Govt of Andhrapradesh Homeopathy MD Entrance 2000

Select the most appropriate answer for each of the following 200 multiple choice questions and enter the answer against the corresponding question number in the answer sheet by a THICK HORIZONTAL STROKE in black ink with a sketch pen ACROSS a single correct alphabet a,b,c,d . More than one entry or other type of markings or incomplete markings or erased markings or dots will invalidate the mark for that question.

Time : 3 hours                                     Marks : 200

Example : If (d) is the correct answer

(a)      (b)    (c)  (d)

1. The lowest structure  in the root of the lung is

  • a) Pulmonary artery
  • b) Bronchus
  • c) Pulmonary vein
  • d) Inferior pulmonary vein

2. The hepato pancreatic ampulla opens in to

  • a)  1st  part of duodenum
  • b)  2nd part of duodenum
  • c)  3rd  part of duodenum
  • d)  4th  part of duodenum

3. Illioinguinal nerve

  • a)  Is a branch of lumbar plexus
  • b)  Passes through the deep inguinal ring
  • c)  Its root value is dorsal ramus L1
  • d)  Runs between external and internal oblique muscles of abdominal wall

4. The depressor temporomandibular joint is

  • a) Lateral pterygoid
  • b) Medial pterygoid
  • c) Masseter
  • d) Temporalis

5. The following statement regarding motor speech ( Broca’s area) is true

  • a) It is present bilaterally
  • b) It is supplied by middle cerebral artery
  • c) A lesion in this area results in the paralysis of laryngeal muscles
  • d) It is situated in the temporal lobe of cerebrum

6.The axon reflux is related to

  • a)  Wheal
  • b)  Red reaction
  • c)  Flare
  • d)  White reaction

7. The following are increased during muscular exercise except

  • a) Peripheral resistance
  • b) Cardiac output
  • c) Venous return
  • d) Coronary blood flow

8.The ‘C’ wave in arterial pressure tracing is due to

  • a) Atrial filling
  • b) Atrial systole
  • c) Ventricular filling
  • d) Ventricular systole

9. Mammalian RBC are biconcave, therefore

  • a)   They can easily pass through capillary
  • b)   They are flexible
  • c)   Their surface area is more compared to sphere of the same diameter
  • d)   They can be stacked one over other to form ‘roluex’

10.One of the following statement is true of Rh factor

  • a) Has no naturally occurring antibodies
  • b) Is present only in women
  • c) Is present only in human race
  • d) Is not important for blood transfusion

11.Oxidative phosphorylations is inhibited at cytochrome oxidase by

  • a) Carbondioxide
  • b) Barbiturates
  • c) Carbon monoxide
  • d) Rotenone

12.In Glycolysis ATP synthesis is catalyzed by

  • a)   Hexokinase
  • b)   6 phosphofructo 1 kinase
  • c)   Glyceraldehydes 3 phosphate de hydrogenas
  • d)   Phosophoglycerate kinase

13.Carboxypeptid  B acts as an Exopeptidase and hydrolyses terminal  peptide bonds containing

  • a) Lysine and arginine
  • b) Glycine and leucine
  • c) Leucine arid isoleucine
  • d) Leucine and arginine

14.In which disease of the following organs, LDH1 and LDH will be released in plasma?

  • a)  Kidney, Red cells, Liver
  • b)  Heart, Kidney, Redcells
  • c)  Heart, Kidney, Liver
  • d)  Heart, Lungs, Brain

15.The two nitrogen atom in urea arise from

  • a) Ammonia and glutamine
  • b) Ammonia and aspartic acid
  • c) Glutamine and aspartic acid
  • d) Glutamic acid and alanine

16.The chlorination of water

  • a) Kills all spores
  • b) Kills hepatitis A virus at normal concentration
  • c) Kills polio virus at normal concentration
  • d) Has residual effect

17.The causative agent in epidemic typhus

  • a)  Rickettsia Quintana
  • b)  Rickettsia prowazeki
  • c)  Borellia recurrentis
  • d)  Tunga penetrans

18.The bacteria that are involved in nosocomial (hospital associated) infections are transmitted most often by

  • a)  Airborne route
  • b)  Fomites
  • c)  Indwelling catheters
  • d)  Direct contact via hands

19.The safe limit of fluorine level in drinking water

  • a) 0.5 to 0.8 mg/litre
  • b) 1.0 to 1.5 mg/litre
  • c) 2.0 to 2.5 mg/litre
  • d) 3.0 to 3.5 mg/litre

20.The disease transmitted by hardtick is

  • a) Viral hemorrhagic fever
  • b) Epidemic typhus
  • c) Malaria
  • d) Relapsing fever

21.‘Q’ fever is caused by

  • a) Streptococcus pyogens
  • b) Aspergilla
  • c) Coxiella burnetti
  • d) Dipetalonema strepocerca

22.The antigenic source of farmer’s lung is

  • a)  Unharvested paddy field
  • b)  Fresh cut hay
  • c)  Mouldy hay
  • d)  Paddy or rice husk

23.The following statement about breast feeding are true except

  • a) The incidence of infection is greater than bottle fed than in breast fed infants
  • b) Breast milk promote bonding between mother and infant
  • c) Breast milk provide about 115 K cal per 100 gms
  • d) It provides about 3.5 gms fats per 100 gms

24.The vector for dengue haemorrahgic fever is

  • a) Culex tritaeneorynchus
  • b) Phlebotomus papatasi
  • c) Aedes aegypti
  • d) Culex vishnui

25.In drinking water minimum recommended concentration of free chlorine is

  • a) 0.1 mg/litre
  • b) 0.2 mg/litre
  • c) 0.5 mg/litre
  • d) 1.0mg/litre

26.Community health centre’s are

  • a)  Upgraded primary health centres
  • b)  Upgraded health sub centres
  • c)  Upgraded ICDS centres
  • d)  Upgraded district hospitals

27.The working of septic tank is by

  • a) Aerobic digestion
  • b) Anerobic digestion
  • c) Both aerobic and anerobic digestion
  • d) Sedimentation and sludge formation

28.Side effects of oral contraceptive pills include all the following except

  • a) Breakthrough bleeding
  • b) Hypertension
  • c) Pelvic infection
  • d) Thromboembolism

29.One of  the following statements are true about iron requirements  except

  • a)  Human iron requirements are satisfied by cow’s milk
  • b)  Iron requirements of women decrease after menopause
  • c)  Iron requirements are approximately same in adult men and postmenopausal women
  • d)  Iron requirements increase during pregnancy

30.All the following infections are transmitted by sandflies except

  • a) Leishmaniasis
  • b) Sandfly fever
  • c) Chagas disease
  • d) Bartonellosis

31.Alpha feto protein is a marker for

  • a) Cholangio carcinoma
  • b) Angiosarcoma
  • c) Hepatocellular carcinoma
  • d) Leiomyoma

32.The commonest cause of congestive splenomegaly is

  • a) Cirrhosis of liver
  • b) Right heart failure
  • c) Portal vein thrombosis
  • d) Splenic vein thrombosis

33.The syndrome associated with grossly pigmented liver is

  • a) Rotor
  • b) Dubin Johnson
  • c) Gilbert’s
  • d) Crigler – Najjr

34.All the following are parts of triad of causes of thrombosis, except

  • a)  Alteration in blood flow
  • b)  Endothelial damage
  • c)  Thrombocytopenia
  • d)  Hyper coagulability

35.The substance which accumulates excess in Goucher’s disease

  • a)  Sphingomyelin
  • b)  Glucocerbroside
  • c)  Glycogen
  • d)  Glycolipid

36.Off the following intestinal polyp is most likely to undergo malignant change

  • a)  Hyperplastic
  • b)  Hamartomatous
  • c)  Lymphoid
  • d)  Adenomatous

37.Heart failure cells are haemosiderophagus found in

  • a) Heart
  • b) Spleen
  • c) Liver
  • d) Lung

38.The commonest tumor of the uterus is

  • a)  Leiomyoma
  • b)  Endometrial carcinoma
  • c)  Leiomyosarcoma
  • d)  Stromal sarcoma

39.The commonest type of ovarian teratoma is

  • a)  Immature
  • b)  Benign cyst
  • c)  Teratocarcinoma
  • d)  Struma liver

40.The commonest histological type of bronchogenic carcinoma

  • a) Small cell carcinoma
  • b) Adenocarcinoma
  • c) Large cell carcinoma
  • d) Squamous cell carcinoma

41.The following organism are encapsulated except

  • a)  Streptococcus pneumonia
  • b)  Vibrio cholera
  • c)  Haemophilus influenza
  • d)  Klebsiella pneumonia

42.The parasitic infection congenitally acquired is

  • a) Amoebiasis
  • b) Toxoplsamosis
  • c) Giardiasis
  • d) Balantidiasis

43.Direst coomb’s test is done with

  • a)  RBCs
  • b)  Plasma
  • c)  Serum
  • d)  Platlets

44.Cresentic or kidney shaped gametocytes are characteristic of

  • a)  Plasmodium vivax
  • b)  Plasmodium falciparum
  • c)  Plasmodium malaria
  • d)  Plasmodium ovale

45.One of the following causes food poisoning

  • a) Vibrio cholera classical
  • b) Vibrio cholera eltor
  • c) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
  • d) Vibrio cholera 0139

46.The clinical features of acute severe asthma include the following except

  • a)  Marked wheezing and breathlessness
  • b)  Silent chest
  • c)  Respiratory rate over 25 per minute
  • d)  Absence of cyanosis

47.The following features occurs in Dengue fever except

  • a) Saddle back fever
  • b) Cervical lymph adenopathy
  • c) Leucocytosis
  • d) Bradycardia

48.Clinical manifestation of polyneuropathy includes

  • a) Muscle weakness and atrophy
  • b) Brisk tendon refluxes
  • c) Proximal part of limb affected first
  • d) Distal progression as the disorder become severe

49.The following are true in iron deficiency anemia except

  • a) Decrease in iron stores
  • b) Decreased level of serum ferritin to less than 10mg/ml
  • c) Decreased level of free erythrocyte protoporphyrin (FEP)
  • d) Decrease in activity of intracellular enzymes contacting iron

50.One of the following statements regarding AIDS is false

  • a) It is caused by retero virus
  • b) Pneumocystis carinni infection is commonly associated
  • c) Serology is confirmatory for diagnosis
  • d) Virus is resistant to heat and other disinfectants

51.Rasmussen’s aneurysm are found in

  • a) Anterior part of circle of Willis
  • b) Posterior part of circle of Willis
  • c) Tuberculous cavity
  • d) Abdominal aorta

52.The most common urinary abnormality in a patient with acute glomerulonephritis  is

  • a) Macroscopic hematuria
  • b) Microscopic hematuria
  • c) Protenuria
  • d) Significant bacteuria

53.All the following can cause megaloblastic anemia, except

  • a)  Crohn’s disease
  • b)  Diphyllobothrium latum
  • c)  Perinicious anemia
  • d)  Hookworm infestation

54.Factors pre disposing to hyperuricemia and gout are

  • a) Psoriasis
  • b) Myxoedema
  • c) Hyperparathyroidism
  • d) All the above

55.The following are important complications of  chronic bronchitis except

  • a) Respiratory failure
  • b) Rt ventricular failure
  • c) Secondary polycythemia
  • d) Hyperuricemia

56.Following statement regarding senile dementia are true except

  • a) Early personality deterioration
  • b) Late impairment of intellect
  • c) CT shows cortical shrinkage and dilatation of ventricle
  • d) Occurs after 65 years

57.All the following are features of tetralogy of fallot except

  • a) Pulmonary stenosis
  • b) Ventricular septal defect
  • c) Left ventricular hypertrophy
  • d) Over riding of aorta

58.Cutaneous larva migrans occurs in infection with

  • a) Ancylostoma brasilianse
  • b)  Toxocara canis
  • c) Scabies
  • d) Echinococcus granulosus

59.In diabetic patient impotence may be attributed to

  • a) Autonomic neuropathy
  • b) Vascular insufficiency
  • c) Psychogenic origin
  • d) All the above

60.Necrobiosis lipoidica is associated with

  • a) Diabetes mellitus
  • b) Panniculitis
  • c) Hyperthyroidism
  • d) Hyperparathyroidism

61.Reiter’s syndrome is a triad of the following symptoms

  • a) Urethritis, Cervicitis and Salpingitis
  • b) Urethritis, Conjunctivitis and arthritis
  • c) Urethritis, cystitis and pyelitis
  • d) Urethritis, cystitis and proctitis

62.Pigmentation of oral mucosa is diagnostic of

  • a)  Vit A deficiency
  • b)  Secondary syphilis
  • c)  Addison’s disease
  • d)  Lead poisoning

63.All are true regarding adult respiratory syndrome  except

  • a)  Decreased tidal volume
  • b)  Decreased lung compliance
  • c)  Increased respiratory rate
  • d)  Increased pulmonary capillary pressure

64.Macroglossia is seen in

  • a) Amyloidosis
  • b) Addison’s disease
  • c) Motor neurone disease
  • d) Syringiomyelia

65.Creeping eruptions are more commonly seen in infections with

  • a) Ankylostoma duodenale
  • b) Nectar americanus
  • c) Ankylostoma caninum
  • d) None of the above

66.Which one of the pair of polypeptide chains constitute haemoglobin F

  • a)  Alpha 2 Beta 2
  • b)  Beta 2 Gamma 2
  • c)  Alpha 2 Gamma 2
  • d)  Gamma 2 Delta 2

67.One of the following cannot be diagnosed by stool examination

  • a)  Entrobius vermicularis
  • b)  Trichuris trichura
  • c)  Ancylostomiasis
  • d)  Ascariasis

68.Hyper esinophilic syndrome is charectrised by all except

  • a) Peripheral esinophilia
  • b) Parasitic infestation
  • c) Bone marrow esinophilia
  • d) Tissue esinophilia

69.The major criteria in rheumatic fever according to modified Jone’s criteria includes

  • a) Fever
  • b) Arthralgia
  • c) Chorea
  • d) Prolonged PR interval

70.The most effective method for definitive diagnosis of Granuloma venerum is by

  • a) Tissue smear
  • b) Serum tests
  • c) Skin tests
  • d) Culture

71.First grade remedy for cough after measles in Kent’s repertory

  • a)  Carb.veg
  • b)  Arnica
  • c)  Pulsatilla
  • d)  Cuprum met

72.First grade remedy for chorea ameliorated during sleep in Kent’s repertory

  • a) Agaricus
  • b) Actea recemosa
  • c) Helliborous nig
  • d) Mygale

73.Asthma where the patient can only breath by standing up (Allen’s Key note)

  • a) Ignatia
  • b) Mephitis
  • c) Corallium Rub
  • d) Cannabis sativa

74.Epilepsy from valvular diseases of the heart (Allen’s Key note)

  • a) Calc.ars
  • b) Cretagus
  • c) Digitalis
  • d) Cactus Grand

75.Heart disease that had developed from rheumatism or alternate with it, pulse slow, scarcely perceptible (35 -40 per minute) pale face and cold extremities (Allen’s Key note)

  • a) Ledum pal
  • b) Kalmia lat
  • c) Aurum met
  • d) Lilium tig

76.Cysticercosis is a cyst of

  • a) Echinococcus
  • b) Taenia solium
  • c) Dracunlus
  • d) Trichenella

77.The one feature common to all forms of shock is

  • a) Falling right atrial pressure
  • b) Inadequate tissue perfusion
  • c) Reduction in cardiac out put
  • d) Fall in left atrial pressure

78.Gas gangrene is caused by

  • a)  Clostridium perfringens
  • b)  Anaerobic streptococcus
  • c)  Eschericia coli
  • d)  Clostridia difficile

79.Neuroblastoma is a malignant tumor of

  • a) Adrenal cortex
  • b) Adrenal medulla
  • c) Kidney
  • d) Spleen

80.Froment’s sign shows a paralyzed

  • a)   Median nerve
  • b)   Ulnar nerve
  • c)   Radial nerve
  • d)   Circumflex nerve

81.Compound fracture means

  • a) Fracture associated with neurovascular complication
  • b) Comminuted fracture
  • c) Fracture which communicate outside through an open wound
  • d) Double fracture

82.Osteitis fibrosa cystic is due to

  • a) Hyperthyroidism
  • b) Hyperparathyroidism
  • c) Hypoparathyroidism
  • d) None of the above

83.Kretagner’s syndrome is characterized by the following except

  • a) Situs inversus
  • b) Chronic sinusitis
  • c) Chronic mastoditis
  • d) Braonchiectasis

84.Factors delaying wound healing are all except

  • a) Malignant disease
  • b) Hypertension
  • c) Uremia
  • d) Diabetes

85.Regarding ‘peau d orange’ following statements are true except

  • a)  Due to cutaneous lymphatic edema
  • b)  Is a classical sign of early breast cancer
  • c)  Occasionally seen in chronic abscess
  • d)  Resembles orange peel

86.Honey comb liver is a feature of

  • a) Cirrhosis of liver
  • b) Actinomycosis
  • c) Hydatid cyst
  • d) Gumma liver

87.Pipe stem colon is characteristics of

  • a) Ulcerative colitis
  • b) Hirschsprung’s disease
  • c) Diverticulosis
  • d) Amoebic colitis

88.Nerve abscess in leprosy is commonly seen in

  • a)  Median nerve
  • b)  Lateral popliteal nerve
  • c)  Greater auricular nerve
  • d)  Ulnar nerve

89.The tumor of testis which spreads by lymph stream is

  • a) Steroli cell tumor
  • b) Choriocarcinoma
  • c) Teratoma
  • d) Seminoma

90.The most common cause of conjunctivitis is

  • a) Staphylococcal infection
  • b) Trachoma
  • c) Drug irritation
  • d) Contact lens wearing

91.First grade remedy for prolapse of rectum in children in Kent’s repertory

  • a) Podophyllum
  • b) Nux.v
  • c) Ruta
  • d) Aloe. S

92.First grade remedy for crushed and lacerated wounds of finger ends in Kent’s repertory

  • a) Laedum Pal
  • b) Staphysagria
  • c) Hypericum
  • d) Arnica

93.Renal colic, intense pain in ureters with sensation of passing calculus with craving for ice in Allen’s Keynotes of MM

  • a) Medorrhinum
  • b) Verat.alb
  • c) Beriberis Vulg
  • d) Phosphorous

94.Promotes expulsion of foreign bodies from tissue. Fish bone, needles, bone splinters ( Allen’s Key notes)

  • a) Hepar.S
  • b) Merc.sol
  • c) Sulphur
  • d)  Silicea

95.Dry senile gangrene aggravation from external heat ( Allen’s Key notes)

  • a) Secale cor
  • b) Silicea
  • c) Phosphorous
  • d) Antim.crud

96.Precipitated labour can cause all the following except

  • a) Postpartum haemorrhage
  • b) Prolonged labour
  • c) Perennial lacerations
  • d) Cervical incompetence

97.Maternal death in eclampsia occurs due to

  • a) Cerebral haemorrhage
  • b) Pulmonary edema
  • c) Renal failure
  • d) All the above

98.The largest diameter of fetal skull is

  • a) Mentovertical
  • b) Submento bregmatic
  • c) Sub occipitobregmatic
  • d) Occipito frontal

99.Sheehan’s syndrome is caused by thrombosis of vessels supplying

  • a) Anterior pituitary
  • b) Posterior pituitary
  • c) Thyroid  gland
  • d) Adrenal gland

100.Colostrums has more of the following compared to breast milk

  • a)  Calcium
  • b)  Magnesium
  • c)  Iron
  • d)  Copper

101.In a primigravida ith 12 weeks amenorrhea and vaginal bleeding  with internal os admitting a finger, the most likely diagnosis is

  • a)  Threatened abortion
  • b)  Inevitable abortion
  • c)  Incomplete abortion
  • d)  Complete abortion

102.In the histological examination of choriocarcinoma, which one of the following absent?

  • a) Trophoblast
  • b) Haemorrhage into surrounding tissue
  • c) Villi
  • d) Necrosis of adjoining tissue

103. Which one of the following is associated with maximum risk for endometrial malignancy

  • a) Atypical hyperplasia
  • b) Cystic glandular hyperplasia
  • c) Adenomatous hyperplasia
  • d) Proliferative endometrium

104.The karyotype typical of Turner’s syndrome

  • a) 47XXY
  • b) 48XXXY
  • c) 45X
  • d) 47XXX

105.Klinfelter’s syndrome is associated with all the following except

  • a) Gynaecomastia
  • b) XXX chromosome
  • c) Infertility
  • d) Mental defect

106.In a 30 day menstrual cycle, ovulation occurs between the following cycle days

  • a) 11 to 13
  • b) 14 to 16
  • c) 17 to 19
  • d) 20 to 22

107.The most common cause of postpartum haemorrhage is

  • a) Uterine fibroids
  • b) Antepartum haemorrhage
  • c) Mismanagement of 3rd stage of labour
  • d) Coagulation defects

108.Oestrogens are secreted by one of the following

  • a) Cystic teratoma
  • b) Granulose cell tumor
  • c) Dysgerminoma
  • d) Arrhenoblastoma

109.The decubitus ulcer in prolapse of the uterus is due to

  • a) Supravaginal elongation of cervix
  • b) Friction of exposed parts
  • c) Congestion and circulatory changes
  • d) Hyperkeratosis

110.The most common complication in a fibromyoma during pregnancy is

  • a)  Cystic degeneration
  • b)  Red degeneration
  • c)  Calcareous deposits
  • d)  Infection

111.Phlebitis, puerperal after forceps delivery (Allen’s Key notes)

  • a)  Allium cepa
  • b)  Secal cor
  • c)  Cimicifuga
  • d)  Caulophyllum

112.Leucorrhoea, thick bluish white mucus especially or only night (Allen’s Key notes)

  • a) Syphillinum
  • b) Alumina
  • c) Ambra griesa
  • d) Pulsatilla

113.Cold drinks relieves menstrual pain and menstrual flow aggravates on lying down ( Allen’s Key notes)

  • a) Mag.Carb
  • b) Kreosote
  • c) Bovista
  • d) Ammonium mur

114.First grade remedy for abortion from excitement (Kent’s repertory)

  • a) Aconite
  • b) Gelsemium
  • c) Sepia
  • d) Opium

115.Prolapsus uteri, seemingly in hot weather ( Allen’s Key notes)

  • a) Medorrhinum
  • b) Lilium tig
  • c) Kali. Bich
  • d) Nat.carb

116.Convulsions preceded by great restlessness (Allen’s Key notes)

  • a) Ars. Alb
  • b) Rhus. Tox
  • c) Arg.nit
  • d) Aconite

117.Always anticipating, feels matter most positively, before they occur and generally correctly (Allen’s Key notes)

  • a) Ars alb
  • b) Arg nit
  • c) Medorrhinum
  • d) Phosphorous

118.Very forgetful in business, but during sleep  dreams of what he had forgotten (Allen’s Key notes)

  • a) Lachesis
  • b) Selenium
  • c) Anacardium
  • d) Cannabis Indica

119.When symptoms re-appear they change locality or go from one side to other (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Agaricus
  • b) Led.pal
  • c) Anti.crud
  • d) Phytolacca

120.Feels unusually well day before the attack (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Ignatia
  • b) Psorinum
  • c) Thuja.oc
  • d) Hyoscyamus

121.As the coldness of the body increases so also does the ill humor (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Allium Cepa
  • b) Eup.perf
  • c) Podophyllum
  • d) Capsicum

122.Excessively happy,affectionate, ants to kiss everybody, the nest moment in a rage (Allen’s key notes)

  • a)  Ignatia
  • b)  Crocus.sat
  • c)  Murex
  • d)  Lilium tig

123.When child nurses, pain goes from nipple to all over body (Allen’s key notes)

  • a)  Crot.tig
  • b)  Phytolacca
  • c)  Medorrhinum
  • d)  Rhus.tox

124.Enuresis diurnal et nocturna, profuse watery urine, where habit is the only ascertainable cause (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Equisetum hyemale
  • b) Acid.p
  • c) Helonias
  • d) Cantharis

125.Constipation with ineffectual urging ameiolerated by drinking cold milk (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Iodum
  • b) Rhus.tox
  • c) Chelidoneum
  • d) Phosphorous

126.Cataract, gauze before eyes with complaints caused by checked foot sweat (Boerick’s MM)

  • a)  Calc. carb
  • b)  Phosphorous
  • c)  Silicea
  • d)  Baryta carb

127.Small wounds bleed freely and cough after influenza (Boerick’s MM)

  • a)  Lachesis
  • b)  Crotalus.H
  • c)  Kreosote
  • d)  Phosphorous

128.Before menses pain in sacrum, hunger, palpitation and amenorrhea with asthma (Boerick’s MM)

  • a) Cuprum.met
  • b) Lachesis
  • c) Iodum
  • d) Spongia

129.Expectoration gray, thick bloody purulent salty with nocturnal pyuria (Boerick’s MM)

  • a) Phosphorous
  • b) Pulsatilla
  • c) Lycopodium
  • d) Ars.alb

130. Headache if obliged to pass dinner hour, rt sided prosopalgia, constrictive pain in the head and pain return at the same hour. (Boerick’s MM)

  • a)  Ars.alb
  • b)  Lachesis
  • c)   Cactus. Grand
  • d)   Lycopodium

131.Piles with scanty menses at climaxis, strangulated with stitches shooting upwards (Allen’s key notes)

  • a)  Pulsatilla
  • b)  Lachesis
  • c)  Graphitis
  • d)  Collinsonia

132.Frequent urging to urinate, if desire is not attended with sensation of congestion in chest (Allen’s key notes)

  • a)  Lilium tig
  • b)  Cannabis.I
  • c)  Stannum.met
  • d)  Phosphorous

133.Stammering, repeats first syllable three or four times, with abdominal ailments, with helminthiasis (Allen’s key notes)

  • a)  Stramonium
  • b)  Bovista
  • c)  Spigelia
  • d)  Gelsemium

134.Sensation of growing larger in every direction (Allen’s key notes)

  • a)  Asarum Europ
  • b)  Platina
  • c)  Thuja
  • d)  Cannabis ind

135.Sweat, mouldy musty odor, after 4am, every morning,on neck and forehead, very debilitating. (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Stannum
  • b) Silicea
  • c) Psorinum
  • d) Sulphur

136.Can only void  urine while sitting bend backwards (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Kali.carb
  • b) Hep.s
  • c) Zincum.m
  • d) Medorrhinum

137.Circumscribed red cheeks in afternoon, burning in ears, in bronchitis,pneumonia,pthisis (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Sangunaria.can
  • b) Chamomilla
  • c) Sulphur
  • d) Phosphorous

138.Mentally happier when leucorrhoea is worse (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Sepia
  • b) Ignatia
  • c) Murex
  • d) Thuja

139.Avaricious, greedy, miserly, malicious, pusillanimous (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Nux.v
  • b) Lycopodium
  • c) Sulphur
  • d) Calc.carb

140.Cold sensation in larynx on inspiration ameliorated after shaving (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Bromium
  • b) Carb.animalis
  • c) Iodum
  • d) Phosphorous

141.Stitches in the chest, pleurisy with exudation, tendency to gangrene (Boerick’s material medica)

  • a) Kali.c
  • b) Cantharis
  • c) Bryonia
  • d) Squilla

142.Parotid gland swollen with night walking (Boerick’s materia medica)

  • a) Rhus.t
  • b) Belladonna
  • c) Calc.carb
  • d) Silicea

143.Aural vertigo,burning in lower lip in old smokers, lip swollen dry black and cracked (Boerick’s materia medica)

  • a) Aurum met
  • b) Silicea
  • c) China
  • d) Bryonia

144.Great weakness and trembling, tongue trembles while protruding, catches under the lower teeth. (Nash MM)

  • a) Lycopodium
  • b) Lachesis
  • c) Rhus.t
  • d) Sulphur

145.Dyspnoea , agg from sitting, after sleep in room, amel by dancing or walking rapidly (Nash MM)

  • a) Rhus.t
  • b) Psorinum
  • c) Sepia
  • d) Kali.carb

146.Dr.Hahnemann went to Leipzig university to study medicine in the year

  • a) 1779
  • b) 1775
  • c) 1777
  • d) 1782

147.Dr. Hahnemann translated Cullen’s material medica from English in the year

  • a)  1799
  • b)  1790
  • c)  1793
  • d)  1803

148.The theme of dissertation submitted by Hahnemann   to Erlanger University for his MD examination was

  • a)  Experiment on hydrophobia
  • b)  On mineral waters and warm bath
  • c)  The wonderful construction of human hand
  • d)  A view of the cause and treatment of cramps

149.First edition of Dr.Hahnemann’s ‘The chronic disease, their peculiar nature and their homeopathic cure’ was published in the year

  • a)  1790
  • b)  1828
  • c)  1805
  • d)  1819

150.The homeopathic law of nature has been enunciated by Dr.Hahnemann in his Organon aphorism

  • a)   7
  • b)  48
  • c)  26
  • d)  57

151.The true natural chronic disease are that arise from

  • a) Exciting cause
  • b) Maintaining cause
  • c) Chronic miasm
  • d) Material cause

152.The section of Dr.Hahnemann  Organon with we enter  the field of mental disease is

  • a) Aphorism no.184
  • b) Aphorism 201
  • c) Aphorism 210
  • d) Aphorism 78

153.A patient having latent Psora is (H.A.Robert)

  • a) Alert active and quick
  • b) Anxious restless, hysterical
  • c) Depressed and melancholic
  • d) All the above

154.“Amelioration by unnatural elimination through the mucus surface” is a feature of (H.A.Robert)

  • a) Psora
  • b) Sycosis
  • c) Syphilis
  • d) None of the above

155.If a patient suffering from particular disease is attacked by a stronger and dissimilar disease, then which of the following does not happen (Organon. Hahnemann)

  • a) The former disease is cured
  • b) The latter cannot enter body
  • c) The patient is cured both diseases
  • d)  All the above

156.As per Boenninghausen concept, the term QUID pertains to

  • a) Nature and peculiarity of disease
  • b) Personality of the patient
  • c) Cause of the disease
  • d) Modalities

157.In his material medica Prof.Cullen explained that the curative property of  Peruvian bark in the treatment of intermittent fever, was done due to

  • a) Insipid taste
  • b) Tonic effect in the stomach
  • c)  Similarity between the symptoms of intermittent fever and the effect of juice of Peruvian bark on healthy human beings
  • d) None of the above

158.One of the following is not applicable to idiosyncrasy

  • a) Peculiar physical constitution
  • b) A disease state
  • c) Posses a disposition to be affected by certain things
  • d) None of the above

159.To remove a disease in the living organism, a medicinal force is required, which must satisfy the conditions like

  • a) Superior in strength
  • b) Similar in manifestation
  • c) Different in kind
  • d) All the above

160.In sudden poisoning, where imminent death allow no time for the action of a homeopathic remedy, Hahnemann recommended use of antidotes, such as

  • a) Alkalies for mineral acids
  • b) Hep.s for metallic poisons
  • c) Coffee and camphor for opium poisoning

161.During drug proving, the symptoms of the primary action alone of the drugs are to be recorded, Except

  • a) Narcotics
  • b) Aphrodisiac
  • c) Astringents
  • d) Purgatives

162.After the administration of a remedy, if the patient exhibit full time amelioration with out any relief, then he requires (Kent’s philosophy)

  • a) Palliative treatment
  • b) Anti syphilitic medicine followed by anti psoric
  • c) A deep acting anti psoric
  • d) Anti sycotic medicine followed by anti psoric medicine

163.The requisite knowledge on the part of  a physician for being a true practitioner of the healing art, has been enunciated by Hahnemann in the doctrine part in Organon

  • a)  Aphorism 9
  • b)  Aphorism 26
  • c)  Aphorism 3
  • d)  Aphorism 59

164.A method  of curing a given disease by the same contagious principle that produces it, is called

  • a) Enantiopathy
  • b) Isopathy
  • c) Antipathy
  • d) Heteropathy

165.“There are two realms or words, the realms or world of cause and the realms or world of ultimates” this statement was made by

  • a) Dr.H.A.Robert
  • b) Dr.Stuart Close
  • c) Dr.C.Dunham
  • d) Dr.J.T.Kent

166.A symptom brought out by a prover occasionally and which has not been confirmed but verified by curing the sick people is called

  • a) First grade
  • b) Third grade
  • c) Second grade
  • d) None of the above

167.The reaction of the organism to external and internal influences according to Dr.H.A.Robert  is called as

  • a)  Immunity
  • b)  Resistance
  • c)  Sensitivity
  • d)  Susceptibility

168.The treatise captioned “ Samuel Hahnemann his life and work” in two volume has been complied by

  • a)  Richard Hughes
  • b)  Richard Hale
  • c)  Dudgeon R.E
  • d)  William Boerick

169.The most appropriate and efficacious time of administering the medicine in the case of intermittent fever is

  • a) Before the paroxysm
  • b) Immediately after the termination of paroxysm
  • c) 24 hour after the termination of paroxysm
  • d) Just before the next paroxysm

170.What is the word meaning of the couplet of words “Lege artis” by Hahnemann in the introduction of Organon

  • a) Enervating the body to death
  • b) Very opposite of what it should do
  • c) Away from act of employing medicine
  • d) Document or evidences

171.The word Organon was first used by

  • a)  Aristotle
  • b)  Hahnemann
  • c)  Lord bacon
  • d)  Hufeland

172.The only peculiar way to know the peculiar effects of medicines to administer experimentally to

  • a)  Animals
  • b)  Sick person
  • c)  Healthy persons
  • d)  Laboratory testing

173.The modus operandi of homeopathic medicine is explained in Organon in Aphorism

  • a) 25
  • b) 26
  • c) 27
  • d) 29

174.When one sided disease assume the shape of some affections more of  an external kind, it is distinguished by the name of

  • a) Disease proper
  • b) Local maladies
  • c) Iatrogenic disease
  • d) None of the above

175.A typical intermittent  disease, according to Hahnemann satisfy the following

  • a) A morbid state returning at tolerably fixed period
  • b) The feature which return are of unvarying character
  • c) The symptom disappear at an equally fixed period
  • d) All the above

176.Repertory of intermittent fever was published by

  • a)  H.C.Allen
  • b)  T.F.Allen
  • c)  W.A.Allen
  • d)  Minton

177.One of the following chapter in Boger’s repertory incorporates rubric – Apolexy

  • a)  Sensorium
  • b)  Head
  • c)  Sensation & Complaints
  • d)  Circulation

178.Whooping cough belongs to which chapter of Kent’s repertory

  • a)  Generalities
  • b)  Expectoration
  • c)  Chest
  • d)  Cough

179.The cross reference  given for ‘Activity desire for’ in Kent’s Repertory is

  • a)  Workaholic
  • b)  Laborious
  • c)  Busy
  • d)  Industrious

180.Gentry’s concordance repertory was published in the year

  • a) 1886
  • b) 1890
  • c) 1782
  • d) 1990

181.‘Hiccough’ belongs to one of the following sub chapters in Boger’s repertory

  • a) Stomach
  • b) Throat
  • c) Eructation
  • d) None of the above

182.‘Waterbrash’ belongs to one of the following sub chapters in Boger’s repertory

  • a) Eructation
  • b) Nausea
  • c) Mouth
  • d) Abdomen

183.‘Milky Urine’ in Kent’s repertory

  • a) Urine
  • b) Kidney
  • c) Bladder
  • d) Urethra

184.Kneer’s repertory is based on

  • a) Hering;s guiding symptom
  • b) Allen’s encyclopedia
  • c) Material medica pura
  • d) None of the above

185.Rubric ‘Goitre’ is found in which chapter of Kent’s repertory

  • a)  Generals
  • b)  External throat
  • c)  Internal throat
  • d)  Neck

186.In Kent’s repertory, rubric ‘jaundice’ is found in

  • a)  Abdomen
  • b)  General
  • c)  Skin
  • d)  Stomach

187.Pick one symptom among the following that occupy highest value in repertorisation according to Kentian approach

  • a) Weeping disposition
  • b) Poor memory
  • c) Delusions
  • d) Open air ameliorates

188.In Kent’s repertory the section Kidney is placed immediately after

  • a) Bladder
  • b) Prostate gland
  • c) Urethra
  • d) Urine

189.Boenninghausen’s TPB has…… medicines

  • a) 242
  • b) 342
  • c) 442
  • d) 252

190.Thirstless  with desire to drink can be found in Kent’s repertory under

  • a)  Mind
  • b)  Mouth
  • c)  Stomach
  • d)  Generalities

191.The number of sections in TPB

  • a)  33
  • b)  5
  • c)  7
  • d)  9

192.The doctrine of concomitants is the gift of

  • a)  Boenninaghausen
  • b)  William Boerick
  • c)  H.C.Allen
  • d)  C.M.Boger

193.The full name of C.M.Boger is

  • a) Christopher M Boger
  • b) Cyrus M Boger
  • c) Christian M Boger
  • d) Cyriac M Boger

194.Boenninghausen’s repertory of antipsorics with the preface by Hahnemann was published in the year

  • a) 1890
  • b) 1790
  • c) 1835
  • d) 1832

195.One of the following chapters in Boger’s repertory contains the rubric ‘illusion,auditory, voices etc’

  • a) Mind
  • b) Sensation & complaints
  • c) Ears
  • d) Sensorium

196.Repertory is useful

  • a) As a reference book
  • b) To find out group of similar medicines
  • c)  Helps in the study of material medica
  • d) All the above

197.In Kent’s repertory ‘appetite wanting’ is found in

  • a)  Stomach
  • b)  Abdomen
  • c)  Generalities
  • d)  Mind

198.T.F.Allen’s symptom register published in the year

  • a) 1885
  • b) 1882
  • c) 1880
  • d) 1883

199.‘Anthrophobia’ belongs to one of the following in Boger’s repertory

  • a) Mind
  • b) Sensation
  • c) Dream
  • d) Vertigo

200.In Kents’ repertory, the rubric talking sleep in is found in chapter

  • a) Generalities
  • b) Sleep
  • c) Mind
  • d) Mouth
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