococcus occurs in

  • A)      Cluster
  • B)      Grape like clusters
  • C)      Chains
  • D)      None of these.

199. Of the following which is an inactivated vaccine ?’

  • A)      BCG
  • B)      Salk
  • C)      17-D Vaccine
  • D)      Mumps.

200. Which of the following has highest protein content ?

  • A)      Soyabean
  • B)      Egg
  • C)      Milk
  • D)      Mutton.

Download the answer key : www.similima.com/pdf/tnpsc-homeopathy-key-2009.pdf 

Courtesy :  We are thankful to Dr. Sini.N.B for providing this question booklet

 All rights reserved @ similima

IHMA Kerala Model MD Homeopathy Entrance Exam 2008 Paper.II

Time Allowed: 120 minutes     150 Questions    Maximum Marks: 600

1. Do not open this booklet until you are asked to do so.

2. Please verify that your test booklet contains 14 pages, including answer sheet.

3. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

4. You have to mark all your responses by shading the bubbles on the separate Answer Sheet provided. DO NOT write anything on the Answer sheet.

5. Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to penalization formula based on the number of right answers actually marked and the number of wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded four marks. One mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a question will be deemed as an incorrect response and will be negatively marked. No negative marks for un attended questions

6. The Answer key along with the results of this exam will be published in our website www.ihma.in

7. Please note the matching ROLL NUMBERS given in your question booklet and answer sheet.

1. ‘Chronic disease’ are

  • A) Incurable     B) Can be cured with diet   C) Curable with medicine   D)None

2. “ I consider thus used as an invaluable gift of god” Hahnemann

  • A) Antipsoric medicine    B) Sugar of milk    C) Homoeopathy     D) Potentisation

3. Cinchona is more suitable for

  • A) All intermittent fevers               B) Endemic intermittent fever
  • C) Epidemic  intermittent fever     D) None

4. Best stage for antipsoric treatment

  • A) Pregnancy        B) Just after menses    C) During declining of disease    D) Rest days

5. Dissatisfaction

  • A) Tubercular      B) Psora              C) Sycosis            D) Syphilis

6.Headache aggravation midnight

  • A) Psora               B) Sycosis                            C) Syphilis            D) Tubercular

7. Snuffles of infants

  • A) Sycotic            B) Psoric      C) Syphilitic   D)Tubercular

8.  Aversion to animal food

  • A) Psora     B) Sycosis      C) Syphilitic   D) None

9. Eruptions with lymph node enlargement

  • A) Psora      B) Sycosis     C) Syphilitic    D) Tubercular

10. Head ache Ameliorated  by  nose bleed

  • A) Psora                               B) Sycosis                            C) Syphilitic         D)Tubercular

11. Burnt taste

  • A) Psora                               B) Sycosis                            C) Syphilitic   D) None

12. Special senses affects in

  • A) Scrofula                          B) Syphilitic                         C) Both                 D) None

13. Psycho analysis is the concept of

  • A) Wilhem Wundt                 B) John Hunter                    C) Sigmund Freud     D) Galen

14. IQ test known as

  • A) Stanfod – Binet test                  B) Binet Terman scale
  • C)  Binet test                                      D) None

15. ‘Altruism’ is related with

  • A) Learning         B) Thinking          C) Behaviour                      D) Memory

16. Hahnmann started his practice at

  • A) Hettstedt                       B) Meissen         C) Paris    D) Gotha

17. Find the odd one out

  • A) Hand book for mothers           B) Medicine of experience
  • C) On treatment of burns             D) Exact mode of preparation of mercury

18.Agatha thanthra is the branch Ayurvedic medicine related with

  • A) Circulation     B) Aphrodisiac   C) Toxicology    D) Inflammation

19. Berlin Papyri is a

  • A) Medical Papyri                             B) Egyptisian medicine
  • C) Paediatric Papyri                         D) All the above

20. Ubi  means

  • A) Seat                 B) Personality       C) Causation                    D) Time.

21.Kummer treated the gangrenous wound of Herring with

  • A) Pulsatilla         B) Ars alb             C) Vert. alb                         D) Lachesis

22.  Father of Homoeopathy in India

  • A)  Rajendra lal Dutt              B) M. L. Sircar   C) P. C. Majumdar   D) J. M. Honingberger

23.Two leaders of science shown the path of discovery of Biochemic theraphy

  • A) Dr. Moleschott and Virchow                  B) Virchow and Rene Descartis
  • C) Demachy and Tafel                                    D) None

24.Doctorine of monands is related with

  • A) Hegel         B) Aristotle                         C) Leibniz                             D) Bacon

25. Chairman of 1st  Homoeopathic pharmacopoeia committee of India

  • A) Dr. Saxena          B) Dr. B. K. Sarkar                        C) Dr. Jugal kishore  D) Dr. P. C. Majumdar

26.Complete symptom

  • A) Kent                 B) Boger               C) Boenninghausen                        D) Dunhanm

27. Symptomatic treatment

  • A) Homoeopathy             B) Ayurveda                       C) Antipathy       D) None

28. Physiological System

  • A) Broussau        B) Schuzaller      C) Kent                 D) Hughes

29. Tuto means

  • A) Quickly                            B) Safely                              C) Partially                           D) Gently

30. Clinical Symptoms are

  • A) Shown by all provers                                   B) Confirmed symptom
  • C) Clinically verified symptoms                   D) All the above

31. Diarrhoea in Boger’s repertory

  • A)Rectum      B) Stool    C) Eliminations    D) Sensation and complaints

32. Anthrax in Kent’s Repertory

  • A) Skin     B)Extremities    C) Generalities    D)Fever

33.Number of medicines in TPB

  • A) 543      B) 126            C)125     D)542

34. Abortion in TPB

  • A) Menstruation   B)]genitalia female      C)Sexual organs     D)Generalities

35. Cross references in Boericke’s repertory is given

  • A) At the end of chapter    B) At the end of repertory
  • C) After the rubrics        D) After the medicines

36.The only 3 mark remedy for Hyperkeratosis in eczema in Kent’s Repertory

  • A)Sulphur              B)Rhustox    C)Hydrocotyle     D)Sepia

37.The rubric Uric acid diathesis  in Boger’s Repertory

  • A) Agg   & amel        B) Sens & Compl         C)Urine    D)Urinary organs

38.Primary Tuberculosis is represented in Kent’s repertory as

  • A) Phthiis pulmonalis    B)Phthisis Incipient   C)Phthisis Pituitious    D)Phthisis florida

39.Denotation of rubric Festering

  • A)Lightning pain             B)Stitching pain     C)Sore pain    D)Drawing pain

40. Denotation of Rubric Formication

  • A) Crawling sensation      B)Brooding       C)Melancholy      D)Sadness

41. Suppression of urine in Kent’s Repertory

  • A)Bladder            B)Ureter     C) Kidney         D)Urethra

42. Denotation of Morbus coxarius

  • A)Infantile paralysis     B) Fear of disease      C)Frightful dreams     D)Phthisis

43. Dropsy after scarlet fever in Kent’s Repertory

  • A)Urine        B)Generalities   C)fever    D)Kidney

44.The Remedy for injury to tendons in Kent’s repertory

  • A)Anacardium     B)Gelsemium    C)Sarsaparilla    D)Ruta

45.Denotation of Rubric Incubus

  • A)Nightmare             B)Frustration     C)Delirium     D)Buried in thoughts

46.The rubric red Hair is available in Synthesis Repertory in

  • A)Generalities    B) Head     C)Skin      D)Extremities

47.Rubric for Loathing of life in BBCR

  • A) Depression    B)Tedium     C)Listlessness    D) Aversion to life

48.Gradations in the Leaders in respiratory organs by E.B Nash

  • A) 2     B) 3      C) 1        D) 4

49.The Rubric Pseudopsia in BBCR

  • A) Mind       B) Sensorium      C) Sens & Compl     D) Agg & Amel

50.The rubric Child grasps the nurse when carried in Kent’s repertory

  • A) Vertigo      B) Mind       C) Generalities     D) Abdomen

51.The abbreviation Ammc in Kent,s repertory denotes

  • A) Ammonium carb               B) Ammonium causticum
  • C) Ammoniacum gummi      D) Ammonium picricum

52.The chapter Relationship of remedies was worked out by

  • A)Boninghausen            B) Gibson Miller     C)Hahnemann    D)Elizabeth Tyler

53.Only medicine represented in Kent’s Repertory for Cracks in soles

  • A) Lycopodium     B)Silicea      C)Graphitis      D)Ars alb

54.The abbreviation Hydr in Kent’s Repertory

  • A)Hydrastis           B)Hydrangia     C)Hydrocotyle     D)Hedra helix

55.Rubric slow learning to talk is found in which chapter of Kent’s Repertory

  • A)Mouth             B)Face      C)Mind        D)Generalities.

56.A 5 year old child presented with asthma since 3 years.   Child had desire for salt, sweets & ice.    Parents say the child is anxious and starts at the least sound.   They were also worried about the child’s habit of nail biting.   The remedy is

  • A) Argentum nit                    B) Phosphorus                C) Carcinosin      D) Medorrhinum

57.A 50 year old patient with aortic stenosis complained of severe chest pain in lower left chest making him breathless.   Most of the time the pain is confined to a small spot.   Recently he has noticed that his voice becomes hoarse when chest pain is worse.   He cannot tolerate sugar, as it causes stomach pain.   The most suitable remedy  is

  • A) Causticum                     B) Phosphorus  C) Oxalic acid                     D) Coffea

58.Remedy with elective affinity on the spleen.

  • A) Ceanothus only                                                    B) Ceanothus and Thlaspi Bursa
  • C) Ceanothus & Fraxinus americana                 D) None

59.Mercuric sulphide is better known as

  • A) Cinnabaris                     B) Merc sol         C) Merc dulcis    D) Calomel

60. Iodum has a complementary relation with

  • A) Lycopodium only            B) Lycopodium & Spongia
  • C) Lycopodium & Badiaga  D) Lycopodium & Hepar sulph

61. Flouric acid is followed by this remedy in diabetes

  • A) Acetic acid                    B) Lactic acid       C) Silicea    D)Phosphoric acid

62. Dr. Kent has said “In valvular diseases of young people, always prescribe this drug unless guided away by some specific symptom” Which is the drug ?

  • A) Naja                 B) Spigelia           C) Lachesis          D)Digitalis

63.Match symptoms in List-I with Remedies in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists

     List-I                                               List II
(Symptoms)                                  (Medicines)

  • A. Aversion to children               1. Coffea
  • B. Loves power                             2. Platina.
  • C. Benevolence                            3. Helleborus.
  • D. Everything seems new         4. Lycopodium

 (a) A B C D
2  4 1  3

(b) A B C D
4  2  3 1

(c) A B C D
3  4 1  2

(d) A B C D
4  2  1 3

64.According to Boericke, the word “fag” covers a large part of this remedies action

  • A) Zincum met B) Picric acid       C) Kali phos        D) Phosphoric acid

65.Remedy to be used when “patient improves for a time, then comes to a standstill”

  • A) Causticum     B) Carbo veg      C) Cinchona        D) Coffea

66.This remedy has a marked deterrent action on the formation of polypi

  • A) Teucrium       B) Formica rufa    C) Ferrum picricum       D) Thiosinaminum.

67. A person feels that he is Jesus Christ.   He may require

  • A) Cannabis Indica           B) Anacardium                  C) Lac caninum    D) Lachesis

68.According to HC Allen, this remedy has cured when Colocynth and Nux vom fails in colic

  • A) Collinsonia     B) Colchicum      C) Plumbum met              D) Dioscorea

69. “Involuntary stool while urinating” is found in

  • A) Muriatic acid, Alumina & Aloe                       B) Muriatic acid, Causticum & Aloe
  • C) Muriatic acid, Gelsimium & Causticum       D) Muriatic acid only

70.Which of the following are characteristic of Sabadilla

  • i)Fear insanity
  • ii)Fear of being poisoned
  • iii)Delusion that he has some horrible throat disease
  • iv)Fear of being murdered

A) 1, 2, 3               B) 2, 3, 4               C) 3 only               D) 1, 2, 3, 4

71.Book not authored by TF Allen

  • A) Encyclopedia of pure materia medica  B) A Primer on Materia Medica
  • C) Hand book of Materia Medica                  D) Lectures on Materia Medica

72. Remedy not proved by Hering

  • A) Lachesis          B) Crotalus horridus           C)Naja               D) Theridion

73.Remedy prepared from vegetable matter from a marsh by allowing it to decompose in glass jars

  • A) Pyrogen         B) Sepsin          C)Malaria officinalis            D) Pestinum

74. Eserine is the active principle of

  • A) Physostigma                   B) Apocynum             C)Phytolacca            D) Secale cor

75. Fraxinus Americana is an organ remedy for

  • A) Adrenals        B) Kidney     C)Prostate  D) Uterus

76. Remedy with disease affecting upper part of left lung

  • A) Sulphur and Myrtus communis                           B) Sulphur & Calcarea carb
  • C) Sulphur, Calcarea carb & Myrtus communis    D) None of the above

77. Remedy with pains radiating from base of heart to apex ?

  • A) Syphilinum    B) Medorrhinum              C) Lilium tig         D) Lobelia inflata

78. Indian drug commonly used in heart disease

  • A) Terminalia arjuna       B)Abroma augusta          C) Azadirachta indica      D) Blumea odorata

79. According to Kent, this remedy should be called vegetable mercury

  • A)Phytolacca       B) Podophylum     C) Mezereum     D)None of the above

80.Hahnemann says this remedy acts most beneficially in patients with chronic loose stool or diarrhoea

  • A)Nitric acid        B) Chamomilla   C) Phosphorus                  D) Aloes

81. According to Boericke, disintegration and imperfect oxidation is the keynote of this remedy

  • A) Antim tart      B)Ammonium carb          C) Carbo veg                      D) Antim ars

82. Steptococcal meningitis is usually a complication of

  • A) Pharyngitis      B)Otitis media   C) Cellulites   D)Subacute bacterial endocarditis

83. Tuberculosis characteristically involves which of the following groups of lymph nodes?

  • A) Supra clavicular       B) Deep cervical    C) Upper jugular   D) Mediasitinal

84.Frothy copious blood tinged sputum is characteristically seen in

  • A) Acute bronchitis    B) Mitral stenosis
  • C) Tuberculosis
  • D) Acute pulmonary oedema

85. The following mucosal sites are commonly involved in Lichen Planus except

  • A) Nasal mucosa     B) Buccal mucosa    C) Tongue    D) Glans penis

86.The least likely area to become involved in Atopic dermatitis is

  • A) Eyelids    B)Antecubital fossa   C) Popliteal fossa    D)Chest

87.Pemphigus is caused by

  • A)Auto antibodies     B)  Genetic predisposition    C)Metabolic    D)Viral infection

88. Vesicles on palms & soles is characteristic of

  • A) Discoid eczema   B) Pompholyx      C)Seborrhoeic eczema      D)Atopic eczema

89. Psoriatic arthropathy resembles

  • A) Osteoarthritis  B)Rheumatoid arthritis   C) Pyogenic arthritis  D)TB arthritis

90. Which of the following psychiatric disorder is commonest after head injury?

  • A) Schizophrenia   B)Schizo affective      C)             Mania      D)Neurotic depression

91. Parkinsonism most commonly presents with

  • A) Mania     B)Depression   C) Phobia     D)Schizophrenia

92. Schizophrenia is primarily a disorder of

  • A) Conduct       B)Perception    C)Thought    D)Mood

93. Schizophrenia with poorest prognosis is

  • A) Simple        B) Hebephrenic    C) Catatonic     D)Paranoid

94. In depression, the characteristic delusions are

  • A) Grandiosity   B)Nihilistic    C)Bizarre   D)Frightening

95. In mania not seen is

  • A) Flight of ideas   B)Pressure of ideas   C)Elated mood    D)Loosening of association

96. Increase in length in the 1st year of life is

  • A) 12 cm      B)15 cm    C)25 cm    D)35 cm

97. The 1st permanent teeth to erupt are

  • A) Lateral incisors    B) Central incisors   C)2nd molars   D) 1st molars

98. A child is able to ride a tricycle, build tower of 9 cubes & can copy a circle by the age of

  • A) 1 year    B)2 years  C) 3 years  D)4 years

99. A full term infant will double its birth weight by

  • A) 3 months    B) 5 months  C) 7 months      D)9 months

100. First fibers to be blocked in spinal anesthesia is

  • A) Sympathetic     B) Afferent motor nerve      C)Sensory fibers   D)Efferent motor nerve

101. Ectopic pregnancy is most commonly associated with

  • A) Diaphragm       B)Copper-T     C)Condoms       D)OCP

102. Commonest cause of early 1st trimester abortion

  • A) Cervical incompetence  B) Uterine malformations   C) Syphilis   D)Foetal abnormalities

103. The earliest & most reliable sign of pre eclampsia is

  • A) Sudden onset of albuminuria    B)Sudden increase of diastolic BP
  • C) Sudden increase of systolic BP    D)Headache

104.The diameter of cervical canal after complete dilatation is

  • A) 6 cm          B) 8 cm          C)10 cm        D)12 cm

105. A fatal complication of heart disease in pregnancy is

  • A)Pulmonary odema   B)Heart failure  C)Oedema   D)Fainting

106. The engaging diameter in Brow presentation is

  • A) Mento vertical     B)Occipito frontal   C)Sub occipito bregmatic  D) Sub occipito frontal

107. Spasmodic dysmenorrhoea is seen in

  • A)Endometriosis     B)DUB     C)Sub mucous fibroid       D)Proliferative endometrium

108.The commonest site of pelvic endometriosis is

  • A)Ovary      B)Fallopian tube   C) Douglas   D)Pouch

109.Amenorrhoea due to high LH & FSH is due to

  • A) Asherman syndrome   B) Pituitary adenoma   C)Ovarian failure  D)Kallman syndrome

110.The commonest symptom of cervicitis is

  • A) Bleeding    B) Pain    C)Leucorrhoea   D)Dyspareumia

111. Trans line calcification is seen in

  • A) Thrombosed cerebral vein    B)Meningioma   C) Ependymoma    D)Struge-weber syndrome

112. X-ray changes in acromegaly are following except

  • A) Lengthened terminal phalanx  B)Widened joint spaces
  • C) Obtuse angle of mandible         D)Premature OA

113. For a chest X-ray, a person is exposed to a radiation of

  • A) 1 rad      B)3 rads   C)   5 rads    D)7 rads

114.Cerebral calcification is a feature of

  • A) Congenital syphilis     B) Alzhimer’s syndrome
  • C) Fanconi’s syndrome  D) Toxoplasmosis

115.Most common site of perforation of oesophagus is

  • A) Retrocricoid region                B) Behind arch of aorta
  • C) At the level of diaphragm    D) At the level of bifurcation of trachea

116. Burns on face, neck, head in a child is

  • A) 1 %       B) 9 %   C) 13 %   D) 19 %

117. Bloody CSF is seen in

  • A) Sub-arachnoid haemorrhage  B) Sub dural haemorrhage
  • C) Extradural haematoma             D) Cavernous sinu thrombosis

118.Most Common site for cancer stomach is

  • A) Fundus   B) Pylorus   C)Antrum   D)Cardia

119.Sago spleen is seen in

  • A) Amyloidosis    B) Cirrhosis  C) Sickle cell anaemia   D)   Haemochromatosis

120.Meckel’s diverticulum is congential anomaly of

  • A) Oesophagus     B) Stomach    C) Ileum   D) Colon

121.Which hernia is least likely to strangulate

  • A) Direct inguinal hernia    B) Indirect inguinal hernia    C) Femoral hernia   D) Umbilical hernia

122. Earliest symptom of wilm’s tumour is

  • A) Haematuria     B) Pyrexia    C) Abdominal tumour    D) Metastasis

123. Earliest symptom of Volkman’s ischemia is

  • A) Pain in flexor muscles   B)Absence of pulse  C)Pain on passive extension   D)Cyanosis of limb

124. Fall on outstretched hand may lead to fracture of

  • A) Scaphoid     B) Coronoid process         C) Shoulder     D) Clavicle

125. Most common bone fracture in the body is

  • A) Radius    B) Clavicle    C) Femur   D) Vertebra

126. Most elastic & regenerable part of cornea is

  • A) Epithelium   B)Endothelium    C)Descemet’s membrane    D)Bowman’s membrane

127. Blue sclera is seen in

  • A) Alkaptonuria       B) Kawasaki syndrome    C) Osteogenesis imperfect    D) Ehler danlos syndrome

128. The most diagnostic sign of anterior uveitis is

  • A) Aqueous flare B) Keratitic precipitates   C)Construction of pupil    D)Raised intra-ocular tension

129.Lens dislocation is seen in which syndrome

  • A) Down’s      B) Edward’s     C)Marfan’s     D)Turner’s

130. Rinne’s test is negative in

  • A)Labrynthitis    B)CSOM     C)Presbyacusis      D) Minier’s disease

131. The commonest cause of unilateral acquired sensori neural deafness in children is

  • A) Measles    B) Mumps    C)Syphilis     D)Ototoxic poisoning

132. Rhinophyma is a complication of

  • A) Acne vulgaris     B) Acne rosacea    C)Pemphigus    D)Psoriasis

133. Nasal septum fracture is called

  • A) Shroveller’s  B) Catalget’s        C) Caldwell luc’s       D) Jones

134. Thyroid enlargements about time of puberty calls for

  • A) Calcarea carb                B) Calcarea phos               C) Calcarea iod  D) Calcarea flour

135. According to Dr. HC Allen, this remedy should not be given in syphilis

  • A) Syphilinum    B) Ferrum met     C) Carcinosin   D) Argentum met

136. Remedy corresponding to bowel nosode “Proteus”

  • A) Natrum mur                 B) Phosphorus  C) Sulphur          D) Lycopodium

137. Preventive remedy for boils according to Hahnemann

  • A) Arnica              B) Sulphur           C) Merc sol                         D) All of the above

138.This remedy is angry at trifles and perfectly harmless things, but is soon sorry for it

  • A) Mezerium only                                                               B) Mezerium & Crocus sativus
  • C) Mezerium, Crocus sativus & Nux moschata      D) Mezerium & Ignatia

139. Pains are terrible, come suddenly, last a short time, disappear suddenly

  • A) Belladonna & Mag phos only                                    B) Belladonna, Mag phos & Carbo animalis
  • C) Belladona, Carbo animalis & Carbolic acid         D) Belladona, Magphos & Carbolic acid

140. Which among the following symptoms are characteristic of Nitric acid ?

  • i. Desire fat
  • ii. Fear cancer
  • iii. Strong smelling urine
  • iv. Desire salt
    A) 1, 2, 3               B) 2 & 3                 C) 3 only               D) 1, 2, 3, 4

141. Remedies with carbo-nitrogenoid constitution

  • A) Sulphur & Lycopodium             B) Calcarea carb & Lycopodium
  • C) Graphites & Lycopodium         D) Cinchona & Lycopodium

142. Remedy prepared from the plant Saw palmetto

  • A) Abies canadensisa     B) Abies nigra       C) Teucrium          D) Sabal ser

 143. External ear is developed from:

  • A) 1st brachial arch     B) 2nd brachial cleft     C) 1st brachial cleft       D) 2nd brachial arch.

144. Joint at Knee is:

  • A) Synartnrosis         B) Symphysis         C) Amphiarthrosis.     D) Diarthrosi

145.Inguinal & femoral hernia are differentiated by the relation with

  • A) Femoral artey                               B) Pubic tubercle
  • C) Inferior epigastric artery         D) Pectineal line

146.Primary feature of small intestinal obstruction

  • A) Abdominal distention                          B) Fever
  • C) High peristalisis with colic                 D) Vomiting

147. Total number of medicines (excluding magnets) present in the original edition of Materia medica pura by Dr.S.Hahnemann

  • A) 61      B) 64    C) 66    D) 72

148. Total number of medicines in the present edition of Materia Medica Pura translated by Dudgeon

  • A) 66           B) 72             C) 76            D) 100

149-. The diagnosis of endometriosis is suspected on the basis of:

  • A) Culture and sensitivity.       B) Histology.
  • C) Typical history.                      D) Family history.

150. What type of abnormal  bleeding is associated with endometrioais :

  • A) Menorrhagia.       B) Anovulatory bleeding.
  • C) Amenorrhoea.     D) Hypermenrrhoea.

 Download answer Key : www.similima.com/pdf/ihma-model-homeopathy-exam-key-2008.pdf 

All rights reserved @similima

IHMA Kerala Model MD Homeopathy Entrance Exam 2008 Paper I

Time Allowed: 120 minutes     150 Questions    Maximum Marks: 600

1. DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO.

2. Please verify that your test booklet contains 14 pages, including answer sheet.

3. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

4. You have to mark all your responses by shading the bubbles on the separate Answer Sheet provided. DO NOT write anything on the Answer sheet.

5. Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to penalization formula based on the number of right answers actually marked and the number of wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded four marks. One mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a question will be deemed as an incorrect response and will be negatively marked. No negative marks for un attended questions

6. The Answer key along with the results of this exam will be published in our website www.ihma.in

7. Please note the matching ROLL NUMBERS given in your question booklet and answer sheet.

1. A 45 year old lady presented with severe anxiety episodes since two years.   She would panic and feel suffocated on being in closed space, like a crowded bus.   She is a very superstitious person, and is troubled by the dreams of snakes she has been seeing lately  . The remedy is

  • A) Hepar sulph  B) Lac caninum
  • C) Iodum             D) Argentum Nit

2. Match remedies in List-I with those in List-II according to Inimical relationship and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists

      List-I                           List II

(Symptoms)              (Medicines)

  • A. Belladonna      1. Ranunculus bulb.
  • B. Ignatia              2. Acetic acid.
  • C. Selenium          3. Cinchona.
  • D. Staphysagria   4. Tabacum

(a) A B C D
3  2  4 1

(b) A B C D
2  3  4 1

(c) A B C D
1  2 4  3

(d) A B C D
2  4  3 1

3. A patient with fever was complaining of body ache, headache, joint pains and severe weakness since 2 days.    He has been feeling very chilly and lies covered always.    His thirst is increased, but he says he can’t drink as water tastes very bitter.   The remedy is

  • A) Ars alb                             B) Nux vom
  • C) Eupetrium perf             D) Gelsemium

4. Remedy for  enuresis after catheterisation.

  • A) Nux-v              B) Mag phos
  • C) Staphysagria D)Causticum

5. “Sensation of coldness about the heart”.   The remedy is

  • A) Cactus            B) Digitalis
  • C) Petroleum     D) Sarsaparilla

6. “Thirsty and hungry yet as soon as they begin to eat or drink they lose all desire” is found in

  • A)Petroselinum                           B) Petroselinum & Calc carb
  • C) Lycopodiym & Calc carb    D) None of the above

7. Remedy which is a cross between Bry & Rhus-t in pleurisy

  • A) Ran-b              B) Kali-c
  • C) Oxalic acid    D) Senega

8. The burning feet of Sulphur and restless fidgety feet of Zinc are both found at the same time in

  • A) Medorrhinum                       B) Lachesis
  • C) Kali brom                                D) Agaricus

9. “Abstraction of mind” – Remedies are

  • A) Cicuta                                      B) Cicuta & Nux moschata
  • C) Cicuta & Cuprum met        D) Cicuta & Anacardium

10. Chilly patients, with coryza > open air may require

  • A) Nux vom only                           B) Nux vom & Cyclamen
  •  C) Nux vom & Hepar Sulph      D) Nux vom, Hepar sulph & Cyclamen

11. According to Dr. Kent, which among the following is indicated when Rhus tox has failed in rheumatic pains ?

  • A) Phytolacca                     B) Tuberculinum
  • C) Medorrhinum              D) Calc phos

12. Match common names of remedies List-I with their families in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists

         List-I                           List II
(Symptoms)              (Medicines)

  • A. Parsley                      1. Polygonaceae
  • B. Yellow dock             2. Gentianacea
  • C. Buck bean                3. Umbelliferae.
  • D. Anemone                 4. Ranunculaceae

(a) A B C D
3  2  4 1

(b) A B C D
2  3  1 4

(c) A B C D
2  1 4  3

(d) A B C D
3  1  2 4

13.Which among the following authors have written the book “Lectures on Materia Medica”?

  • A) E Neatby                         B) Richard Hughes
  • C) EA Farrington               D) C Dunham

14. Which remedy according to Boericke is useful after removal of cancer when in the healing process skin is drawn tightly over the wound ?

  • A) Malandrinum               B) Kali phos
  • C) Thiosinaminum            D) Calendula

15. Which among the following symptoms are characteristic of Ignatia ?

  • Cannot bear tobacco
  • Oversensitive to pain
  • Complains return precisely at the same hour
  • Rectal pains > stool

A) 1, 2, 3               B) 1 & 3
C) 1 only               D) 1, 3, 4

16. Which of the following symptoms are not covered by Mercurius ?

  • i) Aversion sweets
  • ii) Hurried and rapid talking
  • iii)Impulse to kill persons who contradict him
  • iv)Cough in three paroxysms

     A) 1only          B) 1 &3
C) 1 & 4             D) 4 only

17. Which of the following are characteristic of Causticum

  • i) Desire salt
  • ii) Slow learning to walk
  • iii)Left sided sciatica
  • iv)Must move constantly but motion does not relieve

 A) 1, 2, 3              B) 2, 3, 4
C) 2 & 4      D) 1, 2, 3, 4

18. Total no. of drugs in Hahnemann’s “Fragmenta de viribus…”, is

  • A) 25      B) 67
  • C) 27      D) 63

19. The notation ☞ ( “pointing finger”) in Hering’s “Guiding Symptoms” signify

  • A) Approved characteristic          B) Toxicological symptom
  • C) Cross reference                             D) Observations only on sick persons

20. Match symptoms in List-I with Remedies in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists

         List-I                                                                                List II
(Symptoms)                                                                  (Medicines)

  • A. Dyspnoea < warm room                                            1. Ammonium carb
  • B. Anxiety < closing eyes                                             2. Mag mur.
  • C. Cough loose after eating, dry after drinking     3. Nux moschata
  • D. Burning soles at night                                              4. Chamomilla

(a) A B C D
4  3 2  1

(b) A B C D
2  3  1 4

(c) A B C D
3  4 1  2

(d) A B C D
1  2  3 4

21. Tarentula hispanica was proved by

  • A) Nunez             B) Rubini
  • C) Burnett           D) Drysdale

22. Which remedy is prepared from microorganism of glanders or farcy, a zoonotic disease of horses ?

  • A) Malandrinum               B) Hippozaeninum
  • C) Hippomanes                 D) Lac vaccininum

23. Remedy also known as Coqueluchin

  • A) Morbilinum                  B) Castoreum
  • C) Cholestrinum               D) Pertussin

24. Incompatible remedy after Digitalis

  • A) Cinchona                        B) Kreosote
  • C) Carbo vegetabilis        D) Apocynum

25. An acid with elective affinity for the blood

  • A) Acetic acid                     B) Nitric acid
  • C) Sulphuric acid               D) Muriatic acid

26. According to Boericke, a remedy for “pain of death; soothes last struggles”

  • A) Euphorbium   B)Tarentula cubensis
  • C)Anthracinum   D)Ars alb

27. A Child with asthma has 2 – 3episodes of breathlessness occurring in the same night.   The episodes occurred mostly after midnight, and on a few days had severe episodes around 3 am.   The child is frightened easily, and asthmatic attacks follow such instances.   The parents said that the child was fat earlier, but was now losing weight.

  • A) Thuja               B) Kali carb
  • C) Opium             D) Sambucus

28. Which among these remedies have ravenous hunger before fever ?

  • A)Cina & Chamomilla      B) Cina & Antim crud
  • C) Cina & Sulphur              D) Cina & Staphysagria

29. Match the food desires, aversions and modalities in List-I with Remedies in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists

        List-I                                   List II
(Symptoms)                      (Medicines)

  • A. Desire pepper               1.  Theridion
  • B. Desire bananas             2.   Lac caninum
  • C. Aversion bananas         3.  Phosphorus
  • D. Aversion oysters  >      4.  Elaps

(a) A B C D
3  1 4 2

(b) A B C D
2  3  4 1

(c) A B C D
2  1 4  3

(d) A B C D
4  3  2 1

30. According to Swan, this remedy is “almost a specific for gall stone colic; relieves the distress at once”

  • A) Cardus mar                   B) Ceanothus
  • C) Chionanthus                D) Cholesterinum

31. “Any drug which in its natural state affects the vital energy but little will develop a proving only in high potency”.  This statement is applicable to

  • A) Lycopodium                  B) Lobelia
  • C) Mercury                           D) Gold

32. Appearance of new symptoms after administration of a remedy is an indication for selection of

  • A)  Antidote       B) Complementary
  • C) Repetition    D) None

33. According to HA Roberts susceptibility can be compared to

  • A) Vaccum          B) Miasm
  • C) Immunity      D) None

34. In Homoeopathy Law of palliation is the law of

  • A) Similia              B) Contraria
  • C) Supression     D) Isopathy

35. Which one is a deflected current

  • A) Pathological condition   B) Psychic trauma
  • C) Key Note prescription   D) All the above.

36. Genius of Homoeopathy is

  • A) Individualization   B) Drug proving.
  • C) Sick                               D) Miasm

37. Recovery is brought about by

  • A) Medicine                            B) Law of similia
  • C) Vitality of the patient   D)Antipathy

38. ‘Key note symptom’ is first proposed by

  • A) Henry. N. Guernsey       B) Lippe
  • C) P.P. Wells                            D) Herring.

39. Posology is related with

  • A) Potency          B) Dose
  • C) Both                 D) None

40. Criteria for selection of potency is

  • A) Seat of disease            B) Duration of action of drug
  • C) Sensations                    D) Totality.

41. According to Hughes side affinity comes under ………… similarity

  • A) Generic                 B) Specific
  • C) Individualistic   D) Pathological

42. Simple substance is the concept of

  • A) Kent        B) Dunham
  • C) Hughes     D) Ghatak

43. According to Dr. Kent psora is related to

  • A) Itch                                   B) Deficiency
  • C) Spiritual sickness         D)  Health

44. Homoeopathicity is

  • A) Pathology of disease                                               B) Potentisation
  • C) Relationship between drug and patient           D) Individualisation

45. Symptoms of special senses are ……….. symptoms

  • A) General      B) Particular
  • C) Common   D) Basic

46. Homoeopathic aggravation is due to

  • A) Vital force       B) Primary action
  • C) Dose of drug   D) Potency

47. Ideal palliation requires in which observation of Kent

  • A) 6th        B) 7th
  • C) 10th      D) 12th

48. Who wrote the introduction to Boericke’s translation of 6th edition of organon

  • A) James Krauss                B) Richard Hughes
  • C) H. A. Roberts                D) Dudgeon

49. Not a part of mixture prescription

  • A) Basis                                 B) Adjuvants
  • C) Counter irritant           D) Corrigens.

50. In frost bitten limbs application of frozen sour crout is an example for

  • A) Antipathy              B) Isopathy
  • C)  Homoeopathy     D) Tautopathy

51. Misson in the first aphorism is originated from the word Beruf of which language

  • A) Latin        B) German
  • C) French    D) Spanish

52. Curative power of medicine depends upon

  • A) Similarity and artificial disease    B)Similarity and superior strength
  • C) Totality and secondary action      D)Dose and potency

53.  Which aphorism in organon is related with prevention of scarlet fever with Belladona

  • A) 33      B)  44
  • C) 31      D) 149

54. Which aphorism in 6th edition is related with Nenner’s cowpox vaccination

  • A) 46        B) 44
  • C)47        D) 147

55. Certainly only one straight line can be drawn betwixt two given points.  This is about

  • A) Homoeopathic mode of cure        B) Ideal dose
  • C) Isopathy                                                 D)Homoeopathic aggravation

56. Foxglove for rapid pulse is an example for

  • A) Cure              B) Antipathy
  • C) Isopathy     D) None

57. Role of vital force during primary action

  • A) Passive      B) Active
  • C)Both             D) None.

58. Diseases are classified as acute and chronic in Homoeopathy based on

  • A) Duration    B)Nature
  • C)Infection    D) None

 59. Lesser accessory symptoms are mentioned in aphorism

  • A) 95         B)  86
  • C) 96          D) 101

60.  Albertch Von Haller says about human proving in

  • A) British Homoeopathic Journal     B)Preface to pharmacopoeia of Helvet
  • C) Friend of Health                                  D)None

61. Medicine to be proved has to be taken

  • A) At Night                                         B) Empty stomach
  • C) Each dose after taking food   D) Morning and night

62.  In foot note to aph 153 Hahnemann hails

  • A) Boenninghausen and Dudgeon    B)Boenninghausen and Jahr
  • C) NJahr and Dunham                           D) None

63. Homoeopathic aggravation will appear at …………. time in 50 milliseminal scale

  • A)  Immediately after       B) 6  days after
  • C) At the end of cure         D) No aggravation

64.  Alternating diseases are

  • A) Chronic disease      B) Psoric disease
  • C) Both                             D) None

 65. Animal magnetism is

  • A) Mesmerism         B) Magnet
  • C) Vital force            D) None

66.  Jubilee of Hahnemanns doctorate was celebrated in the year

  • A) 1829     B) 1833
  • C) 1835     D) 1826.

67. Example of Recurring miasm

  • A) Cholera            B) Chicken pox
  • C) Small pox        D) Cow pox

68. Aude sapere is related to

  • A) Horace       B) Organon  1st edition
  • C)  Both            D) Galen

69.  Stapf is related to

  • A) Lesser writings         B) Archives
  • C) Chronic disease        D) All

70. Fried of Health is the work of

  • A)  Herring    B) Boenninghausen
  • C) Hahnemann      D) M. L. Tyler

71. The number of rubrics in Hearing chapter in Kent’s Repertory

  • A) 3       B)4
  •  C)5       D)6

72.The word Repertory originated from

  • A)German            B)Latin
  • C)Greek                 D)French

73.The repertory of antipsorics was published in the year

  • A) 1835     B)1836
  • C)1832     D)1833

74.The  author of Repertory of intermittent fevers

  • A)W.A Allen        B)H.C Allen
  • C)T.F Allen          D)T.H Allen

75.The word ‘Ubi’ according to boenninghausen

  • A)Disease it’s nature &  peculiarity     B)Time
  • C)seat of disease                                          D)Cause of the disease

76.Magnum opus in card Repertory

  • A) Jugal kishore     B)Field
  • C)Margaret tyler    D)Marcoz geminis

77.”Concomitant symptom is to the totality what the conditions of aggravation & amelioration are to the single symptom”Quoted by

  • A) HA Robert      B)Boenninghausen
  • C)Hahnemann    D)Boger

78.Largest chapter in Kent’s Repertory

  • A)Mind                  B)Extremities
  • C)Generalities    D)Abdomen

79.Doctrine of analogy was introduced by

  • A)Herring              B)Boenninghausen
  • C)Hahnemann      D)Boger

80.Synthesis repertory belongs to

  • A) Puritan group         B)Logical utilitarian group
  • C)Clinical repertory   D)Regional Repertory

81.First card repertory

  • A)WJgurnsey    B)Field
  • C)ML taylor       D)Marcoz jeminis

82.Author of Clinical repertory appended to Boericke’s materia medica

  • A)Oscar e boericke    B)William boericke
  • C)Garth e boericke    D)HA Roberts

83.Acute case taking is dealt in aphorism

  • A) 94-98   B)98-102
  • C)91-93    D)103-106

84.Without case records you are at sea without compass or rudder Quoted by

  • A)ML Tyler          B)JT Kent
  • C)HA Roberts     D)CM Boger

85.It is impossible to practice homoeopathy without the aid of repertory and the best repertory is the fullest.

  • A) JT Kent           B)JH Clarke
  • C)HA Roberts    D)Pierrie schimdt

86.Author of Repertory of homoeopathic materia medica

  • A)JT Kent      B)CM Boger
  • C)JH Clarke    D)ML Tyler

87.First person to grade the remedies

  • A)Bonninghausen     B)Kent
  • C)Boger                         D)Jhar

88.Frequent stool is found in which chapter of Kent’s Repertory

  • A)Rectum              B)Stool
  • C)Abdomen          D)Anus

89.Meaning of the word Rubric

  • A)Heading               B)Arrangement
  • C)Abbreviation     D)Index

90.STME arrangement in Kent’s Repertory was laid down by

  • A)JT Kent                             B)Lee
  • C)Julia Minerva Green   D)Clara louis kent

91.Steiss in Bonninghausen’s repertory means

  • A)Hip             B)Sacrum
  • C)Coccyx      D)Vertebra

92.Rubric liability to fall in Kent’s Repertory is found in

  • A)Generalities        B)Extremities
  • C)Mind                      D)Vertigo

93.Hahnemann published a Latin Repertory in the year

  • A)1817          B)1805
  • C)1818           D)1806

94.Fever after exposure to rain in Kent’s Repertory is found in

  • A)Fever          B)Perspiration
  • C)Chill             D)Generalities

95.Heat without fever in Kent’s Repertory

  • A)Fever               B)Chill
  • C)Generalities    D)Skin

96.Preface to Repertory of antipsorics was written by

  • A)Boninghausen     B)HARoberts
  • C)Hahnemann          D)Knerr

97. Word Determinative symptom was first used by

  • A )Hahnemann      B)Boericke
  • C) Stuart clause    D) Boger

98.Awkwardness in Boger’s repertory

  • A) Sensation and complaints    B)Mind
  • C) Generalities                                D) Aggravation & Amel

99.Eye teeth in TPB means

  • A) Incisor teeth      B)Milk teeth
  • C) Canine teeth        D)Molar teeth

100. Inclination to sit in Kent’s Repertory

  • A) Extremities           B)Generalities
  • C) Mind                         D)Vertigo

101. ‘T’ wave of E.C.G. indicates

  • A) Atrial depolarization               B) Atrial repolarisation
  • C) Ventricular depolarization   D)Ventricular repolarisation

102. The GFR of average sized normal man is

  • A) 125 ml / min         B) 180 ml / min
  • C) 125 liters / day    D)180 ml / day

103. ‘O’ blood group has

  • A) No antigen in serum     B) Both antigen in serum
  • C) No antibody in serum   D)No antigen in RBC

104. All the hormones are from adrenal cortex except

  • A) Aldosterone    B) Cortisol
  • C) Adrenaline      D)Testosterone

105. The receptor for touch is

  • A) Meissner’s corpuscle   B) Merkel’s disc
  • C) Pacinian corpuscle       D)Krause’s end organ

106. All the factors shift the ODC to right except

  • A) Increase Ph                       B) Decrease Ph
  • C) Increase temperature   D) Decrease temperature

107. Complete oxidation of 1 molecule of glucose under aerobic condition is

  • A) 2 ATPs     B) 8 ATPs
  • C) 12 ATPs   D)38 ATPs

108. The plasma lipid that transport cholesterol from liver to heart is

  • A) VLDL    B) LDL
  • C) HDL       D) Chylomicrons

109. Deficiency of Tyrosinase enzyme cause

  • A) Albinism                      B) Alkaptoneuria
  • C) Phenyl Ketonuria    D)Hartnup disease

110. The only immunoglobin that can cross placenta is

  • A) IgG    B) IgM
  • C) IgA     D) IgE

111. Normal pH of plasma is

  • A) 7.34   B) 7.40
  • C) 7.42   D) 7.44

112. Potassium concentration in serum is

  • A) 3.5 – 5 mmol / L    B) 136 – 145 mmol / L
  • C) 3.5 – 5 mg / L          D) 136 – 145 mg / L

113. Musician’s Nerve is

  • A) Axillary nerve   B) Median nerve
  • C) Radial nerve        D) Ulnar nerve

114. All the arteries are branches of Internal carotid except

  • A) Ophthalmic                B) Basillar
  • C) Anterior cerebral    D)Middle cerebral

115. Viability of sperm is

  • A) 1 day    B) 2 days
  • C) 3 days   D) 4 days

116. All are carpel bones except

  • A) Talus              B) Trapezium
  • C) Trapezoid    D) Triquetrial

117. Length of Inguinal canal is

  • A) 3 cm    B) 4 cm
  • C) 5 cm    D) 6 cm

118. Largest cranial nerve is

  • A) Trigeminal       B) Vagus
  • C) Trochelar         D)Facial

119. Clinical feature of minimal change Glomerulonephritis are all except

  • A) Hypertension   B) Fever
  • C) Haematuria       D) Selective proteinuria

120. Hairy cell Leukaemia is due to proliferation of

  • A) Myeloid cells   B) B cells
  • C)T cells                  D)Macrophages

121. Bence – jones proteins consist of

  • A) Light chain               B)Heavy chain
  • C)Immunoglobulins   D)Light & Haevy chain

122. ‘Russell bodies’ are found in

  • A) Plasma cell tumour   B) Gonadal tumour
  • C) Parkinsonism               D) Ovarian tumour

123. Kaposi’s sarcoma arises from

  • A) Skin     B) Fibrous tissue
  • C) Veins   D)Capillaries & Connective tissue

124. The diagnostic test for AIDS is

  • A) ELISA                                   B) CFT
  • C) Immuno fluorescence   D) Western blot

125. Borrelia causes

  • A) Q fever                    B) Relapsing fever
  • C) Undulant fever    D) Atypical pneumonia

126. Herpes zoster is caused by

  • A) Herpes simplex type-I   B) Herpes simplex type-II
  • C) Epstein-Barr virus            D)Varicella

127. Weil-felix reaction is positive in

  • A) Epidemic typhus  B) Rocky-mountain spotted fever
  • C) Q-fever                     D) Trench fever

128. Food poisoning is due to

  • A) Clostridium perfringens    B) Vibrio cholera
  • C) Staph. Opidermidis              D) Salmonella paratyphi

129. Most reliable chemical test for detecting blood stain

  • A) Benzidine test   B) Teichmann’s test
  • C) Takayama test   D) Precipitin test

130. A Sea snake is

  • A) Neurotoxic       B) Haemotoxic
  • C) Musculotoxic   D)All the above

131. Presence of sperm in semen is detected by

  • A) Florence test                     B) Barberio’s test
  • C) Acid Phosphatase test   D) LDH test

132. Rigor mortis starts in

  • A) Heart    B) Intestine
  • C) Neck      D) Extremities

133. Identical twins may not have

  • A) Same DNA finger print   B) Same blood group
  • C) Same finger print              D) Same HLA system

134. Tactile hallucination are seen with

  • A) Cocaine dependence                   B) LSD addiction
  • C) Organ phosphorus poisoning  D) Dermatitis artefacta

135. Maize is deficient in

  • A) Tryptophan   B) Threonine
  • C)  Methionine   D)Leucine

136. Man is an intermediate host for

  • A) Dracunculosis                        B) Ankylostomiasis
  • C) African trypanosomiasis   D) Malaria

137. DDT acts as a

  • A) Contact poison   B) Surface poison
  • C) Repellant               D) Stomach poison

138. ‘Pearl Index’ measures

  • A) Water pollution                B) Air pollution
  • C) Contraceptive failure     D)Feacal pollution

139. The incubation period of Measles is

  • A)21 days           B) 7 days
  • C) 14-21 days   D)10-14 days

140. Spastic paraplegia is caused by

  • A) Strychnine    B)  Sanguinarias
  • C) Lathyrus        D) Organophosphorus compounds

141. The disease giving lifelong immunity after an attack

  • A) Diphthria    B) Mumps
  • C) Typhoid      D) Tetanus

142. Pulses alternans is diagnostic of

  • A) LVF                              B) RVF
  • C) Bronchial asthma   D) AR

143. Eisenmengers syndrome does not occur in

  • A) ASD    B) PDA
  • C) TOF    D) VSD

144. Pernicious Anaemia is due to

  • A) Total or Partial gastrectomy
  • B) Auto immune disorder
  • C) Mal absorption state
  • D) Dietary deficiency

145. Auer rods are present in the cytoplasm of

  • A) Lymphoblast
  • B) Ree Sternberg cells
  • C) Myeloblast
  • D) Erythrocytes

146. Hyponatremia & Hyperkalemia are the features of

  • A) Addison’s disease
  • B) NConn’s syndrome
  • C) Cushing’s syndrome
  • D) Pheochromocytoma

147. Pepper pot appearance of skull is an X-ray feature of

  • A) Hypo parathyroidism
  • B) Hyper parathyroidism
  • C) Acromegaly
  • D) Dwarfism

148. Mallory weiss syndrome is due to

  • A) Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth
  • B) Mal absoption state
  • C) Occlusion of Heaptic veins
  • D) Oesophgial laceration

149. Serum Alkaline phosphatase is greatly elevated in

  • A) Hepatocellar jaundice
  • B) Obstructive jaundice
  • C) Haemolytic jaundice
  • D) Gilberts syndrome

150. Bull neck in diphtheria is due to

  • A) Cellulites
  • B) Lymphadenopahty
  • C) Retro pharyngeal abcess
  • D) Laryngeal odema

Download answer Key : www.similima.com/pdf/ihma-model-homeopathy-exam-key-2008.pdf 

All rights reserved @ similima

Kerala PSC Homeopathy Medical Officer Examinations 2002

Maximum : 100 marks.
Time : 2 hours.
Write the answers in English.
Answer all questions.
Answers should be accurate and brief.

1. What are the requisite qualities of a Homoeopathic Physician who is going to   investigate a case. (4 marks)

2. What is Hypochondriac patient ? How to deal with such patients ? (4 marks)

3. What is Genus Epidemicus ?  (2 marks)

4. What is concomitant symptom ? (1 mark)

5. What is curable in medicine ? (1 mark)

6. Mention cardial principles of Homoeopathy. (14 marks)

7. Differentiate following medicines :—

  • (a) Ant. tart and Ipeca in Asthma.
  • (b) Apis mel and Apoc in Dropsy.
  • (c) Rumex and Spongia in Cough.
  • (d) Sangunaria and Spigetia in Headache
  • (e) Carbo veg and China in flatulence.    (5 x 3 = 15 marks)

8. Write two medicines against each :

  • (a) Ailments from Head injury.
  • (b) Ailments from Grief.
  • (c) Sea sickness.
  • (d) Ailments from getting wet.
  • (e) Ailments from eating spoiled food. (5 x 2 = 10 marks)

9. How will you differentiate a case of gastric ulcer with duodenal ulcer ? (5 marks)

10. Write laboratory investigations required to diagnose the following conditions :—

  • (a) HIV infection.
  • (b) Typhoid fever.
  • (c) Pneumonia.
  • (d) Malaria.
  • (e) Jaundice.      (5×1=5 marks)

11. . Write short description and mention two remedies for each :—

  • (a) Pancreatitis.
  • (b) Nephrotic syndrome.
  • (c) Uterine fibroid.
  • (d) Cancer-cervix.
  • (e) Migraine.   (5×3= 15 marks)

12. How to prevent following diseases in a locality ?

  • (a) Gastro-enteritis.
  • (b) Night Blindness. (2×3=6 marks)

13. Differentiate a death of Strangulation-Homicide or Suicide. (4 marks)

14. How to manage a case of Dehydration due to loose motion and vomiting. The patient is 30 years old, average built, male, has constant nausea, cannot tolerate smell of food, has dry lips, dry throat with remarkable weakness and increased thirst. (8 marks)

15. Mention the causes of Abortion and its treatment.  (6 marks)

All rights reserved @ similima

Kerala PSC Homeopathy Medical Officer Examinations 2001

Maximum : 100 marks
Time : 2 hours
Write the answers in English.
Answer all questions.
Answers should be accurate and brief.

1. Discuss the difficulties in handling a chronic case

2. what do you mean by ‘ Constitution ‘ in Homoeopathy? Describe in short its various components.

3. Explain the complete process of trituration according to clinical scale.

4. Write the importance of different types of symptoms in Homoeopathy.

5. Write the charactristic symptoms of the following.

  • i. Phosphorus.
  • ii. Sabina.
  • iii. Thuja Occ.
  • iv. Kreosotm.
  • v. Carbolic acid

6. Write cardinal indications of the following medicines in cervical spondylosis.

  • i. Causticum
  • ii. Arnica.
  • iii. Bryonia alb.
  • iv. Staphysagria.
  • v. Sulphur.

7. Write two complications of each of the following :

  • i. Emphysema.
  • ii. Gastric Ulcer.
  • iii. Bronchial Asthma.
  • iv. Chronic Alcoholism.
  • v. Hepatic Cirrhosis.

8. write the importance of :

  • i. ASO.
  • ii. Serum Amylase.
  • iii. Serum acid phosphatase.
  • iv. ESR.
  • v. Casoni’s test.

9. Discuss briefly the clinical features of :

  • i. Cerebral Malaria.
  • ii. Acute Pyelonephritis.

10. Discuss

  • (a) Define Leucopnea.
  • (b) Discuss two main causes for the same.
  • (c) Discuss two main diagnostic points for each case.
  • (d) Discuss one complication of each case.

11. In a case of a patient with hepatocellular failure, it is seen that blood-ammonia level is elevated and prothrobin time is prolonged.

  • (a) Explain why does the blood ammonia level is elevated in this patient.
  • (b) What could be the most serious consequence for prolonged prothrombin time in this case? Explain with reasons.

12. a seventy five-year-old man is admitted to hospital after sudden loss of consciousness. his signs and symptoms suggest of a ‘stroke’. A week later he regains his consciousness, has difficulty in speaking and can not move the right side of the body and the muscle-tone is elevated.

  • (a) Which cerebral hemisphere has been affected by the stroke ?
  • (b) Which features of the victim’s condition suggest this ?

All rights reserved @ similima

Kerala PSC Homeopathy Medical Officer Examinations 1999

Maximum : 100 marks Time : 2 hours
Write the answers in English.
Answer all questions.
Answers should be accurate and brief.

1. What are the main identifying characters of a sycotic patient ? Give five charactaristic symptoms and three anti-sycotic drugs.

2. In an epidemic outbreak of Japanese encephalitis, mention three homoeopathic drugs with its indications.

3. Write brief notes on :

  • (a) Immune deficiency disorders.
  • (b) Korsakoff’s psychosis.
  • (c) Siderosis.
  • (d) Hepatitis B.
  • (e) Crohn’s disease.

4. Spot out the correct statement :

  • (a) Most common organism causing hospital infection is :
  • (i) Streptococci.
  • (ii) Staphylococci.
  • (iii) Gonococci.
  • (b) The common complication of fracture of Pelvis is :
  • (i) Injury to membranous urethra.
  • (ii) injury to common Iliac artery.
  • (iii) injury to rectum.
  • (c) In starvation pupils are :
  • (i) Contracted.
  • (ii) Dilated.
  • (iii). Pin Point.
  • (iv) Alternately contracting and dilating.

5. Mention two Homoeopathic remedies with its indications for respiratory complaints of workers in iron and steel industries.

6. Mention two Hom. drugs for insect bite. Give its indications.

7. Complete the statements with appropriate words :

  • (a) Dying declaration is recorded by ___________.
  • (b) Suspended animation is seen in ___________ .
  • (c) Murphy’s sign is obtained in ______________.
  • (d) Cylindrical lenses are provided for the correction of ____________.

8. In human blood , what is the normal values of the following :

  • (a) Glucose.
  • (b) Bilirubin(total).
  • (c) Alkaline Phosphatase.
  • (d) Urea.
  • (e) HDL cholesterol.

9. Write a model form of prescription to a patient suffering from Bronchitis .

10. What is the purpose of the following tests :

  • (a) Widal test.
  • (b) Mantaux.
  • (c) Dick’s test
  • (d) HIV test.

11. Write a specimen form of fitness certificate to an employee in a company, who has availed 30 days sick leave.

12. Match the following :
                               A                                                                                                  B

  • (a) Recommended protein for an adult in India             (1) middle 1/3
  • (b) Free residual content after chlorination of water. (2) 0 to 6 mm./hr
  • (c) The common site of oesophageal carcinoma.          (3) 0.5 mgm./litre.
  • (d) ESR in adult male                                                                 (4) Grave’s disease.
  • (e) T3, T4                                                                                       (5) 1 gm.kgm.

13. Mention four remedies for injury .

14. How will you manage a woman employee with morning sickness ?

15. Give the statistical value of the following :-

  • (a) Total population in Kerala (as per 1991 census).
  • (b) Literacy rate (percentage).
  • (c) Life expectancy in India.
  • (d) Infant mortality rate in India.

All rights sreserved @ similima

Kerala PSC Homeopathy Medical Officer Examinations 1998

Maximum : 100 marks Time : 2 hours
Write the answers in English.
Answer all questions.
Answers should be accurate and brief.

1. Write one drug which is more suitable :

  • (a) At every menstrual nisus throat, mouth and tongue intolerably dry, especially when sleeping.
  • (b)for impotence, spasm, cold sweat excessive smoking.
  • (c) Must changes position frequently, but it is painful and gives little relief.
  • (d) Extremely terrible, impatient become or offended on being questioned.

2. What is the meaning of Dipsomania .

3. Describe the role of Silicia and Sulphur in respiratory disease due to air pollution.

4. What is the normal pH of vaginal secretion where a natural bactericidal action is being effected

5. What are the different ways of preventing diseases through Hom. medicines?

6. Describe what is Clinical Symptoms, Give an example.

7. (a) Describe what are clinical remedies, give an example.
(b) How many different categories of pain are used in Kent’s Repertory? What are they ?

8. What are the three Homoeopathic concept of disease causation ?

9. Describe the aetiology and modalities of the following drugs :

  • (a) Actea rec.
  • (b) Apis Mell.
  • (c) Ant. crud.

10. Give any five important modalities of the following drugs :

  • (a) Eupat. perf.
  • (b) Medorrhinum
  • (c) Mephites.
  • (d) Opium.
  • (e) Staphisagria.

11.(a) Causticum and Nat.mur in warts .
(b) Belladonna and Glonoine in Head ache .

12. How will you identify the cough of a psoric, sycotic and syphilitic patient.

13. What are the clinical representation to be viewed in order to ascertain the function of the kidney ?

14. Write one word answer :

  • (a) How many genetically different parasites of malaria are seen in India ?
  • (b) What is the time taken for nicotine absorption ?
    (i) From blood to brain.
    (ii) From Other source to brain.
  • (c) What is the quickening date and expected date of labour for women having conception on Oct. 2nd ?

15. Write the most appropriate one or two drugs :

  • (a) Sensation as if “removed with a knife, body in left side of throat could be.”
  • (b) Sensation as if ” needles in head.”
  • (c) Sensation as if ” Paralysed about to be.”
  • (d) Sensation as if ” Events that occurred in her dreams were not for hours but for week’s and month’s duration.”
  • (e) Sensation as if ” Evils he had done .”

All rights reserved @ similima

Kerala PSC Homeopathy Medical Officer Examinations 1993

Maximum : 100 marks Time : 2 hours
Write the answers in English.
Answer all questions.
Answers should be accurate and brief.

1. (a) What are the essentials of a Homoeopathic prescription ?
(b) What is the only indication for the selection of a remedy ?

2. (a) How do we discover the action of remedies ?
(b) What relations do drugs bear to each other ?

3 What is the accepted definition of a Homoeopathic physician ?

4. (a) What is meant by the ” mother tincture of a drug”?
(b) Name of the vehicle commonly used in Homoeopathic pharmacy.

5 (a) What are the different forms in which Homoeopathic Medicines can be obtained ?
(b) What conditions are to be observed in keeping Homoeopathic Medicines ?

6. Differentiate Aconite from Gelsemium in fevers .

7. Match the following medicines according to its symptoms :
(a) Restlessness & desire to continually move about    (1) Phosphorus
(b) Aversion to water and washing                                       (2) Alumina
(c) Bad effects of vaccination                                                   (3) Rhustox
(d) Exhausting albuminous Leucorroea                              (4) Sulphur
(e) Fatty degeneration of tissues, caries of bones.          (5) Thuja Occ.

8. Select suitable medicine for the following symptoms :
(a) Too late, coryza in late stages, indigestion two hours late after eating, menses never on time, too late, nothing is on time.
(b) A bruised, sore feeling all over the body; feel as if he had been pounded.
(c) They follow each other, but are antidotal if given together.
(d) Hot, red skin, flushed face, full hard pulse, throbbing carotids with delirium and hyperaesthesia of the senses.

9. (a) Match the etiological classification of the following communicable disease :-
(a) Diphtheria      (1) Sexually transmitted
(b) Poliomyelitis   (2) Bacteria
(c) Kala-azar       (3) Virus
(d) Leprocy         (4) Parasite
(e) Gonorrhoea    (5) Bacteria

(b) Give the normal differential leucocyte count and percentage adults.

10. What are the normal daily requirement of the following vitamins and the disease caused by its deficiency ?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B1.
(c) Vitamin C.
(d) Vitamin D.
(e) Vitamin E.

11. Prepare a specimen sickness certificate for a men of 50 years who is suffering from cervical spondylities and is under your treatments.

All right sreserved @ similima

IHMA Kerala MD Homoeopathy Model Questions 2010

Multiple Choice Questions.
From Question Paper of Indian Homeopathic Medical Association  Kerala  MD Homoeopathy coaching programme.

  1. If median nerve is injured at the wrist then loss of function of all of the foll. will take place except:
  2. Middle meningeal artery is transmitted through:
  3. All are motor nerves except:
  4. The total volume of CSF is
  5. Deja vu Phenomoenon seen in lesion of
  6. About splenic arteries  all are true Except
  7. Referred pain from ureteric colic is felt in the groin due to the involvement of the following nerve
  8. In spinal cord myelin sheath is formed by
  9. Intestinal obstruction caused by Ca colon most likely involves
  10. In standing position, venous return to heart from the lower limbs is affected by all of the following except

Download the full question paper (200 MCQs) :  www.similima.com/pdf/ihma-model-md-paper-2011.pdf

IHMA Kerala Model Homeopathy MD Entrance Exam 2011 Paper.II

Time Allowed: 1 Hour and 30 minutes
Maximum Marks: 600

  1. DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO.
  2. Please verify that your test booklet contains 17 pages, including answer sheet.
  3. This Test Booklet contains 150 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses  (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In  case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which   you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
  4. You have to mark all your responses by shading the bubbles on the separate Answer  Sheet provided. DO NOT write anything on the Answer sheet.
  5. Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to  penalization formula based on the number of right answers actually marked and the  number of wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded 4 mark. 1 mark     will be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a  question will be deemed as an incorrect response and will be negatively marked. No  negative marks for un attended questions
  6. The Answer key along with the results of this exam will be published in our website   www.ihma.in
  7. Please note the matching ROLL NUMBERS given in your question booklet and answer

1)  According to church register Hahnemann was born on —–1755

  • a) April 10                      b) April 11
  • c) September 3            d) September 7

2)  Hahnemanns 2nd   child was —-

  • a) Henritte      b) Fredericke
  • c) Amalie         d) Elonore

3)  When Hahnemann went to Leipzic   for higher studies he had —–   at hand received  from father

  • a) 30 thalers      b) 30 mark
  • c) 100 thalers  d) 20 thalers

4)  The hospital where Hahnemann underwent training under Dr Von Quarin

  • a) Sisters of mercy           b) Medical mission hospital
  • c) Brothers of mercy     d) Royal hospital of  Vienna

5)  Hahnemann died at the ripe old age of

  • a) 90          b) 85
  • c) 88          d) 78

6)  Hahnemann used Belladonna as the first homoeopathic preventive medication  against scarlet fever, in

  • a) Konningslutter        b) Georgenthal
  • c) Leipzic                        d) Gotha.

7)  Name the first insane person treated by Hahnemann .

  • a)  Ferdinand,        b) Moritz muller
  • c) Becker                  d) Klockenbring

8)  Hahnemann wrote Organon of Rational Art of Healing in —– at

  • a)   1810 Koethen     b) 1805  Torgau
  • a) 1810 Torgau          d) 1805  Leipzic

9)  Hahnemann made an erroneous discovery of a new compound. Actually it was

  • a)  common salt      b)  antimony
  • c) alkali pneum      d) Causticum

10)Who published anti organon

  • a)  Hecker                                 b) Heinroth
  • c) Frederick Hahnemann  d) Prof Pzondi

11) Thesis submitted by Hahnemann to Leipzic University

  • a)  Wonderful construction of human hand               b) Helliborisms of ancients
  • c) Causes and treatment of  cramps  and  spasmodic affections
  • d) Aesculapis in balance

12) Number of medicines proved by Hahnemann

  • a)  90                        b) 99
  • c) 102                     d) 200

13) Commander of allied army treated by Hahnemann

  • a)  Swarrzneiigger            b) Napolean
  • c) Shwarzenberg              d) Duke Ferdinand

14) Jubilee of Hahnemanns attainment of doctor degree was commemorated on

  • a)August 10  1829  b) July 10 1829
  • c) Sept 19 1829    d)Aug 19 1829

15)Which daughter accompanied Hahnemanns body to Mont marte cemetery

  • a) Amalie           b) Elonore
  • c) Heinritte      d) Wilheilmne

16)The term logic is derived from – language

  •  a)  Latin      b) Roman,
  • c) Greek     d) Persian

17)Exhaustion & heaviness of the body after slight exertion, with orgasm of blood chest   & face.

  • a)Spongia                       b) Stannum met
  • c) Amyl.nitrosum      d) Glonoine

18)Sneezing in sun shine

  • a)Glonoine           b) Nat.mur
  • c) Sulphur            d) Merc.sol

Download the complete question paper(150MCQs) : www.similima.com/pdf/ihma-mdentrance-2011-II.pdf

Download revised answer key : www.similima.com/pdf/ihma-answerkey2011.pdf

All rights reserved @ similima