Kerala PSC Homeopathy Tutor Question Paper October 2011

  1. The question paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four versions of question booklets with question booklet alpha code viz. A, B, C & D.The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing sheet of the question booklet.
  2. The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in your seating position in the Examination Hall.
  3. If you get .. question booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha code in the seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator  IMMEDIATELY
  4. The Question Booklet Serial Number is printed on the top right margin of the facing sheet. If your question booklet is un-numbered, please get it replaced by new question booklet with same alpha code.
  5. Darken completely the appropriate Question Booklet Alpha Code Bubble in Part `B’ of the Answer Sheet.
  6. The question booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should not open the question booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.
  7. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the candidate should check that the question booklet supplied to him contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The question booklet does not have unprinted or torn or missing pages and if so he/she should bring it to the notice of the Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same alpha code. This is most important.
  8. A blank sheet of paper is attached to the question booklet. This may be used for rough work.
  9. Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet before marking your answers.
  10. Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct answer. Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number using Blue or Black Ball-Point Pen in the OMR answer sheet.
  11. Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.
  12. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and without handing over his/her Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure that the Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and that the Invigilator has affixed his/her signature in the space provided.
  13. Strict compliance of instructions is essential. Any malpractice or attempt to commit any kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the disqualification of the candidate. 

Question Booklet Alpha Code : D

Total No. of questions: 100               Time: 75 Minutes             Maximum: 100 Marks

1. Bence-jones protein in urine is characteristic of the following conditions, EXCEPT:
(A) Multiple myeloma        (B) Osteosarcoma
(C) Lymphosarcoma          (D) Hodgkin’s disease

2. Which of the following does not elevate serum glucose
(A) Vasopressin                    (B)  Thyroxine
(C) Glucagone                      (D) Cortisol

3. Exciting or maintaining causes are otherwise known as :
(A) Prima causa morbid     (B) Fundamental Cause
(C) Morbid phenomena     (D) Causa occasianalis

4. Natural morbid stimuli affect the health of man
(A) Unconditionally            (B) Conditionally
(C) Both (A) and (B)           (D) None

5. According to Hahnemann  which is the most deplorable and most incurable disease?
(A) Drug diseases
(B) Acute diseases
(C) Inappropriately named chronic diseases
(D) Miasmatic diseases

6. In the search for a homoeopathic specific medicine which symptoms are given primary importanc
(A) Pathological  symptom                (B) Basic  symptoms
(C) Characteristic symptoms            (D) All the above

7. Administration of a partially similar (imperfect) medicine may produce:
(A) Accessory symptom                    (B) Lessor accessory symptom
(C) Fatal symptom                              (D) Pathological symptom

8.True intermittent fevers belong to the class of :
(A) Syphilis                           (B) Sycosis
(C) Pseudo-psora                 (D) Psora

9. Hahnemann suggested repeating the doses of selected medicines in definite intervals in
(A) Lesser writings                               (B) Fragmenta de viribus
(C) Sixth edition of Organon             (D) Fifth edition of Organon

10. Too short relief of symptoms in chronic diseases after the administration of the similar medicine indicates:
(A) Remedy was only a superficial one
(B) There are structural changes, and organs are being destroyed
(C) The disease was incurable, and the anti-psoric given was too deep
(D) The remedy must be let alone

11.Dispensing alcohol has a concentration of :
(A) 75%                 (B) 88%
(C) 90%                 (D) 95%

12. The art of preparing real medicines is called:
(A) Pharmacology               (B) Pharmacognosy
(C) Pharmacopraxy            (D) Pharmacopallaxyl

13. In the preparation of mother tinctures from dried plants, use:
(A) 5 times its weight of alcohol
(B) Double the weight of alcohol
(C) 2 parts juice and 9 parts of alcohol
(D) Equal parts of juice and alcohol

14.Decimal scale of potency was introduced by:
(A) Hahnemann                  (B) Finke
(C) Korsakoff                       (D) Constantine Herring

15.Final standard decided by Hahnemann regarding the number of strokes for centesimal scale of potentisation is :
(A) 2 strokes                         (B) 10 strokes
(C) 50 strokes                       (D) 100 strokes

16.Following drugs are derived from Apocyanacea family, EXCEPT
(A) Caladium                       (B) Oleander
(C) Vinca minor                   (D) Strophanthus

17.Which of the following does not belong to the class Arachnida?
(A) Theridion                        (B) Mygale
(C) Tarentula                        (D) Mephitis

18.Which is not a Sarcode?
(A) Adranaline                     (B) Thyroidine
(G) Lyssin                              (D) Cholesterine

19.”Feels complaints more when thinking about them” This symptom is present in the following medicines, EXCEPT
(A) Calcarea phos               (B) Camphora
(C) Helonias                         (D) Oxalic acid

20.Emaciation of upper part of the body is seen in:
((A) Lycopodium                  (B) Sanicula
(C) Iodum                             (D) Abrotanum

21.In haemorrhage, Acetic acid follows well after:
(A) Digitalis                           (B) Phosphorus
(C) Cinchona                        (D) Secale cor

22.Which of the following is called “The Aconite of chronic diseases”?
(A) Sabadilla                        (B) Ignatia
(C) Arsenic alb                     (D) Alumina

23.”In membranous and diptheritic cough, much rattling of mucus during cough, but no choking. Sounds loose, but no expectoration “This is true of :
(A) Bromium                        (B) Drosera
(C) Iodum                             (D) Lachesis

24.”What Pulsatilla is at puberty …….. is at the climacteric?
( A) Lachesis                         (B) Sepia
(C) Graphites                        (D) Medorrhinum

25. Sweat on the face on a small spot, only while eating:
(A) Anacardium                   (B) Ignatia
(C) Silicea                              (D) Veratrum alb

26.”Hears better when in a noise; when riding in a carriage or car, when there is a rumbling sound”. This is true of :
(A) Ignatia                            (B)Hepar sulph
(C) Nux vomica                  (D) Graphites

27.Common retrogressive changes include all  EXCEPT
(A) Atrophy                          (B) Hypoplasia
(C) Degeneration                 (D) Necrosis

28. Farunculosis is caused by infect ion with :
(A) Streptococci                   (B) Pseudomonas
(C) Staphylococci                (D) All the above

29. Diptheria is mainly a disease of children in the age group of
(A) 6 – 9 years                       (B)1 – 3 years
(C) 9 – 12 years                  (D) 3 – 6 years

30.Most frequently encountered organism in Gas gangrene is:
(A) Clostridium Welchi         (B) Clostridium sporogenes
(C) Clostridium. Histolitica (D) Clostridium septicum

31.Caseous necrosis is a characteristic feature of  :
(A) Fatty liver                                       (B) Baciliary dysentery
(C)Nasopharyngeal diphtheria         (D) Tuberculosis

32. Potassium deficiency is associated with:
(A) Severe muscular weakness         (B) Dental caries
(C) Atrophy of muscles                      (D) Capillary bleeding

33.Germ cell tumors are derived from:
(A) Epithelial cells                                (B) Mesenchymal cells
(C) Pluripotent cells                             (D) Hemopoietic cells

34. Most usual Habitat of Entatnoeba hystolitica is :
(A) Small intestine                               (B) Large intestine
(C) Liver cells                                       (D) RE system

35.The following are true of an exudate, EXCEPT:
(A) Fibrinogen absent
(B) Clots quickly
(C) High protein content: more than 2 gm/ml
(D) Specific gravity above 1. 018

36.Magistrate’s inquest is done in cases of :
(A) Death in police custody               (B) Death due to police firing
(C) Exhumation                                   (D) All the above

37.The following are true of Dying declaration, EXCEPT:
(A) Executive magistrate is the authority to record
(B) The doctor can record the declaration in the presence of two witnesses
(C) An oath is to be administered before recording the declaration
(D) If the declarant survives, the declaration is not admitted, but has corroborative value

38.Which is true of an incised wound?
(A) Edges are always inverted
(B) Edges  are free from contusions and abrasions
(C) Width is less than the edge of the weapon
(D) Wounds are shallower at the beginning

39. In criminal cases, the doctor who appears as witness in the court cannot claim:
(A) Conduct money                            (B) Conveyance charges
(C) Daily allowance                            (D) A11 the above

40.Medico-legal report is an example of :
(A) Direct evidence                              (B) Documentary evidence
(C)Circumstantial evidence               (D) Hearsay evidence

41. In properly performed judicial hanging, death occurs due to
(A) Asphyxia
(B) Atrial fibrillation
(C) Fracture-dislocation of upper cervical vertebrae
(D) Cerebral anoxia

42. After death, bone decomposition starts in
(A) 3 – 10 years                    (B) 1 – 2 years
(C) 15 – 20 years                  (D) 10 – 15 years

43.Fatal dose of Nitric acid poison is :
(A) 1-5 ml              (B) 5-10 ml
(C) 15-20 ml         (D) 10-15 ml

44.Very high ESR, often exceeding 100 mm/hr is commonly found in the following conditions, EXCEPT:
(A) Rheumatoid arthritis                    (B)SLE
(C) Osteoarthritis ,                               (D) Infective arthritis

45. Which of the following is a hereditary connective tissue disease?
(A) Ehler’s-Danles svndrome             (B) Cushing’s syndrome
(C) Chrug-Strauss syndrome             (D) Behcet’s syndrome

46.In digital clubbing, the terminal portion of the phalanx and nail appears as a drumstick or a parrot beak in :
(A) Grade 4           (B) Grade
(C) Grade 2           (D) Grade 1

47.Chest radiograph showing bilateral, irregular and patchy shadows indicates :
(A) Pulmonary emphysema              (B) Acute bronchitis
(C) Allergic alveolitis                           (D) Bronchopneumonia

48. Nutritional megaloblastic anaemia is caused by:
(A) Folic acid deficiency                    (B)Iron deficiency
(C) Vitamin B12 deficiency               (D) All the above

49.The most common disorder among the group of plasma cell dyscrasias is
(A) Myelomatosis                                (B) Lymphomas
(C) Chronic granulocytic leukaemia (D)Agrarulocytosis

50. The following are the pre-renal causes of acute renal failure, EXCEPT:
(A) Hypovolemia                                                (B) Renal artery stenosis
(C) Acute tubular necrosis                 (D) Reduced cardiac output

51.A lesion beginning in the centre of the optic chiasma causes:
(A) Ipsilateral blindness                      (B) Bitemporal hemianopia
(C) Homonymous hemianopia        (D) Upper quandrananopia

52. Disease caused by immunologically mediated response initiated by gliadin present in  gluten ;
(A) Celiac disease                                (B) Tropical sprue
(G) Crohn’s disease                              (D) IBS

53. The following are congenital swellings, EXCEPT:
(A) Cystic hygroma                             (B)Meningocele
(C) Dermoid cyst                                 (D)Implantation dermoid

54.Which of the following has no regional lymph node enlargement?
(A) Malignant melanoma                  (B) Squamous cell carcinoma
(C) Basal cell carcinoma                    (D)Hodgkin’s disease

55. Erb’s paralysis is due to:
(A) Upper lesion of Brachial plexus                 (B)Long Thoracic nerve
(C) Lower lesion of Brachial plexus (D) Median nerve

56. Which bony swelling is traumatic in origin?
(A) Von-Recklinghausen’s disease                   (B)Chronic osteomyelitis
(G) Myositis ossificans                                       (D)Osteogenesis imperfecta

57.Which of the intracranial tumors is intracerebral ;
(A) Acoustic neuroma                        (B)Glioma
(C) Teretoma                                        (D) Retinoblastoma

58. Which of the following does not constitute the triad of Patterson-kelly Syndrome?
(A) Vomiting                                         (B) Dysphagia
(C) Glossitis                                           (D)Hypochromic anaemia

59.Post operative complications of subtotal thyroidectomy include all, EXCEPT:
(A) Tension haematoma                                    (B) Respiratory obstruction
(C) Recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis          (D) Dysphagia

60. Neurogenic cause of acute intestinal obstruction is :
(A) Meckel’s diverticulum                  (B)Hirsch run ‘s disease
(C) Intussusception                             (D) Volvulus

61. Most common cause of first trimester abortion:
(A) Chromosomal abnormalities
(B) Syphilis
(C) Rh Isoimmunisation
(D) Cervical incompetence

62.`Peg’ cells are seen in:
(A) Vagina                            (B) Vulva
(C)Ovary                               (D) Fallopian tubes

63. Serum FSH level is raised in:
(A) Sheehan’s syndrome
(B) Woman using Combined oral contraceptive pills
(C) Post menopausal women
(D)Meig’s syndrome

64.An individual has maximum number of oocytes at:
(A) 20 weeks of gestation .                (B) Birth ;
(C) Puberty                                           (D) 20 – 22 years

65.The peak level of 17 B estradiol during each ovarian cycle :
(A) 50 – l00 pg/ml                               (B) 100 – 150 pg/ml
(C) 200 – 250 pg/ml                             (D) 300 – 400 pg/ml

66. Chromosomal pattern of Swyer’s syndrome:
(A) 45XO                               (B) 46XY
(C) 46XX                              (D) 47XXX

67.Schauta operation is done for :
(A) Ca Endometrium          (B) Ca Cervix
(C) Ca Vagina                      (D) Ca Vulva

68. The following are true of the mechanism of labor in breech presentation, EXCEPT:
(A) Compaction                                   (B) Internal rotation
(C) Extension                                       (D) Lateroflexion

69. Daily requirement of Vitamin D in children and infants:
(A) 100 IU                             (B) 200 IU
(C) 400 IU                             (D) 300 IU

70.Incubation period of H1N1 influenza is:
(A) 2 – 3 days                        (B) 2- 3 weeks
(C) 8 – 14 days                     (D) 3 – 4 weeks

71.”Action that halts the progress of a disease at its incipient stage and prevents complications” belongs to the level of
(A) Primordial prevention                  (B) Primary prevention
(C) Secondary prevention                  (D) Tertiary prevention

72. The following are true of a cohort study, EXCEPT:
(A) Cohorts are identified prior to the appearance of the disease under investigation
(B) It is otherwise called a prospective study
(C) Basic approach is to work from Cause to Effect
(D) Basic approach is to work from

73. Vision 2020 is an initiative to:
(A) Promote National Rural Health Programme
(B) Reduce avoidable blindness .
(C) Select and train ASHAs
(D) Promote Reproductive and child health programme

74. Which of the following is a third generation IUD?
(A) CU-T 380 A                   (B) ML-CU-375
(C) ML-CU 250                   (D) Progestastert

75. Which of the following are micronutrients?
(A) Carbohydrates              (B) Vitamins and minerals
(C) Proteins                           (D) Fats

76. Recommended maximum limit of concentration of Arsenic in drinking water is :’
(A)0.01 mg/lit                       (B) 0.005 mg/lit
(C) 0.003 mg/lit                    (D) 0.07 mg/lit

77. Who is known as the Father of Repertory?
(A) Hahnemann                  (B) Boenninghausen
(C) Kent                                 (D) LiPPe

78. In which Repertory, Nosodes are well represented:
(A) Boger                               (B) Kneer
(C) Kent                                 (D) None of the above

79. Which repertory is based on the concept of Particulars to Generals?
(A) Therapeutic pocketbook by Boenninghausen
(B) Repertory of Homeopathic material medica by Kent
(C) Lippe’s Repertory
(D) Synthetic Repertory by Barthel and Klunker

80.Which is the first card repertory?
(A) Kishor’s card repertory                 (B) Sankaran’s card repertory
(C) William Jefferson’s card repertory             (D) Boger’s card repertory

81.Doctrine of Pathological Generals was introduced by:
(A) Barthel                            (B) Boenninghausen
(C)Boericke                          (D) Boger

82.In Boenninghausen’s Therapeutic book, the rubric VERTIGO is given under the section:
(A) Mind – Intellects            (B) External Head
(C) Internal Head                                (D) Sensations

83. In Boenninghausen’s Characteristics and Repertory by Boger, the rubric HYDROPHOBIA appears in the section :
(A) Sensorium                                      (B) Mind
(C) Sensations and complaints         (D) Conditions in General

84. In Kent’s Repertory, the THREE mark medicine for lumpy lochia is:
(A) Carbolic acid                                 (B) Pyrogen
(C) Kreosote                                         (D) Secale cor

85. Carpel tunnel transports the following structures, EXCEPT:
(A) Flexor digitorum profundus        (B) Flexor Pollicis longus
(C) Ulnar nerve                                    (D) Median nerve

86.’Foot-drop’ results from the injury to:
(A) Deep peroneal nerve                                    (B) Superficial peroneal nerve
(C) Deep branch of lateral plantar nerve        (D) Medial plantar nerve

87. Following are the anterior relations of Right kidney, EXCEPT:
(A) Liver                                (B) Diaphram
(G) Ascending colon            (D) Duodenum

88. Pouch of Douglas is positioned between:
(A) Rectum and Bladder                    (B) Bladder and Uterus
(C) Bladder and pubic symphysis    (D) Rectum and Uterus

89. Thickest cutaneous nerve in the human body is :
(A) Greater occipital nerve                                 (B) Trigeminal nerve
(C) Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh            (D) Greater auricular nerve

90. Components of circle of Willis are all, EXCEPT:
(A) Anterior cerebral arteries             (B)          Posterior cerebral arteries
(C) Internal carotid arteries               (D)          Middle cerebral arteries

91.The -first endocrine gland of the body to develop:
(A) Thymus                          (B) Thyroid
(C) Pituitary                          (D) Parathyroid

92.Length of the Thoracic duct in adults is :
(A) 15-20 cm                        (B) 26-30 cm
(C) 38-45 tm                         (D) 51-56 cm

93.The following are the structures in the posterior mediastinum, EXCEPT:
(A) Oesophagus                   (B) Thoracic duct
(C) Azygos vein                   (D) Heart

94. The stage of mitotic cell division in which two chromatids are farmed by longitudinal splitting of each chromosome:
(A) Prophase                         (B) Metaphase
(C) Anaphase                       (D) Telophase

95.Sarcolemma is the cell wall of the:
(A) Muscle fibre                   (B) Neurone
(C) Usteoblast                      (D) F’ibroblast

96.- Which of the following is an essential amino acid?
(A) Glycene                           (B) Alanine
(C) Valine                              (D) Serine

97.Coagulation of blood is the property of
(A) Plasma                            (B) Red cells
(C) White cells                      (D) All the above

98. In which derivative of haemoglobin, iron remains in the ferric form?
(A) Oxyhaemoglobin          (B) Carbohaemoglobin
(C) Sulph-haemoglobin      (D) Methaemoglobin

99. Volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration:
(A) Inspiratory capacity     (B) Functional residual capacity
(C) Residual volume           (D) Expiratory volume

100. Following are true of Liver, EXCEPT:
(A) Synthesis of immunoglobulin     (B) Synthesis of  Phospholipids
(C) Synthesis of Bile                           (D) Storage of  Fat

Answer Key prepared by SIMI LIMA team

1 .B 21.C 41.C 61.A 81.D
2. A 22.D 42.A 62.D 82.A
3. D 23.A 43.D 63.C 83.B,C
4. B 24.C 44.C 64.A 84.C
5. A 25.B 45.A 65.D 85.C
6. C 26.D 46.B 66.B 86.A
7. A 27.D 47.D 67.A 87.B
8. D 28.C 48.C 68. 88.D
9. C 29.B 49.A 69.C 89.A
10.B 30.A 50.C 70.A 90.D
11.B 31.D 51.B 71.C 91.B
12.C 32.A 52.A 72.D 92.C
13.A 33.C 53.D 73.B 93.D
14.D 34.B 54.C 74.D 94.C
15.B 35.A 55.A 75.B 95.A
16.A 36.D 56.C 76.A 96.C
17.D 37.C 57.B 77.B 97.A
18.C 38.B 58.A 78.D 98.D
19.B 39.A 59.X 79.A 99.C
20.A 40.B 60.B 80.C 100.A

Download answerkey published by KPSC for all version
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1 Comment

  1. Qn. 9. The published key is correct.

    Ref. § 246 (5th edition) : “… if this minutest yet powerful dose of the best selected medicine be repeated at suitable intervals,…”

    Ref. § 246 (6th edition) : “… that experience has taught as the most suitable in definite intervals,… ”

    Qn. 15 Hahnemann adopted 2 succussions instead of 10.

    So the published key seems to be incorrect.

    Ref. § 270 – footnote1 (5th Edition) : ” In order to maintain a fixed and measured standard for developing the power of liquid medicines, multiplied experience and careful observation have led me to adopt two succussions for each phial, in preference to the greater number formerly employed (by which the medicines were too highly potentized).

    Also refer § 287 – footnote2 (5th Edition) : “The higher we carry the attenuation accompanied by dynamization (by two succussion strokes),…”

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