Kerala PSC Homeopathy Materia Medica Tutor Exam 1991

Question Paper of  Kerala Public Service Commission Tutor in Materia Medica Examinations 1991
Maximum:100marks Time : 2 hrs only

1.Mazger did an experiment with cimicifuga in 1951 and 1953 with 17 persons of whom 14 women physicians. Write the modalities and sphere of action of this drug on its reproving. (5 marks)

2.The great “thirstless’ pulsatilla patients are thirsty on three occasions. What are the occasions ? (3 marks)

3. Write two drugs each to .the following.

  • (a) Cough on brushing the teeth.
  • (b) Difficult respiration > by eating. (4 marks)

4. Give one word answer:

  • (a) “ltching of the skin worse after coition “
  • (b) “ Dreaming of skeleton.”
  • (C) What is “ Apioum virus “
  • (4) A drug having clock like modality.
  • (e) ‘ Better by thinking” (5 marks)

5. Describe the disease causation in co1ocynth. Write it’s drug relationship.(4 marks)

6. Write three sentences for each drug:. ( 5 marks)
Mental symptoms of Benzoic acid and cyclamen

7. Write the most appropriate drug:

  • (a) Itching appears each year in a patient having headache that alternate with lumbago.
  • (b) Toothache relieved by opening the mouth and drawing in cold air.
  • (c) Cannot. bear to be touched : Start touched ever so lightly especially on the feet.
  • (d) Complementary and follow up drug to Rhustox in injury.
  • (e) Exfoliation of the skin during full and realmoon (5 marks)

8. Write short notes on dipsomania. The commonly used drugs, potency and repetition are also to be mentioned.         10 Marks

9. What are the rules to be followed in a case of Ars alb in different disease conditions in different potency? (5Marks)

10. What is the drug scientifically proved and found to be effective for AIDS at Prinston University in America ? What is the name the Scientist?  ( 2 marks)

11. Differentiate a Cyclamen menses with Zinc. met. (5 marks)

12. Compare and contrast the following:—

  • (a) Cough of cup met and stannum met.
  • (b) Skin symptoms of croton tig and thüja.           (10 marks)

13 What is the meaning of desire to be magnetized ? Write three appropriate drugs.(5 marks)

14. Give the indications of the following :

  • (a) Raphanus in mental symptoms,
  • (b) Staphisagria in sexual passion.
  • (c) Kali carb in rheumatism.
  • (d) Sulphur iodide in skin disease.
  • (e) Myopic astigmatism of Lil.tig. (20 marks)

15 How will you prescribe the following by giving sufficient reasons —

  • (a) Ledum and Hypericum in injuly.
  • (b) Mezerium and Petroleum in skin disease. (12 marks)
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Kerala PSC Tutor in Case taking & Repertory 2004

Question Paper of   Kerala Public Service Commission Lecturer in Repertory Exam 2004
Maximum : 100 marks       Time : 1 hour and 15 minutes
B series

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
1. The question paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four versions of question booklets with question booklet alpha code viz. A, B, C & D.
2. The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing sheet of the question booklet.
3. The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in the address list intended for obtaining your signature and also in the seat allotted to you in the Examination Hall.
4. If you get a question booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha code in die address list/seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator IMMEDIATELY
5. The Question Booklet Serial number is printed on the top right margin of the facing sheet. If your question booklet is unnumbered, please get it replaced by new question booklet with same alpha code.
6. Write the question booklet alpha code in the space provided in Part B of the answer sheet and darken the appropriate bubble.
7. The question booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should not open the question booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.
8. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the. candidate should check that the question booklet supplied to him contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The question booklet does not have imprinted or torn or missing pages and if so he/she should bring it to the notice of the Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same alpha code. This is most important.
9. Do not write or mark anything on your question booklet. A separate paper will be provided for rough work. .
10. Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet before marking your answers.
11. Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct answer. Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number using Blue or Black Ball-Point Pen in the OMR answer sheet.
12. Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted.No negative mark for unattended questions.
13. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and without handing over his/her Answer Sheet and Question Booklet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure that the Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and that the Invigilator has affixed his/her signature in the space provided.
14. Strict compliance of instructions is essential Any malpractice or attempt to commit any kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the summary disqualification of the candidate.

1. Pain as if bones were all torn to pieces is the particular of:

  • (A) Cimicimga.   (B) Colocynthis,
  • (C) Ipecac.        (D) Mag. Phos.

2. Nit. acid is complementary to:

  • (A) Arsenic.   (B) Caladium.
  • (C) Both. –     (D) None of the above.

3. “Pains are drawing, tearing, erratic rapidly shifting from one part to another’ is in

  • (A) Kali bich.     (B) Lac. can.
  • (C) Pulsatilla.    (D) All of the above.

4. ‘Kali bich’ is antidotes to:

  • (A) Arsenic alb.    (B) Lachesis.
  • (C) Pulsatilla.      (D) All of the above.

5. ‘Acridity and putridity’ of all the discharges from mucus membrane is the keynote symptom of:

  • (A) Kreosotum.    (B) Lachesis.
  • (C) Nit. Arid.         (D) All of the above.

6. Perspiration, smelling like honey is the characteristic of:

  • (A) Calcareacarb. (B) Thuja.
  • (C) Both.             (D) None of the above.

7. First edition of Organon of medicine was published in

  • (A) 1805. . .    (B) 1810.
  • (C) 1817.        (D) 1828.

8. Dr. Samuel Hahnemann has given idea about case taking in the Aphorism No :

  • (A) Aphorism 1-70.       (B) Aphorism 71-82.
  • (C) Aphorism 83-104.    (D) Aphorism 105-145.

9. Number of aphorism in fifth edition of Organon is :

  • (A) 320.     (B) 294.
  • (C) 291.     (D) 318.

10. Who gave the idea of complete symptom ?

  • (A) Dr. S. Hahnemann.    (B) Dr. Boenninghausen.
  • (C) Dr. J.T.Kent.             (D) Dr. Stuart Close.

11. General symptoms are those symptoms :

  • (A) Which refer to the person as a whole.    (B) Which are uncommon in nature.
  • (C) Which are common in nature.               (D) All of the above.

12. Concomitant symptoms:

  • (A) Have no value for disease diagnosis    (B) Very important for individualizing the patient.
  • (C) Important for homoeopathic therapeutic diagnosis.   (D) All of the above.

13. What is ‘Causa occasionalis’ ?

  • (A) Exciting cause     (B) Maintaining cause.
  • (C) Both.                   (D) None of the above.

14. What is the main object of Homoeopathic case taking ?

  • (A) Diagnosis     (B) Individualization.
  • (C) Prognosis.    (D) All of the above.

15. What is the prognosis of third observation of Kent ?

  • (A) Good.            (B) Bad.
  • (C) Very Good.    (D) Very Bad.

16. ‘A full time amelioration of the symptoms, yet no special relief to the patient  is of Kent.

  • (A) Fifth,       (B) Sixth.
  • (C) Seventh.  (D) Ninth

17. The action of the medicine upon prover is the ————— observation of Kent:

  • (A) Tenth.        (B) Ninth. 
  • (C) Seventh.    (D) Sixth.

18. ‘Lecture on Homoeopathic philosophy’ by Dr. J.T. Kent was published in the year :

  • (A) 1870.     (B) 1897.
  • (C) 1900.     (D) 1921.

19. In which year Dr. Hahnemann wrote the book on ‘Medicine of Experience’ ?

  • (A) 1803.   (B) 1805
  • (C) 1810. . (D) 1819.

20. ‘An essay on a new principle for ascertaining the curative powers of Drugs’ was written in the year :

  • (A) 1790. (B) 1796.
  • (C) 1803. (D) 1810.

21. Author of the Repertory of Hering’s Guiding symptoms of our Materia Medica is :

  • (A) Calvin B Knerr.     (B) Clara B Knerr.
  • (C) Clavan B Knerr.    (D) Carol B Knerr.

22. A case history contains :

  • (A) Superscription  . (B) Inscription.
  • (C) Subscription.     (D) All of the above.

23. The following symptoms are observed on patients, but not on prover :

  • (A) Pathological.    (B) Toxicological.
  • (C) Clinical.           (D) None of the above.

24. Jahr published the Repertory in the year :

  • (A) 1805.    (B) 1835.
  • (C) 1833.     (D) 1840.

25. Gentry’s Repertory of Concordance was published in the year

  • (A) 1886.    (B) 1890.
  • (C) 1782.     (D) 1990.

26. Gentry’s Repertory of Concordance consists of volumes.

  • (A) Two.   (B) Five.
  • (C) Six.    (D) Eight.

27. ‘Repertory of Hemorrhoids’ was written by:

  • (A) Gentry.      (B) Kent.
  • (C) Guernsey. (D) Hering.

28. Repertory of ‘Fevers’ was published by:

  • (A) T.F. Alien.    (B) H.C. Alien.
  • (C) WA. Alien   . (D) Milton.

29. ‘C.M. Boger’s Synoptic Key with Repertory’ was published in the year:

  • (A) 1931.    (B) 1936.
  • (C) 1898.  (D) 1930.

30. In ‘Boenninghausen’s Therapeutic Pocket Book’ the gradation of medicines is :

  • (A) Four.     (B) Five.
  • (C) Three. . (D) Six.

31. In Kent’s Repertory ‘Urticaria’ is in chapter :

  • (A) Skin.            (B) Generalities.
  • (C) Extremities. (D) All of the above.

32. In Kent’s Repertory “Bubo’ is in chapter:

  • (A) Stomach.   (B) Abdomen.
  • (C) Skin.         (D) Genitalia, male.

33. In Kent’s Repertory ‘Lousiness’ belongs to chapter:

  • (A) Head.    (B) Generalities.
  • (C) Skin.    (D) None of the above.

34. In Kent’s Repertory ‘Empyema’ is in chapter:

  • (A) Abdomen.   (B) Stomach.
  • (C) Chest.        (D) Extremities.

35. In Kent’s Repertory for “Urine Sugar’ look in chapter:

  • (A) Generalities.   (B) Kidney.
  • (C) Urine.            (D) Bladder.

36. Rubric “Addisions disease’ in Kent’s Repertory is placed under:

  • (A) Bladder.   (B) Kidney.
  • (C) Ureter.     (D) Generalities.

37. In Kent’s method of repertorisation more importance is given to:

  • (A) Physical generals.    (B) Mental generals.
  • (C) Concomitance.         (D) Modalities.

38. In Boenninghausen’s Repertory rubric ‘Ecstasy’ is under:

  • (A) Abdomen. (B) Hunger and thirst.
  • (C) Intellect.    (D) Sensorium.

39. In Boenninghausen’s Repertory rubric ‘Impaired’ is under :

  • (A) Intellect. (B) Complaints.
  • (C) Head.     (D) Internal head.

40. Rubric ‘Cyanosis’ in Boenninghausen’s Repertory is under :

  • (A) Skin.            (B) Generalities.
  • (C) Sensations. (D) Complaints.

41. The word ‘Homoeopathy’ is derived from :

  • (A) German.   (B) Latin.
  • (C) French.     (D) Greek.

42. The word Organon is a derivation from:

  • (A) Latin.    (B) Greek.
  • (C) German. (D) None of the above.

43. ‘Novum Organum’ was written by :

  • (A) Hahnemann.               (B) Huges.
  • (C) Lord Francis Bacon.  (D) None of the above.

44. ‘Aude Sapere’ has originated from :

  • (A) Greek   . (B) German.
  • (C) Latin.     (D) None of the above.

45. What is the common name of Apocynum ?

  • (A) Honey bee.    (B) Indian hemp.
  • (C) Indian turnip. (D) None of the above.

46. Great pain throat, burning as if from coal of fire or a red-hot iron with dryness is in :

  • (A) Nit add.      (B) Lachesis.
  • (C) Phytolaca. (D) Belladonna.

47. ‘Chelidonium majus’ belongs to the family of:

  • (A) Cucurbitaceae.    (B) Liliaceae.
  • (C) Loganiaceae.    (D) Papaveraceae.

48. ‘Worm Seed* is the common name of:

  • (A) Chamomflla.    (B) Cina
  • (C) Cinchona.      (D) Drosera.

49. ‘Vertigo on seeing the flowing water’ is the characteristic of:

  • (A) Therridion.     (B) Coniummac.
  • (C) Ferrummet.    (D) All of the above.

50. Nose Bleeding when washing the face is marked feature of:

  • (A) Hamamelis.    (B) Belladonna.
  • (C) Phosphorus.   (D) Ammonium carb.

51. Vertigo when ascending is the marked feature of:

  • (A) Belladonna.  (B) Bryonia.
  • (C) Ars.alb.        (D) Cal. carb.

52. Toothache ameliorated by holding cold water in the mouth is marked in :

  • (A) Coffea.    (B) Belladonna.
  • (C) Aconite.  (D) None of the above.

53. Palpitation from least exertion is the marked feature of:

  • (A) Nat.mur.    (B) Lycopodium.
  • (C) Arg. nit.     (D) lodum.

54. Constipation even soft stool requires great straining is the marked feature of:

  • (A) Alumina. (B) Bryonia.
  • (C) Sulphur. (D) Nat.mur.

55. Leucorrhoea like white of egg especially after every urination is marked feature of:

  • (A) Ammonium mur.     (B) Sepia.
  • (C) Alumina.                (D) Kreosote

56. Irresistible desire to talk in Rhymes is the marked feature of:

  • (A) Thuja.            (B) Stramonium.
  • (C) Lachesis      . (D) Antimcrudum.

57. Hardness of hearing, relieved by riding in a carriage or train :

  • (A) Pulsatilla.      (B) Nat acid.
  • (C) Thuja.           (D) Capsicum.

58. Corns on soles of feet, which are very sensitive and painful:

  • (A) Ranunculus bulbosum        . (B) Sulphur.
  • (C) Thuja.                                  (D) Nat.mur.

59. Rashes on the body before menses is in :

  • (A) Colocynthis.   (B) Bryonia.
  • (C) Aconite.         (D) Dulcamara.

60. Mental symptom “feels that life is constant burden for him” is in :

  • (A) Ver.alb.         (B) Thuja.
  • (C) Aurummet.    (D) Sulphur.

61. In Boenninghausen’s Repertory ‘Dislocations’ is in chapter :

  • (A) Extremities.           ( B) Joints.
  • (C) Complaints.            (D) Sensations.

62. In Boenninghausen’s Repertory ‘Emaciation’ is in chapter:

  • (A) Generalities.     (B) Face.
  • (C) Sensations.      (D) None of the above.

63. For ‘Whooping cough’ refer Kent’s Repertory under chapter :

  • (A) Generalities.     (B) Expectoration.
  • (C) Chest.             (D) Cough.

64. Rubric “Lochia’ in Kent’s Repertory in:

  • (A) Uterus.           (B) Genitalia female.
  • (C) Generalities.   (D) Menstruation.

65. ‘Reeling’ in Kent’s Repertory is placed under:

  • (A) Head.       (B) Mind.
  • (C) Vertigo   . (D) None of the above.

66. ‘Astigmatism’ in Kent’s Repertory belongs to chapter:

  • (A) Vision.          (B) Eye.
  • (C) Generalities. (D) None of the above.

67. ‘Suppression of urine’ in Kent’s Repertory is placed under:

  • (A) Bladder.      (B) Ureter.
  • (C) Urethra.      (D) Kidney.

68. ‘Headache and diarrhea alternates’ is an example of:

  • (A) Common symptom.     (B) Pathological symptom.
  • (C) Associated symptom.  (D) Alternating symptom

69. ‘Rheumatism worse from motion’ is an example of:

  • (A) Uncommon symptom.     (B) Common symptom.
  • (C) Peculiar symptom.         (D) Keynote symptom.

70. Hahnemann attempted to prepare a Repertory known as :

  • (A) Fragmenta viribus.
  • (B) Fragmenta de Viribus Medica Mentorum Positivis.
  • (C) Repertorim Homoeopathrca.
  • (D) None of the above.

71. Author of Sensation as if is :

  • (A) Dr. Hahnemann.  (B) H.A. Roberts.
  • (C) W.A. Alien.         (D) Boenninghausen.

72. Systemic Alphabetical Repertory was published in 1848 by:

  • (A) Robin Murphy.   (B) Lippe.
  • (C) Clopar Muller.      (D) Jahr.

73. T.F. Alien’s Symptom Register was published in the year:

  • (A) 1885.      (B) 1882.
  • (C) 1880.      (D) 1925.

74. Analytical Repertory of Hering was published in :

  • (A) 1881. (B) 1825.
  • (C) 1790. (D) 1921.

75. Repertory of Modalities was published in the year 1880 by :

  • (A) Worcester.    (B) Kent.
  • (C) Lippe.           (D) Boricke.

76. Author of Repertory of Urinary Organs is :

  • (A) A.R. Morgan.      (B) W.C. Alien.
  • (C) Possart.             (D) Lippe.

77. Hydrocele belongs to the chapter in Kent’s Repertory :

  • (A) Generalities.    (B) Abdomen.
  • (C) Skin.              (D) None of the above.

78. In Kent’s Repertory rubric Exopthalmic goiter is placed at:

  • (A) Face.              (B) External throat.
  • (C) Internal throat. (D) Generalities.

79. In Boenninghausen’s Repertory “Haughtiness” is found in the chapter :

  • (A) Mind.           (B) Sensorium.
  • (C) Complaints. (D) Intellect.

80. In Boenninghausen’s Repertory “Photmania” is found in the chapter :

  • (A) Mind.      (B) Eyes.
  • (C) Intellect. (D) Vision.

81. Hahnemann died at the age of:

  • (A) Eighty one.    (B) Eighty five. .
  • (C) Eighty eight.   (D) Ninety seven.

82. Who has published Repertory of Anti Psoric ?

  • (A) Dr. Samuel Hahnemann. (B) Dr. J.T. Kent.
  • (C) Dr. Constantine Hering.   (D) Dr. Boenninghausen.

83. Total number of section in Kent’s repertory:

  • (A) 37.       (B) 07.
  • (C) 38      . (D) None of the above.

84. Total number of sections in Boenninghausen’s therapeutic pocket book”:

  • (A) 37.   (B) 07.
  • (C) 38.    (D) None of the above.

85. Total number of sections in Boger Boenninghausen’s characteristic Materia Medica and Repertory is:

  • (A) 37. . (B) 07.
  • (C) 38.   (D) None of the above.

86. Idea about Hydrogenoid Carbogenoid and Oxygenoid constitution was given by :

  • (A) Dr. Grauvogl.           (B) Dr. Adolph Lippe.
  • (C) Dr. Roger Morrison. (D) Dr. Pierce Smith.

87. Who has worked on the chapter relationship of remedies ?

  • (A) Dr. R.Gibson Miller.    (B) Dr. J.T. Kent.
  • (C) Dr. William Boericke. (D) None of the above.

88. Who is the editor of synthesis repertory ?

  • (A) Dr. Fredrick Schroyens.  (B) Dr. George Vithoulkas.
  • (C) Dr. Samuel Hahnemann. (D) Dr. Julian Winston.

89. The cause of disease action is from:

  • (A) Center to circumference. (B) Circumference of center.
  • (C) Below upwards-                 (D) None of the above.

90. Objective symptoms are the symptoms:

  • (A) Noted by relatives. (B) Noted by friends.
  • (C) Noted by physician. (D) All of the above.

91. Subjective symptoms are the symptoms, which are noted by:

  • (A) Patient.                  (B) Friends of patient.
  • (C) Relatives of patient. (D) Physician.

92. Rare symptoms are the symptoms :

  • (A) Which appear in every prover. (B) Appear on maximum prover.
  • (C) Appear only on few prover.     (D) Appear on fifty percent prover.

93. Most difficult task in a case is recording is to obtain :

  • (A) Common symptoms.   (B) Mental symptoms.
  • (C) Physical symptoms,    (D) Individualizing characteristic symptoms.

94. Object of a Homoeopathic case taking is :

  • (A) to get idea about common symptoms.
  • (B) to get idea about mental symptoms.
  • (C) to get idea about symptoms of body
  • (D) to obtain individual picture of the disease.

95. In which Aphorism, Dr. Samuel Hahnemann has given idea about Homoeopathic specific remedy?

  • (A) Aphorism No. 18     . (B) Aphorism No. 70.
  • (C) Aphorism No.71.       (D) Aphorism No. 147

96. Who amongst the following brought the analogy of complete symptom with location, sensation,concomitant and Modality ?

  • (A) Dr. J.T. Kent     . (B) Dr, Boenninghausen.
  • (C) H.A. Roberts    . (D) Dr. Kneer.

97. Total number of chapters in Knerr Repertory is :

  • (A) 38,      (B) 48.
  • (C) 47.      (D) 37.

98. Outwardly reflected picture of the internal essence of the diseases are :

  • (A) Objective symptoms.   (B) Subjective symptoms.
  • (C) Totality of symptoms.   (D) None of the above.

99. The one affect or modify a symptom is called :

  • (A) Aggravation.             (B) Amelioration.
  • (C) Causa occasionalis. (D) Modality.

100. Totality of symptom was introduced in Aphorism:

  • (A) Aphorism 2. – (B) Aphorism 5.
  • (C) Aphorism 7.   (D) Aphorism 20.

Download Answer Key :  http://www.homeobook.com/pdf/kpsc-tutor-repertory.pdf

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Kerala PSC Tutor in Social & Preventive Medicine Dec' 06

Question Paper of  Kerala Public Service Commission Tutor in Social & Preventive Medicine onducted in Dec 2006

Maximum: 100 marks       D series       Time: 1 hour and 15 minutes

1.Eradicate the disposition to worms

  • (A) Calcarea carb (B) Spigelia
  • (C) Cina                    (D) Sabadilla

2. Mumps complicating to orchitis and mastitis

  • (A) Rhustox (B) PulsatiUa
  • (C) Lachesis (D) Belladonna

3.If there is delayed resolution in pneumonia:

  • (A) Phosphorus (B) Kalicarb
  • (C) Lycopodium (D) None of the above

4.Important medicine for Weils disease

  • (A) Sulphur (B) Arsalb
  • (C) Lachesis (D) Phosphorus

5. Vertigo when turning the head:

  • (A) Conium mac (B) Nuxvomica
  • (C) Calcarea carb (D) Tabacuin

6. Medicine for angina pectoris:

  • (A) Bryonea       (B) Latro dectus mactans
  • (C) Gelsemium (D) Sulphur

7. For Locomotor Ataxia:

  • (A) Alumina (B) Nuxvomica
  • (C) Rhustox (D) Sulphur

8. For atherosclerosis to dissolve the calcareous deposits in the arteries:

  • (A) Cactus       (B) Adonis
  • (C) Crataegus (D) Naja

9. For Menieres disease:

  • (A) Nuxvomica (B) Tabacum
  • (C) Gelsemium (D) Chininum sulph

10. For chloasma

  • (A) Sulphur (B) Lachesis
  • (C Sepia        (D) None of the above

11. Pellagra is caused by: –

  • (A) Riboflavin deficiency (B) Niacin deficiency
  • (C) Both (A)and(B)  (D) None of the above

12. Vitamin B12 is:

  • (A Cyanocobalamin (B) Niacin
  • (C) Folic acid               (D) Pyridoxine

13. Body mass index (BMI) is:

  • (A) Weight in gram/(Height in cm (Height in cm)2   (B) Weight in Kg/ ht in cm)2
  • (C) Weight in Kg/(Height in meters)2                              (D) None of the above

14. Major criteria of Rheumatic fever is:

  • (A) Pancarditis (B) Arthralgia
  • (C) Fever             (D) Raised ESR

15. Whooping cough is caused by:

  • (A) Salmonella typhi (B) Bordetella pertussis
  • (C) Staphylococci       (D) Streptococci

16.In Rotavirus diarrhoea:

  • (A) No vomiting
  • (B) Vomiting occurs after diarrhoea
  • (C) Vomiting precedes diarrhoea
  • (D) Vomiting and diarrhoea occurs at a time

17. Risus sardonicus is a feature of:

  • (A) Mumps (B) Tetanus
  • (C) Syphilis (D) Chicken pox

18. AIDS is caused by:

  • (A) Human immuno deficiency virus (B) Papiloma virus
  • (C) RNA virus                                                (D) Rotavirus

19. Tuberculosis is caused by:

  • (A) AFB                                             (B) Alcohol fast bacilli
  • (C) Mycobacteriuin tuberculi  (D) Salmonella

20. Koplics spot is seen in:

  • (A) Rubella (B) Herpes zoster
  • (C) Measles (D) Meningitis

21.Ramsay-Hunt Syndrome is:

  • (A) Herpes of fifth nerve                   (B) Herpes of Seventh nerve
  • (C) Herpes of geniculate ganglion (D) None of the above

22. Mumps in adult male can cause: —

  • (A) Hydrocele (B) Sterility
  • (C) Orchitis       (D) None of the above

23. Australia antigen is pathognomonic to:

  • (A) HBV infection (B) HAV infection
  • (C) HCV infection (D) HAV and HCV infection

24.Poliomyelitis affects:

  • (A) Spinal cord
  • (B)Posterior horn cells
  • (C Anterior horn cell of spinal cord
  • (D) Both anterior and posterior horn cells of spinal cord

25.Dengue fever is transmitted by:

  • (A) Male aedes aegypti mosquitoes    (B) Anophilus mosquitoes
  • (C) Female aedes aegypti mosquitoes (D) Culex mosquitoes

26. Black water fever occurs in:

  • (A) Vivax malaria               (B) Ovale malaria
  • (C) Falciparum malaria – (D) Chronic falciparum malaria

27. The causative organism of chronic duodenal ulcer is:

  • (A) Salmonella (B) E.Coli
  • (C) Clostridiuni (D) Helicobacter pylon

28.Carcino embryonic antigen (CEA) is elevated in:

  • (A) Colomc cancer (B) Hepatoma
  • (C) Amoebiasis        (D) None of the above

29. Important cause of ascites in India is

  • (A) Malnutrition     (B) Anaemia
  • (C) Cardiac failure (D) Cirrhosis of liver

30. Normal level of bilirubin in the blood is

  • (A) 3 mg/100 ml (B) 0.5 to 1.0 mg/100 ml
  • (C) 2mg/l00ml    (D) None of the above

31. Urine does not contain bilirubin in:

  • (A) Obstructive Jaundice (B) Hepato cellular jaundice
  • (C) Both (A) and (B)            (D) Haemolytic jaundice

32. Alpha fetoprotein values above 2000 mg is diagnostic of:

  • (A) Carcinoma liver (B) Cirrhosis of liver
  • (C) Hepatic failure   (D) None of the above

33. Murphy’s sign is positive in:

  • (A) Acute cholecystitis (B) Chronic cholecystitis
  • (C) Acute appendicytis (D) None of the above

34. ERCP investigation is very useful in:

  • (A) Liver disease        (B) Kidney disease
  • (C) Pancreas disease (D) Spleen disease

35.Wilson’s disease is manifested as

  • (A) Ceruloplasmin deficiency (B) Copper deficiency
  • (C) Both (A) and (B)                      (D) None of the above

36.Cushing’s disease is caused by hyper secretion of:

  • (A) Thyroxin                          (B) Glucocorticoid
  • (C Adrenocorticotrophin (D) Growth hormone

37. Addison disease is:

  • (A) Primary Adrenocortical insufficiency (B) Adrenocortical hyper function
  • (C) Adrenal medulla hyperfunction             (D) None of the above

38.Seronegative arthritis is:

  • (A) Osteo arthritis            (B) Rheumatoid arthritis
  • (C) Rheumatic arthritis (D) Ankylosing spondylitis

39. Hallmark of Bronchial asthma is:

  • (A) Dyspnoea                   (B) Cough
  • (C) Expiratory wheeze (D) Cyanosis

40. Criteria for diagnosing tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is:

  • (A) High eosinophilic count(B) Asthma
  •  (C) Raised ESR                          (D)Absolute eosinophilic count above 2000/CMM in peripheral blood

41. Postural cough with large amount of foul smelling sputa is characteristic of:

  • (A) Chronic bronchitis (B) Bronchiectasis
  • (C) Emphysema              (D) Tuberculosis

42. Cause of microcytic hypochromic anaemia is:

  • (A) Iron deficiency (B) Folic acid deficiency
  • (C) Both(A)and(B)    (D) None of the above

43. Pacemaker of heart is:

  • (A) A.V. Node       (B) Right Atria
  • (C) Bundle of HIS (D) S.A. Node

44.Wide and fixed splitting of the second heart sound is present in:

  • (A) V.S.D. (B) A.S.D.
  • (C) P.D.A. (D) None of the above

45. Corrigans pulse is present in:

  • (A) M.S. (B) M.R.
  • (C) A.S. (D) A.R.

46. Dysdiadochokinesis is a feature of:

  • (A) UMNL                      (B) LMNL
  • (C) Cerebellar lesion (D) Extra pyramidal lesion

47. The triad of hypokinesia, tremor and rigidity occurs in:

  • (A) Epilepsy (B) Head injury
  • (C) Stroke (D) Parkinsonism

48. Post infective polyneuropathy is

  • (A) Guillain-Barre syndrome (B) Polio myelitis
  • (C) Cerebral palsy                       (D) None of the above

49. Auspitz’s sign is seen in:

  • (A) Eczema            (B) Psoriasis
  • (C) Lichen plains (D) Scabies

50. Commonest cause of Dementia is:

  • (A) Head injury (B) Stroke
  • (C) Old age           (D) Alzheimers disease

51. Cough from exposure to dry cold weather:

  • (A) Phosphorus (B) Bryonia
  • (C) Arsalb            (D) Aconite

52. Intense thirst in dropsy but no thirst in fever:

  • (A) Acetic acid (B) Belladonna
  • (C) Bryonia        (D) Sulphur

58. Dyspnoea worse in damp wet rainy weather

  • (A) Arsalb               (B) Sulphur
  • (C) Natrum sulph (D) Heparsulph

54. Cough aggravation lying on left side:

  • (A) Bryonia         (B) Heparsulph
  • (C) Phosphorus (D) Natmur

55. Patient fears that the heart will stop if he moves

  • (A) Gelsemium (B) Digitalis
  • (C) Cactus           (D) Apis

56. Cough persists alter measles:

  • (A) Belladonna (B) Aconite
  • (C) Cina                (D) Sanguinaria

57 Sensation as if the heart were grasped with an iron hand:

  • (A) Sulphur (B) Kalmia
  • (C) Cactus    (D) Spigelia

58.Vesicular eruptions along the course of the nerve:

  • (A) Ranunculus Bulbosus (B) Rhustox
  • (C) Mezereum                         (D) Sulphur

59. Sleeplessness from good news:

  • (A) Ignatia       (B) Coffea
  • (C) Passiflora  (D) Pulsatilla

60. In whooping cough for ‘Minute Gun? cough:

  • (A) Drosera                      (B) Cuprum met
  • (C) Corallium rubrum (D) Coccus cacti

To achieve the clinical goal for the prevention of CHD, a total cholesterol HDL ratio is

  • (A) less than 9.2 (B) greater than 4.5
  • (C) less than 3.5 (D) less than 5.3

62. Modifiable risk factors of hypertension are the following, except:

  • (A) Dietary fibre (B) Obesity
  • (C) Salt intake      (D) Genetic factors

63.Impaired glucose tolerance test, 2 hours after glucose load in venous blood is in between:

  • (A) 140-200 mg/dl (B)120-180 mgldl
  • (C) 160-220 mg/dl (D) 160-200 mg/dl

64. Prevention strategies are very important in case of:

  • (A) Burns (B) Drowning
  • (C Injuries (D) Falls

65. The most important immediate newborn care is:

  • (A) Clearing the airway (B) Care of eyes
  • (C) Care of the cord        (D) Care of skin

66. During pregnancy weight gain by an average normal healthy woman is:

  • (At 12kg (B) 16kg
  • (C) 10kg (D) 11kg

67. Universal Immunization Programme was stared in India:

  • (A) 1974 (B) 1990
  • (C) 1985 (D) 2000

68. Which is the medical complication of safe period?

  • (A) Hypertension                    (B) Ectopic pregnancy
  • (C) Irregular menstruation (D) None of the above

69. A nation wide family planning prog started in India:

  • (A) 1970 (B) 1962
  • (C) 1986 (D) 1952

70.The salient features of population growth in which the global total fertility rates 2002 is:

  • (A) 5.2 (B) 4
  • (C) 1.8 (D) 2.8

71. What is the dietary allowance of vitamin Bi during pregnancy?

  • (A) 1.8 mcg (B) 2 mcg
  • (C) 0.2 mcg (D) 1.5 mcg

72. The following live vaccines can produce effective immunity with a single dose except:

  • (A) Oral polio (B) Measles
  • (C) Influenza (D) Plague

73. Which of the following are the natural sources of invisible fats?

  • (A) Cooking oils             (B) Ghee and butter
  • (C) Cereals and pulses (D) Milk and milk products

74.Following are the important sources of folate except:

  • (A) Liver      (B) Meat
  • (C) )Orange (D) Cereals

75.Following are the deficiency states associated with Vitamin B12 except:

  • (A) Infertility
  • (B) Pernicious anaemia
  • (C) Demyellnating neurological lesion in spinal cord
  • (D) None of the above

76. IDD programme is related to:

  • (A) Balanced diet (B) Goitre
  • (C) AIDS                  (D) Welfare programmes

77. The recommended level of fluoride in the drinking water for the prevention of fluorine deficiency is

  • (A) 0.9 to 2 mg/litre (B) 0.5 to 0.8 mg/litre
  • (C) .2 to .6 mg/litre   (D) None of the above

78. Which is the prime source of water?

  • (A) Surface water (B) Wells
  • (C) Sea water         (D) Rain water

79. Which of the following is related to methaemoglobinaemia?

  • (A) High nitrate             (B) High fluorides
  • (C) None of the above (D) All of the above

80.The minimum capacity of a septic tank is:

  • (A) 700 gallons (B) 900 gallons
  • (C) 800 gallons (D) 500 gallons

81. Name of the first chemical coagulant that is used in rapid sand fillers:

  • (A) Bleaching powder (B) Chlorine gas
  • (C) Alum                           (D) None of the above

82. The amount of residual chlorine at the end of one hour contact:

  • (A) 0.08 mg/litre (B) 0.06 mg/litre
  • (C) 0.5 mg/litre    (D) 0.09 mg/litre

83.Which one is the most insanitary method of disposal of human excreta?

  • (A) Burial     (B) Manure pits
  • (C Dumping (D) None of the above

84.Following elements which contributes herd immunity except:

  • (A) Immunization of the herd
  • (B) Herd structure
  • (C) Occurrence of clinical and subclinical infection in the herd
  • (D) None of the above

85.Most of the vaccines stored upto 5 weeks if the refrigerator temperature is kept between:

  • (A) 6—10 degree C (B) —20 degree C
  • (C) 4 & 8 Degree      (D) 5&9degreeC

86. The important toxoid is:

  • (A) Pertussis       (B) Plague
  • (C) KFD vaccine (D) Tetanus

87.Which immunoglobulin is found relatively in large quantities in body secretions?

  • (A) IgE (B)
  • (C) 1gM (D) IgD

88. The most important diagnostic clinical sign of German Measles is:

  • (A) Lymphadenopathy (B) Kopliks spots
  • (C) Rashes                           (D) All of the above

89. The incubation period of Influenza is:

  • (A) 2—13 days      (B) 8—10 days
  • (C) 18—72 hours (D) None of the above

90. The most important part of diarrhoeal control measure, advocated by WHO/UNICEF is

  • (A) ORT                                        (B) Personal hygiene
  • (C) Medicinal management (D) All of the above

91.Man is the only one reservoir of infection:

  • (A) Typhoid fever (B) Influenza
  • (C) Rabies                 (D) None of the above

92.Which diagnostic test is more reliable in searching and identifying the malarial parasite?

  • (A) Culture method      (B) Thin film
  • (C) Fluorescent study (D) Thick film

93. “Doubling up” is the local word meaning of

  • (A) Undulent fever         (B) Dengue fever
  • (C) Chikungunya fever (D) West Nile fever

94.The aedes aegypti index should not be more than:

  • (A) 4%    (B) 3%
  • (C) 1%     (D) 2

95.Water is the most effective natural barrier of:

  • (A) Rabies (B) Yellow fever
  • (C) SARS    (D) Plague

96.Serious fungal infections are found in AIDS when T-helper cell count has dropped to around:

  • (A) 300 (B) 50  (C) 100 (D) 200

97. Which pathogen causing genital and anal warts?

  • (A) Herpes simplex virus (B) Human papilloma virus
  • (C) Candida albicans           (D) All of the above

98. In multibacillary leprosy Bi is:

  • (A) greater than 4 (B) greater than 2
  • (C) less than 3       (D) less than 2

99.Excessive beer consumption is associated with:

  • (A) Oral cancer (B) Oesophageal cancer
  • (C) cancer           (D) Liver cancer

100. Major manifestation of rheumatic heart diseases are the following except:

  • (A) Chorea (B) Polyarthralgia and fever
  • (C) Carditis (D) Polyarthritis

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IHMA Homeopathy MD Entrance Question Bank 2009-10 Paper II

Post Graduate Model Entrance Examination Coaching  2009-2010   Question bank Series -II
Questions : 150                           Marks : 600                                Time        :     120   Minutes

Please   read   the   instructions   given   in   the   OMR   Answer  Sheet   for   marking   answers. Candidates are advised to strictly follow the instructions contained in the OMR Answer Sheet.

For each question there are four suggested answers, given against (A), (B), (C) and (D) of which only one will be MOST APPROPRIATE answer. Indicate it in the OMR Answer   Sheet.

Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to  penalization   formula   based   on   the   number   of   right   answers   actually   marked   and   the   number of wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded FOUR marks.

ONE   mark will   be   deducted   for   each   incorrect   answer.   More   than   one   answer   marked  against   a   question   will   be   deemed   as   an   incorrect   response   and  will   be   negatively   marked.

1.  Which is not derived from ectoderm

  • a.  Sclera of eye    b. Sweat gland c. Skin   d. distal part of Anus

2.   Artery present in the Anatomical sniff box is

  • a. Radial       b. Ulnar         c. Interossceus     d. None

3.   Broca’s area is located in

  • a. Superior temporal gyrus     b. Parietal lobe
  • c. Inferior frontal gyrus           d. Angular gyrus

4.   Uterus develops from

  •  a. Mullerian duct    b. Wolfian duct      c. Both          d. None

5.   Triangle of Koch is not bounded by

  • a. Tendon Todaro                   b. Coronary sinus
  • c. Limbus Foss a Ovalis       d. Annulus of tricuspid value.

6.   Oligo dentrocites are important in

  • a. Blood brain barrier    b. Myelin formation      c. Phagocytosis           d. chemo taxis

7.   Bone not present at birth

  • a. Malleus       b. Incus     c. Stapes        d. Pectrous temporal

8.   Noto Chord develops in

  • a. 3  week           b. 3 months      d. 6 months      d. 10   week

9.   Which sinus opens extra cranially

  • a. Inferior petrosal sinus    b. Superior petrosal sinus
  • c. Sigmoid sinus                      d. Straight sinus

10. How many lymph nodes are there in Cervical group

  • a. 100               b. 200           c. 300           d. 400

11. Ejection fraction increases with

  • a. End systolic volume                          b. End diastolic volume
  • c. Peripheral vascular resistance              d. Veno dilation

12. Angiotensinogen      is produced by

  • a. Liver             b. Kidney        c. Atrium        d. Hypothalamus

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IHMA Homeopathy MD Entrance Question Bank 2009-10 Paper I

Post Graduate Model Entrance Examination Coaching  2009-2010   Question bank Series -1
Questions : 150                           Marks : 600                                Time        :     120   Minutes

Please   read   the   instructions   given   in   the   OMR   Answer  Sheet   for   marking   answers. Candidates are advised to strictly follow the instructions contained in the OMR Answer Sheet.

For each question there are four suggested answers, given against (A), (B), (C) and (D) of which only one will be MOST APPROPRIATE answer. Indicate it in the OMR Answer   Sheet.

Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to  penalization   formula   based   on   the   number   of   right   answers   actually   marked   and   the   number of wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded FOUR marks.

ONE   mark will   be   deducted   for   each   incorrect   answer.   More   than   one   answer   marked  against   a   question   will   be   deemed   as   an   incorrect   response   and  will   be   negatively   marked.

1.    The cysterna chylli are situated in the

  •  a. Pelvis        b. Thorax        c. Neck           d. Abdomen

2.    Length of male adult urethra is

  • a. 20 cm                  b. 10 cm         c.  4cm         d. 15cm

3.    Length of adult cervical canal is

  • a. 2 cm                   b. 2.5 cm       c. 6 m           d. 10 cm

4.    All of the following are grouped together as “muscles of mastigation except

  • a. Buscinator    b. Masseter      c. Temporalis    d. Pterygoids

5.    A Commonest cause for neuralgic pain in foot is

  • a. Compression of communication between medical and lateral plantar nerves
  • b. Exaggeration of longitudinal arches
  • c. Injury to deltoid ligament
  • d. Shortening of planter aponeurosis

6.    Posterior fontanels ossified at the age of

  • a. 1 year                 b. 2 years      c. 3 years        d. 4 years

7.    Ligamentum  pteris is derived from

  • a. Lift umbilical artery
  • b. Left umbilical vein
  • c. Right umbilical artery
  • d. Right umbilical vein

8.    At 30 days of intra uterine life

  • a. Heart starts beating
  • b. Cerebellum develops
  • c. Optical reside appears
  • d. Pinna appears

9.    A patient of external piles has pain, which of the following nerve carry this pain sensation?

  • a. Hypogastric nerve     b. Parasympathetic plexus
  • c sympathetic nerve      d. Pudendal nerve

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West Bengal PSC Homoeopathic Medical Officer Exam1993

West Bengal Public Service Commission Homoeopathic Medical Officer Services Examination 1993
Time : 1 hour
Marks : 100
Attempt all the questions
All questions carry equal marks
All questions are compulsory

1.Mention which one is published by authority of Government of India

  • (A) Pharmacy         (B) Pharmacopoca
  • (C) Pharmacology (D) Pharmacodynamics

2.Mention the vehicle by which we can prepare mother tincture :

  • (A) Dilute Alcohol      (B) Rectified   Spirit
  • (C)Absolute alcohol   (D) Strong Alcohol

3. Which one of the following mother tincture can be identified by smell only

  • (A) Kreosote  (B) Nux. Vom (C) Aconite (D) Camphor

4. Mention the name of drug which is to be triturated from liquid  substance

  • (A) Petroleum  (B)Acid Benzoic
  • (C) Guaiacum  (D) Iodine

5. Largest source of drug substance in Homoeopathy is from

  • (A) Animal Kingdom    (B) Plant Kingdom
  • (C) Mineral Kingdom    (D) Synthetic Chemicals

6. Hahnnemann used the word miasm in the sense of

  • (A) Infection (B) Influence
  • (C) Pollution (D) Chronic Syndrome

7.Idiosyncrasy is helpful in

  • (A) Drug proving      (B) Management of cases
  • (C) Case taking        (D) Assessment of prognosis

8. Totality of symptoms comprises

  • (A) Sum total all symptoms                         (B)Symptoms which help in individualization
  • (C) Sum total of subjective symptoms    (D)Sum total of objective symptoms

9. Curative action means :

  • (A) Primary action in Homoeopathy  (B)  Secondary action
  • (C) Secondary counter action               (D) Alternating action

10. Surrogate means :

  • (A) Symptoms (B) Remedy
  • (C) Drug             (D) Substitute

11. Homoeopathic drugs cure because of :

  • (A) Similarity of symptoms  (B) Minuteness of dose
  • (C) Potentisation of drugs    (D) Infrequent repetition of drug

12. Drug proving on healthy persons was thought of for the first time by

  • (A) Hippocrates      (B) Paracelsus
  • (C) Hahnemann      (D) Von Heller

13.Repetition of 1st prescription is required :

  • (A) When symptoms have aggravated             (B) When symptoms have ameliorated
  • (C) When order of symptoms have changed (D)When original symptoms have returned

14. Accessory symptoms of drug :

  • (A) Are not the symptoms of that drug
  • (B) Are the symptoms  of a partial Homeopathic  drug
  • (C) Are the symptoms which appear after antipathic drug
  • (D) Arc the symptoms which appear after allopathic drug

15. A quick, short & strong aggravation after the application of remedy indicates

  • (A) Amelioration will be quick & lasting
  • (B)  Amelioration will be slow & lasting
  • (C) Amelioration will be followed by aggravation
  • (D) Amelioration will not ensure

16. Menstruation is :

  • (A) A common particular symptom
  • (B) A common general symptom
  • (C) A Peculiar particular symptom
  • (D)A peculiar general symptom

17. To select a Homeopathic remedy one should depend  on :

  • (A) Diagnosis           (B) Prognosis
  • (C) Pathogenesis   (D) Anamnesis

18. The words ‘lucid interval’ is used in organon of medicine while dealing with the

  • (A) Syphilitic diseases (B) Sycotic diseases
  • (C) Mental diseases      (D) Intermittent disease

19. The most incurable disease among all disease is

  • (A) Acute disease of violent nature  (B) Chronic miasmatic disease
  • (C) Pseudo chronic diseases                (D) Artificial chronic diseases

20. Medicine  in intermittent fever is to be administered best

  • (A) During the chill stage   (B) During fastigium stage
  • (C) During heat stage           (D) During apyrexial stage

21. The quardiceps femoris muscle

  • (A) Extends the hip joint      (B)Extends the knee joint
  • (C) Rotates the knee joint    (D)Flexes the knee joint

22. The most common position of the vermiform appendix is

  • (A) Pelvic             (B)Retrocolic
  • (C) Retroceacal  (D) Retrilcal (splenic)

23. The most superficial structure in the superior mediastinum :

  • (A) Arch of aorta                       (B) Thymus
  • (C) Left brachycephalic vain (D) Vagus Nerve

24. Permissible movement in true hinge joint :

  • (A) Flexion and extension     (B) Adduction and abduction
  • (C) Rotation                                 (D) Circumduction

25. The third cranial nerve is called

  • (A) Olfactory    (B) Abducent
  • (C) Oculomotor (D) Facial

26. Christmas disease is due to absence  of

  • (A) Factor – II   (B) Factor VI
  • (C) Factor VII   (D) Factor IX

27. Force of cardiac contraction depend on

  • (A) Size of the heart                                (B) Volume of blood
  • (C) Length of cardiac muscle fiber   (D) Muscularity of the subject

28. Normal level of urea in blood

  • (A) 25-30 mg%      (B)30-120 mg %
  • (C) 150–250 mg% (D) 45 -50%

29. Destruction of uric acid  occurs in

  • (A) Liver   (B) Kidney
  • (C) Muscle (D) Spleen

30.Vit B12 deficiency produces

  • (A) Mlicrocytic anaemia   (B) Macrocytic anaemia
  • (C) Normocytic anaemia  (D) Dimphorphic anaemia

31. Toothache relieved by holding cold water in the mouth

  • (A) Thuja                  (B) Ignatia
  • (C) Natrum Sulph (D) Nux Vomica

32. Fever annually returning; paroxysm every spring

  • (A) Rhus tox   (B) Belldonna
  • (C) Lachesis    (D) Aconite

33. Hears better in a noise

  • (A) Aconite     (B) Thuja
  • (C) Graphites  (D) Belladonna

34. Menses only during the day, cease on lying down

  • (A) Causticum    (B) Pullsatilla
  • (C) Sepia           (D) Bovista

35.Cannot bear the smell or sight of food

  • (A) Arsenicum album (B)Amm.Carb
  • (C) Calc. Carb                 (D)Aethusa

36. Every stool is followed by thirst end every drink by shuddering

  • (A) Aloes         (B) Cantharis
  • (C)Capsicum (D) Nux. Vomica.

37.Source of  Sepia is

  • (A) Vegetable Kingdom   (B)Mineral kingdom
  • (C) Animal Kingdom       (D) Nosodes

38. Which of these is indicated for contradictory and alternating states of symptom

  • (A) Ignatia     (B) Sulphur
  • (C) Sepia       (D) Nat.Sulph

39. Which of these is indicated for change of stool?

  • (A) Pulsatilla   (B)Nux.Vom
  • (C) Merc. Sol  (D)Arg.nit

40. which of the following is indicated foe ‘excoriated lips from acrid saliva”

  • (A) Kreosotum         (B) Petroleum
  • (C) Acid nitric           (D) Silicia

41. Bitter taste , nausea,gall bladder swollen and tender,stool bright yellow, hard knotty sometimes alternate with diarrhea, stitching pain lower right ribs with jaundice, urine golden yellow color. Which medicine is indicated?

  • (A) Card, Mar.     (B)Ipecace
  • (C) Chelidonium  (D)Nux.vom

42. Fluent discharge acrid from nose  but bland from eye; better in open air and worse in warm room, neuralgia stump after amputation, which one of the following medicine is indicated ?

  • (A) Ars. Iod. (B) Staphysagria
  • (C) Euphrais  (D) Allium cepa

43. Indication of  China in intermittent fever is warranted where there is

  • (A) Thirst during chill    (B)Thirst at onset of chill and heat stage
  • (C) Thirst during heat   (D) Thirst before chill

44. All female symptoms are associated with restlessness, specially of the feet, coldness, depression and  spinal tenderness ameliorated during menstrual flow- which one of the following  is indicated in such a patient ?

  • (A) Sepia    (B) Zinc met
  • (C) Lachesis (D) Secale Cor

45. A child appears to be intelligent but delayed in learning to talk. Which one of the following medicines is applicable?

  • (A) Baryta  Carb      (B) Natrum Mur
  • (C) Cal. Carb .           (D) Sulphur

46. Intense sympathy for sufferings of others.

  • (A) Causticum     (B) Ignatia
  • (C) Pulsatilla       (D) Arnica

47.Which one is indicated for TOUGH & GREESY HARD STOOL?

  • (A) Ant. Tart    (B) Caust
  • (C) Ledum       (D) Hydrastis

48. A lady was very thirsty in her normal condition but developed complete aversion to drinking water even the sight of water induced vomiting. Which medicines may be applicable ?

  • (A) Apis mel        (B)Bryonia
  • (C)Natrum. Mur   (D) Phosphorus

49. Which one of the following medicines is indicated for eczema capitis in children with copious purulent discharge as if form a hat of pus?

  • (A) Graphites         (B)Mezerium
  • (C) Cicuta Virosa  (D)Merc.Sol.

50. Indurations of mammae with stony hardness painful before and during mensturation, vertigo on change of posture- even tuning in bed. Which of the following medicines is indicated ?

  • (A) Phytolacca  (B) Cal.Carb.
  • (C) Bryonia         (D) Conium maculatum

51. Blood agar media is

  • (A) Selective medium   (B)   Basic fluid medium
  • (C) Enriched medium    (D)  Basic solid medium

52. Langhan’s giant cell is commonly found in -.

  • (A) Xanthoma                 (B) Lymphoid tissue of appendix in measles
  • (C) Rheumatic carditis (D) Tuberculous lesion

53, Normal plasma colloidal osmotic pressure in a capillary is .

  • (A) 30 mm. of:Hg (B) 12 mm of Hg
  • (C) 25 mm of Hg  (D) 2-3 mm. of Hg

54. Staphylococci aureus produces

  • (A) White pigment                     (B) Golden yellow pigment
  • (C) Lemon Yellow pigment    (D) Drown red pigment

55. Maximum amount of Albumin in urine is present in o

  • (A) Pregnancy                        (B) Acute Nephritis
  • (C) Nephrotic Syndrome   (D) Chronic Nephritis

56. Sugar is usually present in urine despite normal blood sugar level in –

  • (A) Addison’s disease     (B) Diabetes mellitus
  • (C) Renal glicosuria       (D) Cushing’s syndrome

57. The most effective method of sterilization by moist heat is

  • (A) Boiling           (B)Tyndalisation
  • (C) Autoclaving (D) Inspissations

58. Which is true for the VDRL test

  • (A) It is an agglutination test    (B) it is a flocculation test
  • (C) It is a neutralization test     (D) It is a precipitation test

59. In which poisoning occurs impulsive homicidal tendency

  • (A)  Cocaine   (B) Heroin addiction
  • (C) Cannabis  (D)Methanol

60. Wen a corpse is thrown into a shallow grave comprising of moist clayey soil, this condition will ensue –

  • (A) Putrefaction        (B)Maceration
  • (C) Saponification     (D) Mummification

61. Viscera need be preserved after autopsy  in forensic work in :

  • (B) Formal saline    (B) Normal Saline
  • (C) Rectified   spirit (D) Distilled water

62, Dead bodies can be artificially preserved ordinarily by the process of

  • (A) Saponification    (B) Mummification
  • (C) Embalming        (D) Maceration

63. Which one of the following has highest iron content  per 100 gm- substance d

  • (A) Pulses        (B) Banana
  • (C) Cow’s milk  (D) Wheat

64. Pneumoconiosis is caused by

  • (A)Pnenumonia         (B) Occupational dust
  • (C) Street dust            (D) Contaminated food

66. Establishment of primary health centre in India was recommended by

  • (A) Kartar Singh Committee      (B) Bhore committee
  • (C) Hathi Committee                     (D) Mudaliar Committee

67. ORS contains the following amount of common salt per liter of watre

  • (A)2.5 gm     (B)3.5 gm
  • (C)4.5gm       (D) 5.5gm

68.The intermediate host in filarial is

  • (A) Man         (B) Mosquito
  • (C) Dog         (D) Sand Fly

69. Live attenuated Vaccine is a

  • (A) Anti gas gangrene vaccine (B) Diphtheria
  • (C) BCG                                              (D) Hepatitis B

70. Multibacillary  treatment is related to a

  • (A) Kala-azar (B) Leprosy
  • (C) Malaria     (D) Gonorrlnoea

71. The most frequent histological type of cancer of breast is o

  • (A) Colloid cancer       (B) Lobular cancer
  • (C) Medullary  cancer(D) Infiltrating duct carcinoma

72. The most common site of peptic ulceration is s

  • (A)Cardiac end of esophagus         (B) Lesser curvature of stomach
  • (C) Greater curvature of stomach (D) Deodenal bulb

73. Perforation of typhoid ulcer occurs usually during

  • (A) 1st  week (B) 2nd  week
  • (C) 3rd  week  (D) 4th  week

74. The most frequent variety  of thyroid cancer is

  • (A) Anaplastic   (B) Papillary
  • (C) Medullary   (D) Follicular

75. Pott’s disease is

  • (A) Fracture dislocation of the ankle       (B) A diseased joint
  • (C) Traumatic osteochondritis of spine   (D) Tuberculosis of spine

76. Average blood loss normal  menstruation

  • (A) 15 ml      (B)  35ml
  • (C) 60 ml       (D) 120ml

77. Following fertilization-fertilised ovum implants in the endometrium on

  • (A) 3 day s    (B) 4 days
  • (C) 6 days     (D)8 days

78. In normal pregnancy amniotic fluid shows maximum volume at:

  • (A) 30 weeks    (B)   34 weeks
  • (C) 39 weeks    (D)   40 weeks

79. Pregnancy test in urine become positive on

  • (A) 4th  week  from LMP      (B) 5th week  from LMP
  • (C) 6th week  from LMP       (D) 7th week  from LMP

80. Foetal heart beat can be detected earliest between

  • (A) 16–20 weeks by stethoscope       (B) 7th week by real time ultrasound
  • (C) 10th week by ultrasound Doppler (D) 12th week by CT Scan

81.Commonest clinical finding in hydatidiform mole is

  • (A) Vaginal Bleeding (B) Uterine Enlargement
  • (C) Hyperemesis       (D) Pre—Eclampsia

82. Secondary Amenorrhoea occurs in the following except

  • (A) Thyrotoxicosis     (B) Bicornuate Uterus
  • (C) Anorexia Nervosa (D) Polycystic  ovarian disease

83. Cause of delayed puberty is-

  • (A) Anorexia nervosa  (B) Gonadal Dygenesia
  • (C) Chronic Disease    (D) Syndrome  of Androgen Excess

84. A11 the following teats would be helpful in the diagnosis of Molar Pregnancy  Except

  • (A) Ultrasound                               (B) HCG titer
  • (C) X-ray of Lower Abdomen  (D) Culdocentesis

85.The average PH of vaginal fluid is

  • (A)4.5 to 5.0      (B) 5.0 to 6.0
  • (C) 6.0- 7.0        (D) 7.0 to 7. 5

86.Which is recognized  complication measles

  • (A) Myocarditis       (B) Arthritis
  • (C) Pancreatitis       (D) Bronchopneumonia

87. Which one of the following viscera can be invaded by Entamoeba Histolytica

  • (A) Lungs           (B) Gall bladder
  • (C) Kidneys        (D) Adrenal glands

88. Clubbing or finger is a recognized feature of

  • (A) Chronic Bronchopneumonia    (B) Meningitis
  • (C) Infective endocarditis                 (D) Ischaemic heart disease

89. Which one of the following systemic manifestations is least characteristic of early adult Rheumatoid arthritis

  • (A) High fever                  (B)Weight loss
  • (C) Lymphadinopathy (D) Muscle wasting

90. Which of the following statements is correct  –  Sterility may be an important sequel in males

  • (A)  Who suffer from mumps after puberty   (B) Who develop mumps in later life
  • (C) Who develop mumps- in childhood          (D) Who develop mumps during foetal life

91. Frequent motions with excess of mucus, mixed with blood with scanty or no foccal matter, associated with griping and tenesmus is found in s

  • (A) Amoebic dysentery      (B) Ulcerative colitis
  • (C) Acute gastrocenteritis  (D)Acute Bacillary Dysentery

93. The earliest clinical finding in a case of tetanus is –

  • (A) Risus sardonicus due to tonic spasm and rigidity of the face and neck
  • (B) Lock  jaw
  • (C) Painful exhausting convulsions
  • (D) Opisthotonus position of the body

93. A patient with regular heart rate of 176 per minute, abruptly changes to 76 regular per minute after carotid sinus massage. most likely  has

  • (A) Sinus Tachycardia         (B) Auricular flutter with block
  • (C)  Auricular fibrillation   (D) Paroxysmal atrial Tachycardia

94. Pulmonary  hypertension causes hypertrophy of the

  • (A) Left atrium         (B) Right  atrium
  • (C) Right ventricle    (D) Left ventricle

95. Clinical features of pyloric stenosis include each of the following except

  • (A) Previous history dyspepsia (B) Projectile vomiting
  • (C) Tetany                                          (D) Diarrhoea

96. Pulsatile live is present in

  • (A) Mitral Incompetence        (B) Tricuspid incompetence with failure
  • (C) Aortic Incompetence        (D) Aortic stenosis

97.Achliya gastric is present in

  • (A) Acute gastritis         (B) Gastric carcinoma
  • (C) Pernicious anemia (D) Alcoholic gastritis

98. Cirrhosis of the liver usually follows in

  • (A) Chronic hepatitis with inflammatory changes in portal tract
  • (B) Chronic hepatitis due to persistent ameobic hepatitis
  • (C) Chronic hepatitis where the mischief confined only in portal tract and adjacent to liver paranchyna
  • (D)Chronic Hepatitis where not only the portal tract and paranchymal tissues arc affected but also there is intra lobular fibrosis causing distortion of lobular architecture along with formation of regeneration nodules

99. Select the pulse pattern which is most likely to be associated with Aortic valvular incompetence.

  • (A) Pulsus Alterans      (B) Pulsus Bisferiens
  • (C) Pulsus Tardus        (D)Water hammer pulse

100. Once formed , Red cells normally have an average life span

  • (A) 30 days        (B) 60 days
  • (C) 120 days      (D) 160 days

Download Answer Key : www.similima.com/pdf/wbpsc1993.pdf

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West Bengal PSC Homoeopathic Medical Officer Exam1991

Question Paper of West Bengal Public Service Commission Homoeopathic Medical Officer Services Examination 1991.
Time : 1 hour
Full Marks : 100.
Attempt all the questions
All questions carry equal marks

1.  Mention the drug which is prepared from the normal secretion  of living animals

  • (a)  Adrenalin           (b) Adonis, Vermalix
  • (c) Actea spicata    (d) Agra plus  Nutons

2. Mention the vehicle by which you can prepare LINIMENT ?

  • (a) distilled water (b) Alcohol
  • (c) Olive-oil            (d) Glycerin

3. Smallest possible does only can be made with

  • (a) Globules  (b) Purified water
  • (c) Cones      (d) Tabloid

4. A Medicine prepared from spider poisons

  • (a) Cantherin      (b) Tarantula Hispania
  • (c) Bufo Rana     (d) Murex Purpurea

5. The process of Dynamisation of the liquid drug is known as –

  • (a) Trituration          (b) Hydrolysis
  • (c) Succussion          (d) Exsiecation

6. Artificial chronic diseases are

  • (a)  Most difficult to treat     (b) Not at all curable
  • (a.) Most-difficult  to cure    (d) Easily curable

7. Subjective symptoms a

  • (a) Which are narrated by the  patient
  • (b)  Which are narrated by the relatives
  • (c) Which are narrated by the patient in respect of his feeling
  • (d) Which are observed by the attendants

8.Sycosis is

  • (a) In coordination of growth (b) Ulcerative in nature
  • (c) Degenerative in nature     (d) Malignant in nature

9. In bad type of intermittent fever where stage of apyrexia is very short. Medicine to be applied

  • (a) When chill is continuing  (b) When heat is continuing
  • (c)When heat is continuing (d) When heat begins to abate .

10. The short relief  of symptoms after the application of a deep acting remedy means.

  1. (a) The remedy is to be repeated
  2. (b) The remedy is to be applied in higher potency
  3. (c) There is  a structural change in the patient
  4. (d) The patient is of low susceptibility

11. Tinnitus aurium, while lying down, without any defect in that organ is

  • (a) A common  particular               (b)  A peculiar particular symptom
  • (c) A common general symptom (d) A peculiar  general symptom

12. A patient is being treated for heart disease, after  the medicine given the heart is better but severe rheumatic pain in kee joint appeared, which he had before the heart disease

  • (a) Medicine given to be antidoted   (b) A complementary medicine to be given
  • (c) Same medicine to be repeated   (d) Placebo to be given

13. In a particular category of disease condition “accessory symptoms” arc considered to be very valuable guide

  • (a) diseases of syphilitic miasm  (b) one sided diseases
  • (c) acute diseases                             (d) intermittent diseases

14. In a case of local malady – which of’ the following procedures will be most effective for quick and radical cure ?

  • (a) Internal and external administration of the same medicine which is found most homeopathically selected under the circumstances
  •  (b) Only internal administration of the well selected medicine
  • (c) Only external administration of constitutional Medicine

15. When treating a case of non-febrile intermittent disease Hahnemann has described the procedure of appropriate anti-miasmatic treatment but for extinguishing the intermittent character he has recommended an intercurrent  drug, which one of the following is correct ?

  • (a) Arsenic Album (b) Sulphur
  • (c) China                    (d) Ipceac

16. In the treatment  of psoric cases Hahnemann has recommended sulphur with one of the following as intercurrent remedy

  • (a) Calcaria Carb (b) Sepia (c) Psorinum (3)  Lycopodium

17.If no improvement follows after the administration of strictly Homeopathically selected remedy

  • (a) Change the remedy instantaneously (b) Repeat a fresh & small dose of the same medicine
  • (c)  Change the potency of the remedy  (d) Administer a complementary drug

18. What are the limitation of Homoeopathic drug proving

  • (a) Highly poisonous substances
  • (b) Proving cannot be extended upto the gross pathological changes
  • (c) Non availability of idiosyncratic provers

19. Hahnemann recommended the potency as best to investigate the medicinal power is .

  • (a) Mother’ tincture   (b) 30 th potency
  • (c)  Decimal potency (d) L. M. potency

20. The best time to administer an antipsoric medicine in female  is

  • (a) Immediately before the menses expected       (b) During the menstrual flow
  • (c) After the third day menses had begun               (d)      At mid cycles

21. Key stone of the arch of  the foot is

  • (a) Calcancus (b) Talus       (c) Navicular  (d) Cuboid

22, The Lymphatics from the Glan Penis Drain into

  • (a) upper set of superficial inguinal lymph nodes
  • (b) Lower set of superficial inguinal lymph nodes
  • (c) Deep inguinal lymph nodes
  • (d) Aortic lymph nodes

23. The greater omentum is attached  to

  • (a) Liver and stomach         (b) Stomach and Jejunum
  • (c) Jejunum and colon        (d) Stomach and colon

24. Which branch of ophthalmic artery is an end artery

  • (a) Supraorbital (b) Lacrimal
  • (c) Ethmoidal      (d) Central Artery of retina

25. Leve1 of third cervical vertebra corresponds to :

  • (a) Beginning of trachea (b) Beginning of oesophagus
  • (c) Hyoid Bone                   (d) Thyroid cartilage

26. Haemolysis is due to deficiency of –

  • (a) 2:3 diphosphoric acid (b) Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase
  • (c) Carbonic anhydrase   (d) Glucose 6 phosphate

27. The sense of Smell is carried by :

  • (a)  lst Cranial nerve    (b) 2nd Cranial nerve
  • (c) 4th Cranial nerve   (d) 5th Cranial nerve

28. Cabinski’s sign is +ve in

  • (a) Lower motor neurone paralysis
  • (b) Poriphcral nerve lesion
  • (c) Adult under tension
  • (d) Upper motor neurone paralysis

29. 1st heart sound is caused by

  • (a) Closure of A-v valves     (b)      closure of semilunar valves
  • (c) Opening A-v valves        (d)      contraction of artia

30. In haemophilia

  • (a) Coagulation time is prolonged (b) Bleeding time is prolonged
  • (c) Coagulation time is normal      (d)   Haemorrhagic spots are commonly seen over the skin & Mucous membrane

31, Which of the following medicines is applicable in case of eruptions severely itching but ameliorated by warm application ?

  • (a) Sulphur         (b) Mezerium
  • (c) Croton Trig (d) Rumex

32. Child cries whole night but remains quite  day time. Which of the following medicine should be applicable ?

  • (a) Lycopodium (b) Chamomilla (c) Belladona (d)  Jalapa

33.In early months of pregnancy the lady can lie comfortably only on abdomen. Which of the folowing medicines may be applicable ?

  • (a)Medorrhinum       (b)  CIna       (c) Stannum   (d)  Podophyllum

34. A patient feels too hot – cannot tolerate least exposure to sunray, dislikes covering even in winter, very eager to have cold bath. Which of the following medicine is strongly  indicated ?

  • (a) Nat.Mur    (b) Carb.Veg
  • (c) Acid Flour (d) Carbo Animalis

35. Menorrhoegia with scanty, black, acrid and indelible blood discharge, which of the following is indicated in such patient?

  • (a) Medorrhinum (c)Ustilago
  • (b) Secale cor        (d)Kreosote

36. Violently irritable, prays with fold hands, incessant talking, irrelevant laughing, rapid change from joy to sadness, lewd nature which of the following is indicated ?

  • (a) Stramonium   (b) Hyoscymaus
  • (c) Platinum        (d) Lachesis

37. Baseless fear of impending poverty, talks of his daily business in delirium, likes to lie listlessly: which one may be helpful to the patient ?

  • (a) Gelsemium         (b) Acid phos
  • (c) Arnica                 (d) Bryonia

38. Which of the following modicne has prominent properties of antisyphiltic Miasm ?

  • (a) Pulsatilla   (b) Selenium
  • (c) Secale cor (d) Phytolacca

39. Which of the following medicines is more suitably applicable for crops of tiny boils mostly appearing on face behind ears etc, in summer seasons ?

  • (a) Hepar sulphur     (b) Merc Sol
  • (c) Calc. Sulph         (d) Arnica Montana

40. Tickling constant cough aggravated by talking   – entry of air through mouth and nose. So the patient avoids talking and tries to cover mouth  and nose often with a piece of cloth. Which of the following medicine is indicated ?

  • (a) Ipecac      (b) Squilla
  • (c) Spongia    (d) Rumex

41. Eczema mainly in genital area spreading to perianal region severely itching and followed by severe soreness so that the patient cannot touch the area in spite of the  scratch, which one of the following medicines is indicated ?

  • (a) Sulphur       (b) Mercrius
  • (c) Crotn Trig (d) Graphitcs

42. Which one is indicated for vertigo after coition

  • (a) Acid Phos     (b) Conium
  • (c) Sulphur        (d) Gelsemium

43, Which one is indicated for VERTIGO AFTER FRIGHT

  • (a) Gelsemium         (b) Conium
  • (c) Silicea                (d) Acon –Nap

44. Drawing pain through the chest, from breasts to scapula of same side every  time the child nurses. Nipple very sore

  • (a) Croton Trig         (b) Graphites
  • (c) Phytolacca          (d) Silicia

45. Bad effects from loss of sleep, mental excitement and night watching, feel weak if they lose but one hour’s sleep, convulsions after loss of sleep, of anger and grief.

  • (a) Cocculus             (b)Nitric Acid
  • (c) Nux Vomica        (d) Zinc Sulph

46. Sweat in axilla, smells like onions

  • (a) Bovista      (b) Thuja
  • (c) Sulphur      (d) Sepia

47. Vicarious menstruation

  • (a) Pulsatilla   (b) Arnica
  • (e) Brvonia    (d) Causticum

48. Urticaria aggravated in warmth but better in cold

  • (a) Dulcamara          (b)Thuja
  • (c) Rhus Tox            (d) Sulphur

49. Headache  Preceded by blindness ameliorated by process urination

  • (a) Natrum Mur        (b)Belladonna
  • (e) Gelsemium         (d) Thuja

50. Fluoric Acid is complimentary  of

  • (a) Pulsatilla          (b) Silccea
  • (c) Hep. Sulph       (d) Merc Sol.

Answer Key

1.A 11.B 21.B 31.C 41.C
2.D 12.D 22.C 32.D 42.A
3.A 13.B 23. 33.D 43.D
4.B 14.A 24.D 34.C 44.A
5.C 15.C 25.A 35.C 45.A
6.D 16.D 26.B 36.A 46.A
7.C 17.C 27.A 37.D 47.C
8.A 18.B 28.D 38.D 48.A
9.D 19.B 29.A 39.D 49.C
10.C 20.C 30.B 40.D 50.B

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Chhatisgarh PSC Homeopathy Medical Officer Exam 2010

Chhatisgarh Public Service Commission. Raipur Medical Officer Homeopathy Exam 04/04/2010.
CGHP. 09  Question Paper (Sub. Code 01).
No. of  Questions in Booklet :100.
Time : 2 Hours,  Total Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES.
1.(a)  Candidates are allowed time to fill up the basic information about themselves in the OMR sheet such as Name, Roll No., etc.

(b)  After this, question booklet will be given to the candidates.

2. They are required to do the following :

(i) Examine the booklet and to see that all paper seals at the edge of the booklet are intact. Do not accept the question booklet if sticker seals are not intact.

(ii) Tally the number of papa along with no. of questions printed on cover of the booklet. In case of any discrepancy please get the booklet changed immediately.

(c) Candidates are not permitted to mark answers in the Answer-Sheet in this time. TWO HOURS more will be given to mark the answers.

2. (a)On Answer-Sheet, write/put Date of Exam., Name of Exam., Name, Signature, Roll No., Center Code and Name, Sr. No. of Question Booklet and Set of Question Booklet (A, B, C or D) supplied to you by Black Ball point pen.

(b) On Answer Sheet fill in your Roll No., Question Booklet Set, Subject Code and Centre Code etc by darkening corresponding circle 0 with Black Ball point pen.

(c) On Answer-Sheet only the answers to question a are to be marked. The instructions for this are available on the back cover page of this question booklet.

3. Optical Mark Reader (OMR) machine prepares the result by reading the entries made in the circle 0 with the Black Ball Point Pen on the Answer Sheet, hence the candidates must be extremely careful in marking these entries and must not commit errors.

4. Please do not write anything extra except what is asked for.

5. — USE OF ANY CALCULATOR, LOG TABLES, MOBILE PHONE etc is PROHIBITED.

6. Rough work should be done on the blank pages or in the apace provided for this on each page of this question booklet: Extra paper will not be supplied.

INSTRUCTIONS REGARDING METHOD OF ANSWERING QUESTIONS

 (Please use Black Ball Point Pen Only)

1.Method of Marking Answer:

1. To give an answer, please darken one bubble out of the given four, in the OMR Answer Sheet against that question.

2. Valuation Procedure:

There are four answers to a question, only one of them is correct. Three marks will be awarded for each correct answer, if more than one bubble are darkened for a question, it will be presume that the candidate does not know the correct answer hence no mark.

3. Handling over of Answer-Sheet to Invigilator :

(i) Please ensure that all the entries in the answer-sheet are filled up properly i.e. Name, Roll No., Signature, Question Booklet No. etc.

(ii) Before the limitation of two hours duration while leaving the Examination Hall, hand over the question paper to the invigilator. If needed, after duration of period, you can ask for your question paper from the Centre Superintendent

4. Care in Handling the Answer-Sheet:

While using answer-sheet adequate care should be taken to tear or spoil due to folds or wrinkles.

Note :1.This question paper has 100 questions. Each question carries 3 marks. Attempt All questions.

2. Read carefully instructions regarding method of answering questions given on the last page and indicte your answers on the Answer-Sheet provided.

3.Use of any type of calculator or log table and Mobile Phone is prohibited.

(1) Materia Medica

1. Devil’s Dung is the common name of :

  • (A) Baptisia tinctoria       (B) Asafoetida
  • (C) Melilotus                       (D) Helleborus niger

2.At every menstrual nisus throat, mouth and tongue become intolerably dry especially when sleeping :

  • (A) Nux vomica and Nux moschata   (B) Lac can
  • (C) Tarentula                                               (D) Cyclamen

 3.Kreosotum is inimical to :

  • (A) Carbo veg        (B) Kali carb
  • (C)Nux vomica      (D) Phosphorous

4. Mental labor best performed at night :

  • (A) Nux vomica     (B) Argentum nitricum
  • (C) Lachesis            (D) Fluoric acid

5.In goitre after Spongia the medicine can be given is :

  • (A) Iodum                (B) Bromium
  • (C) Thyroidinum   (D) Fluoric acid

6. Must change position frequently but it is painful and gives little relief :

  • (A) Causticum       (B) Arsenic
  • (C) Natrum sulph  (D)Both (A) and (C)

 7. Chronic asthma in summer :

  • (A) Psorinum       (B) Syphilinum
  • (C) Medorrhinum (D) Bovista

8. Dreams that she is drinking :

  • (A) Arsenic         (B) Medorrhinum
  • (C)Phosphorus    (D) All of these

9.Vertigo at night with urging to urinate :

  • (A) Theredivn       (B) Spigeiia
  • (C) Tabacum        (D) Hypericum

10.Pain in back when swallowing :

  • (A) Kali carb          (B) Lycopodium
  • (C) Graphites         (D)Zincum met

11.Fear of being assassinated :

  • (A) Lac can            (B) Plumb met
  • (C) Aurum met      (D) Zincum met

12. Which of the following is known as louse seed :

  • (A) Phytolocca      (B) Staphisagria
  • (C) Lycopodium    (D) Anacardium

13. For first stage of ulceration of cornea :

  • (A) Sulphur            (B) Physostigma
  • (C) Calendula        (D) Sarsaparilla

14.Can not eat meat, it causes eructation, pruritis

  • (A) Cal. Phos    (B) Nitric Acid
  • (c) Rumex        (D) Bovista

15.The remedy for pain of death, soothes the last struggle

  • (A) Tarentula cubensis     (B) Veratrum album
  • (C) Hypericum                (D) Phosphoric acid

16.Albuminuria at later and full term pregnancy

  • (A) Merc cor.     (B) Phos
  • (C) Apis mel     (D) Helleborus

17. Aconite is contraindicated

  • (A) Malarial fever         (B) Pyaemic condition
  • (C) Both of the above   (D) None of these

18. Chills runs up and down the back with shivering, followed by a suffocating sensation:

  • (A) Medorrhinum     (B) Mag phos
  • (C) Cyclamen              (D) Spigelia

19. Will often abort a beginning suppurative process near the rectum

  • (A) Rhustox    (B) Ruta. g.
  • (C) Ratanhia   (D) Silicea

20.Vivid dreams of fire is found in

  • (A) Heper sulph    (B) Phosphorous
  • (C) Sulphur          (D Cicuta

(2) Biochemic Medicines

21. Fears financial ruin :

  • (A) Kali. phos         (B) Cal. flour
  • (C) Cal. phos          (D) Natrum phos

22.Dreams of Running water :

  • (A) Kali sulph         (B) Natrum sulph
  • (C) Kali phos          (D) Natrurn phos

23. Hippocratic countenance :

  • (A) Calcarea sulph   (B)Kali. mur
  • (C) Kali phos              (D) Natrum phos

24. Sensation of hair at tip of the tongue :

  • (A) Natrum phos      (B) Natrum mur
  • (C) Mag phos             (D) Kali mur

25. Golden yellow coating on tongue :

  • (A) Natrum sulph    (B) Kali sulph
  • (C) Mag mur               (D) Natrum phos.

(3) Pharmacy

26. Which of the following is false :

  • (A) Sp Gr of olive oil is 0.813-0.890
  • (B) Sp Gr of glycerine is 1.255-1.266
  • (C) Sp Gr of dilute alcohol is 0.913-0.916
  • (D) P Gr of absolute alcohol is -0.7935

27. Q.L. or Quantum libet means :

  • (A) As much as required                    (B) As much as you please
  • (C) As much as one can repeat          (D) None of these

28. “Poison is everything and nothing is without poison, the dose make it a poison or a remedy” declared by :

  • (A) Hahnemann   (B) Asclepiades
  • (C) Paracelsus    (D) Rademacher and Hahnemann both

29.Drug power of Moschus by new method of preparation is :

  • (A) 1/10 (B) 1/20
  • (C) 1/30 (D) 1/100

30. Anacardium orientale is prepared in which class of old method :

  • (A) Class IV             (B) Class IX
  • (C) Class VII            (D) Both Class IV and IX

(4) Forensic Medicine 

31. Number of hours since death is calculated by multiplying the fall in rectal temperature :

  • (A) 0.33        (B) 0.67
  • (C) 1.33       (D) 1.5 32

32. Puglistic attitude in burn is seen in :

  • (A) Antemortem burn
  • (B) Postmortem burn
  • (C) Both Antemortem and Postmortem burn
  • (D) Suicidal burn

33. To make a positive identification with the help of a partial finger point, the points of similarity should be at least :

  • (A) 10     (B) 16
  • (C) 12     (D) 22

34.Pearson’s formula is used for :

  • (A) Race             (B) Age
  • (C) Stature         (D) Cephalic index

35.A dead born fetus does not have :

  • (A) Rigor mortis at birth            (B) Adepocere formation
  • (C) Maceration                         (D) Mummification

(6) Toxicology 

36.Run Amok Homicid delusion is characteristic of :

  • (A) Cannabis          (B) Cocaine
  • C) Dhatura             (D) Alcohol poisoning

37. Perforation of stomach is more common due to :

  • (A) Nitric acid                         (B) Sulphuric acid
  • (C) Hydrochloric acid          (D) Carbolic acid

38. Macewan’s sign is associated with :

  • (A) Alcohol poisoning          (B) Pontine Haemorrhage
  • (C) Cerebellar tumour         (D) Cocaine intoxication

39. In organophosphorus poisoning the following are seen except :

  • (A) Pupillary dilatation        (B) Salivation
  • (C) Bronchospasm                 (D) Sweating

40. About 20 gms of hair required to be preserved in :

  • (A)Mineral poisoning           (B) Antimony poisoning
  • (C) Codeine poisoning         (D) Aconite poisoning

(6) Community Medicine

41.Pasteurization kills all except :

  • (A) Sore throat causing bacilli
  • (B) Bacillary dysentery organism
  • (C) Staphylococcal exotoxin
  • (D) Brucellosis

42.Colour produced in orthotoluidine test is :

  • (A) Red   (B) Yellow
  • (C) Blue  (D) Green

43. Floor space for two persons is :

  • (A) 70-90 sq. feet                  (B) 90-100 sq. feet
  • (C) 50–70 sq. feet                (D) 110-120 sq. feet

44.Bhopal gas tragedy is an example of :

  • (A) Point source epidemic   (B)Propagated epidemic
  • (C) Mass epidemic                  (D)None of these

45.Diagnostic accuracy of a test is determined by :

  • (A) Sensitivity                        (B) Specificity
  • (C) Predictive value             (D) None of these

(7) National Health Programme

 46.Problem village is all except :

  • (A) Where no water source in a distance of 1.6 km from a community
  • (B) Water is more than depth of 15 m
  • (C) There is excess of Na+, K+, F+, Salts
  • D) Risk of Guinea worm infection

47.ICDS package does not include :

  • (A) Nutrition                          (B) Immunization
  • (C) Health check up            (C) Formal education

48.All of the following programmes are sponsored by ministry of social welfare except :

  • (A) Balwadi Nutrition Programme     (B) Special Nutrition Programme
  • (C) Mid-day Meal Programme           (D) ICDS

49. Iodized oil used in preventing goitre is :

  • (A) Croton oil        (B) Castor oil
  • (C) Almond oil       (C) Poppy seed oil

50. Child guidance clinic is helpful for :

  • (A) Bedwetting problem     (B) Impaired hearing
  • (C) Eye squint                  (D) Cerebral palsy

(8) Surgery

51.In Glasgow coma scale all of the following are considered except :

  • (A) Eye opening          (B) Verbal response
  • (C) Motor response     (D) Sensory response

52.Nicoladoni branham sign is :

  • (A) Compression causes tachycardia      (B) Compression causes bradycardia
  • (C) Hypotension                                                (D) Systolic filling

53.The commonest complication of intracapsular fracture neck of femur is :

  • (A) Osteoarthritis   (B) Malunion
  • (C) Shortening         (D) Nonunion

54. Fracture zygoma shows all the features except :

  • (A) Diplopia             (B) CSF Rhinorrhoea
  • (C) Epistaxis            (D) Trismus

55. Skin graft survival in the first 48 hours is dependent on :

  • (A)Random connection between host and donor capillaries
  • (B) Plasmatic imbibition
  • (C) Saline dressing
  • (D)Development of New blood vessels

56.Seat belt causes injury to :

  • (A) Duodenum
  • (B) Head injury due to wind screen
  • (C) Thorax
  • (D) All of the above

57. Which one is not Ranson’s prognostic criteria in acute pancreatitis

  • (A) Age over 55 years
  • (B) Blood glucose more than 200 mg%
  • (C) WBC more than 16000/mm3
  • (D) Serum calcium more than 8 mg%

58.Commonest complication following the haemorrhoidectomy is :

  • (A) Haemorrhage                  (B) Infection
  • (C) Urinary retention          (D) Fecal impaction

59. Vicryl, the commonly used suture material is a :

  • (A) Homopolymer of polydioxanone
  • (B) Co-polymer of glycolide and lectide
  • (C) Homopolymer of glycolide
  • (D) Homopolymer of lactide

60.Glod standard for reflux oesophagitis :

  • (A) Manomary                      (B) Barium swallow
  • (C)24 hrs pH study               (D) X-Ray abdomen

(9) Obstetrics and Gynaecology

61. Screening by using maternal serum alpha fetoproteins helps to detect all of the following except :

  • (A) Neural Tube Defect         (B) Duodenal Atresia
  • (C) Talipes equinovarus        (D) Omphalocele

62. Lochia rubra is seen up to :

  • (A) 5 days              (C) 10 days
  • (C) 15 days            (D) 20 days

63. If division of fertilized egg occurs at 4th -8th  day, what kind of monozygotic twin pregnancy will it give rise to :

  • (A) Diamniotic Dichorionic                    (B) Diamniotic Monochorionic
  • (C) Monoamniotic Monochorionic      (D) Conjoint twins

64. Sex determination in early pregnancy is done by :

  • (A) X-Rays                       (B)USG
  • (C) Amniocentasis      (D) Hysteroscopy

65. Most common site of puerperal infection is :

  • (A) Episiotomy wound         (B) Placental site
  • (C) Vaginal laceration          (D) Cervical laceration

66. Rule of Hasse is used to determine :

  • (A) The age of the fetus      (B) Height of the Adult
  • (C) Race of a person          (D) Identification

67.Cystocele is formed by which part of bladder ?

  • (A) Trigone                        (B) Base
  • (C) Superior surface       (D) Posterior

68. Confirmation of the diagnosis of the vesicular mole is by

  • (A) Vaginal examination         (B) X-Rays
  • (C) Abdominal examination    (D) Ultrasonography

69. Most fixed retroversion of uterus results from :

  • (A) Congenital         (B) Endometriosis
  • (C) Pelvic tumour   (D) Salpingo-oophoritis

70. Meconium is excreted by a newborn till :

  • (A) Second day     (B) 3rd  day
  • (C) 6th  day            (D) 4th  day

(10) Practice of Medicine

71. Decreased glucose level in pleural effusion is found in :

  • (A) Rheumatoid arthritis                     (B) SLE
  • (C) Pneumococcal infection               (D) P. carini infection

72. Fibrosis around Brunner’s gland is characteristic of :

  • (A) Intestinal lymphoma      (B) Radiation enteritis
  • (C) Amyloidosis                     (D) Scleroderma

73.In coeliac sprue there is deficiency of all except :

  • (A) Vitamin A         (B) Vitamin B12
  • (C) Folic acid         (D) Iron

74. Hepatitis B virus is associated with :

  • (A) SLE                                       (B) Polyanteritis nodosa
  • (C) Sjogren’s syndrome       (D) Wegnar granulomatosis

75. Vitamin D resistant ricket is inherited as :

  • (A) Autosomal dominant     (B) Autosomal recessive
  • (C) X-linked recessive         (D) X-linked dominant

76.Astasia abasia is seen in :

  • (A) Perkinsonism  (B) Alzheimer’s
  • (C) Schizophrenia (D) Hysterical convulsion disorder

77. Insulin stress test estimates :

  • (A) Diabetes melitus            (B)Growth hormone
  • (C) Glucagons assay             (D)Catecholamines

78. In diabetic nephropathy all of the following are true except :

  • (A) Candiovascular abnormalities can occur
  • (B) Micro and macro-albuminuria can occur
  • (C) ACE inhibitors can reduce microalbuminuria
  • (D)Insulin requirements become high

79. Isolated 3rd Nerve palsy seen in :

  • (A) Frontal tumour               (B)Weber syndrome
  • (C) Diabetes                      (D) Internal carotid aneurysm

80.Lesion not seen in Lepromatous leprosy :

  • (A) Papule              (B) Macule
  • (C) Vesicle             (D) Nodes

81.Alopecia areata is due to :

  • (A) Estrogen stimulation     (B) Androgen stimulation
  • (C) Lichenoid reaction        (D) Autoimmune

82.Sinusitis in children is commonest in :

  • (A) Frontal             (B) Maxillary
  • (C) Ethmoidal        (D) Sphenoid

83.Thrombosis of superior branch of middle cerebral artery leads to :

  • (A) Motor aphasia                           (B) Urinary incontinence
  • (C) Homonymus hernianopia     (D) Contralateral grasp reflex

84.Plucked chicken skin appearance is pathognomonic of :

  • (A) Pseudoxanthoma elastica     (B) Marfan’s syndrome
  • (C) Homocystinuria                        (D) Acute intermittent porphyria

85.All of the following can cause diabetes insipidus except :

  • (A) Multiple sclerosis          (B) Head injury
  • (C) Histocystosis              (D) Viral encephalitis

(11) Organon of Medicine and Homoeopathic Philosophy including Repertory 

86.In 2nd and 3rd  edition of organon of Medicine the missing aphorisms are :

  • (A)215, 216, 217    (B) 216, 217, 218
  • (C) 217, 218, 219   (D) 218, 219, 220

87. Duty of Physician if no improvement follows after giving the drugs which have alternating action :

  • (A) Give placebo
  • (B) Give same medicine in higher potency
  • (C) Give equally small dose of same medicine
  • (D) Change the remedy immediately

88. During the course of LM potency if there is aggravation then medicine to be taken from 2nd or 3rd cup, is stated in :

  • (A) Aph. 247 footnote 6th edition
  • (B) Aph. 248 footnote 6th edition
  • (C) Aph. 270 footnote 6th edition
  • (D) Aph. 246 footnote 6th edition

89. Among the 12 observations which observations are unfavorable :

  • (A) 5, 7, 10, 12      (B) 2, 4, 6, 8
  • (C) 3, 5, 9, 11        (D) 1, 4, 6, 11

90. According to Hahnemann a person who is to be mesmerised should not wear :

  • (A) Cotton         (B) Wool
  • (C) Silk                 (D) Linen

91.Camphor is antidoted by :

  • (A) Camphor itself
  • (B) Opium
  • (C) Strong sulphuric acid
  • (D) Nothing can antidote camphor

92. Prone to crave for spirituous liquors —> it belongs to which miasmatic state ?

  • (A) Psoric               (B) Sycotic
  • (C) Syphilitic        (D) Tubercular

93. During proving of the narcotics we observe the :

  • (A) Primary action                (B) Secondary action
  • (C) Alternating action          (D) All of these

94. Usually aggravated from eating any food and ameliorated by lying on the stomach or by pressure, belongs to :

  • (A) Psoric               (B) Sycotic
  • (C) Syphilitic          (D) Tubercular

95. Father of homoeopathic veterinary science is :

  • (A) Hahnemann      (B) M. Lux
  • (C) Griesselich        (D) Jenner

96. Preface to the “Repertory of the antipsoric medicine” was given by :

  • (A) Boenninghausem     (B) A. Lippe
  • (C) Hahnemann               (D) C. Dunham

97.Madame Hahnemann requested permission from the police to keep the master Hahnemann’s dead body for :

  • (A) 2-3 days     (B) 5-7 days
  • (C) 9-13 days   (D) 14-20 days

98. O tempora ! O mores ! has been stated by Hahnemann in connection to :

  • (A) Large doses of Drug
  • (B) Use of Alcohol
  • (C) Disadvantages of poly pharmacy
  • (D) Against the use of external application

99.Homoeopathic aggravation is the :

  • (A) Primary action                          (B) Secondary counter-action
  • (C) Secondary curative action     (D) Alternating action

100. According to Hahnemann how long the power of globule remains undiminished and used for olfaction it kept away from sunlight :

  • (A) 1-5 years      (B) 6-10 years
  • (C) 12-15 years   (D)18 or 20 years 

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RGUHS Karnataka Homeopathy MD Entrance 2010

Rajeev Gandhi University of Health Sciences. Karnataka Homeopathy PG Entrance Examinations 2010.
Maximum Marks : 100    Maximum Time : 90 Minutes

1. Gastric Ulcer is ’caused due to

  • a) Bad acid reflux         b) Decreased mucosal resistance
  • c) Recurrent trauma   d) Hyperacidity

2. ESR is greatly raised in

  • a) Sickle cell anaemia.     b) Multiple Myeloma
  • c) Acute MI                         d) Angina pectoris

3. Following are the  features of raised intracranial  tension EXCEPT

  • a) Altered sensorium           b) Papilloedema
  • c) Convulsions                     d) Tachycardia

4. Blood stained nipple discharge, suggests

  • a) Fibroadenosis                  b) Fibroadenoma
  • c) Duct papilloma                d) Plasma cell mastitis

5. Flapping tremor occurs in

  • a) Hepatic Encephalopathy  b) Hypothyroidism
  • c) Parkinsonism                        d) Hypothyroidism

6. Hyperpigmentation in exposed parts or pressure sites

  • a) Addison ‘s disease   b) Cushing’s syndrome
  • c) Aldosteronism         d) All the above

7. Osler’s Nodes occur in

  • a) Osteoarthritis.          b) Sub acute bacterial endocarditis
  • c) Psoriatic arthritis   d) Rheumatoid arthritis

8. De Musset’s sign occurs in

  • a) Aortic stenosis      b) Aortic regurgitation
  • c) Endocarditis          d) Mitral stenosis

9. Commonest complication of mumps in adults is

  • a) Otitis media      b) Orchitis
  • c) Myocarditis      d) Encephalitis

10. Incubation period of Hepatitis B is

  • a) 6 weeks to 6 months      b) 6 days to 6 weeks
  • c) 6 months to 6 years       d) More than 6 years

11. The oral polio vaccine is a type of

  • a) Killed formalized virus    b) Live attenuated virus
  • c) Killed virus                           d) Human Immunoglobulin

12. Medico legal importance of age

  • a) Criminal responsibility        b) Judicial punishment
  • c) Rape                                             d) All the above

13. Garrotting

  • a) The victim is attacked from behind without warning
  • b) One strong bamboo is placed at the back of the neck and another across in the front
  • c) Holding the neck of the victim
  • d) None of the above

14. The question of sterility arises in civil cases

  • a) Nullity of marriage        b) Divorce
  • c) Adultery                            d) All the above

15. Which of the following vitamins is NOT needed in excess of normal daily requirements in pregnancy ?

  • a) Vitamin A         b) Vitamin D
  • c) Vitamin B 12   d) Vitamin C

16. During delivery, the risk of transmission of maternal infection to the foetus is the highest in

  • a) Rubella                                b) Cytomegalovirus
  • c) Herpes simplex virus    d) Human papilloma virus

17. The contraceptive of choice for a newly married couple wishing to postpone their first child for 2 years is

  • a) Safe period       b) Spermicidal jelly
  • c) Copper T           d) Oral pills

18. Factors responsible for the dilatation of the cervix

  • a) Smooth muscles              b) Collagen
  • c) Ground substance           d) All the above

19. The worst position for the scars is

  • a) Back                  b) Shoulder
  • c) Sternum            d) Abdomen

20. Commonest cause of cellulitis is

  • a) Staphylococcus               b) Streptococcus
  • c) E.coli                                   d) Hemophilus

21. Preservative for storing blood for transfusion is

  • a) Heparin + Dextrose        b) Citrate + Glucose
  • c) EDTA                                    d) CPD-A

22. Complications of wound healing are

  • a) Infection                                           b) Pigmentation
  • c) Deficient scar formation            d) All the above

23. Deficiency of Vitamin E causes

  • a) Ocular lesions                                  b) Pellagra
  • c) Degeneration of neurons           d) Malabsorption

24. The more profuse the flow the greater the suffering is the characteristic of

  • a) Lachesis            b) Zinc Met
  • c) Kreosate           d) Actea Racemosa

25. Itch appear each year as winter approaches is the characteristic of

  • a) Aloe                     b) Sulphur
  • c) Graphitis           d) Belladonna

26. Complaints after eating potatoes is a symptom of

  • a} Arsenic             b) Alumina
  • c) Anti. Tart          d} None of these

27. Dry cough aggravating in the morning 3 a.m. to 4 a.m. is a symptom of

  • a) Ammonium Carb           b) Ant Crud
  • c} Aconite                             d) All of them

28. Ammonium Carb affects mostly

  • a) Right side          b) Left side
  • c) Bath                   d) Not specific

29. Irresistible desire to curse and swear is redline symptom of

  • a) Lac Can               b) Nit acid
  • c) Anacardiurn     d) All of them

30. Anacardium is antidote to

  • a) Ammonium Carb           b) Ignatia
  • c) Rhus Tox and Coffea    d) None of these

31. Dr. Burnett says — It is the king of all the remedies of Typhoid

  • a) Phosphorus      b) Baptisia
  • c) Pyrogen             d) Ver Alb

32. What is the relation of Baryta Carb and Calcarea Carb ?

  • a) Similar                                 b) Incompatible
  • c) Complementary              d) Follows Well

33. To which Family Belladonna belongs ?

  • a) Cucurbitaccae                 b) Solanacecae
  • c) Lihaceae                           d) None of these

34.”Constant dwelling on suicide” is the key note symptom of

  • a) Arnica               b) Baptisia
  • c) Calc Carb         d) Aurum Met

35. Aurum, Metallicurn antidotes to

  • a) Kali iod             b) Spigilia
  • c) Mercurius       d) All of them

36. Bubbling sensation in the region of the left kidney is a characteristic of

  • a) Sarsaparilla      b) Sepia
  • c) Lycopodium    d) Berberis Vulgaris

37. What is the relation between Calendula and Arsenic Alb ?

  •  a) Antidote           b) Similar
  • c) Follows well      d) Complementary

38. What is the common name of Colocynthis ?

  • a) Poison nut                        b) Coal
  • c) Squirting Cucumber     d) Club moss

39. Constipation always be-fore & during menses is one of the characteristic symptoms of

  • a) Sanicula            b) Calc carb
  • c) Silicea                d) Nat mur

40. Borax should not be used before or after

  • a) Sulphur             b) Bromium
  • c) Lycopodium    d) Acetic Acid

41. Which of the following is the advantage of 50 millisimal potencies over centesimal and decimals ?

  • a) Medicines can be frequently repeated both in acute and chronic disease
  • b) Medicines can be given in liquid form
  • c) Effect of medicines can be regulated
  • d) Time taken to cure is very less

42. Mother tincture prepared from diet vegetable and animal substances is by

  • a) Class I  method               b) Class 11 method
  • c) Class III method             d) Class IV method

43. Drug substances of mineral and decimal kingdom, which are easily soluble in water are included under

  • a) Class V A          b) Class V B
  • c) Class VIA         d) Class VI B

44. The thick residue of the soft doughy mass resulting from the expression of the fluid part of substances is called as

  • a) Mere                  b) Menstrum.
  • c) Magma             d) Filterate

45. Menstrum. used in Maceration are

  • a) Alcohol             b) Olive oil
  • c) Sugar of milk   d) Globules

46. Total duration required for trituration

  • a) 20 mins             b) I hr
  • c) 10 mins            d) 30 mins

47. Higher potency is prepared with the help of machines are known as

  •  a) Straight potency             b) Jumping potency
  • c) High fluxion potency     d) Fluxion potency

48. How many strokes are given in the process of potentitisation

  • a) 5 strokes                           b) 100 stokes
  • c) One powerful stroke       d) 10 strokes

49. Which of the following is also called as “Therapeutic creams” ‘?

  • a) Liniments         b) Ointments
  • c) Glycerol             d) Lotion

50. A semisolid     preparation is  prepared by mixing of one part of the mother tincture and nine part of vaseline is known as

  • a) Liniments         b) Glycerols
  • c) Opodeldocs      d) Ointments

5 1. The smallest dose that has been recorded as fatal is known as

  • a) Lethal dose      b) Maximum lethal dose
  • c) Minimum dose d) Fractional dose.

52. Which of the following  factors in NOT responsible for repetition of the dose?

  • a) Nature of the remedy     b) Nature. of the disease
  • c) Progress of the patient    d) Age of the patient

53. Which part of prescription includes, name of the remedy, its potency, quantity and quality of the vehicle ?

  • a) Superscription                  b) Subscription
  • c) Inscription                        d) Signature

54. The subject dealing with root or channel of administration of drugs is termed as

  • a) Pharmacophare              b) Pharmaconomy
  • c) Pharmacognesy               d) Pharmaco-chemistry

55. The sum total of action imparted on a   individual living human being and the sum  total of the  reaction that it can induce in the vital force is known as

  • a) Drug, action     b) Drug power
  • c) Drug strength    d) Drug capacity

56. Repertory was defined as “A book of index of medicines under symptoms” by

  •  a) Bidwel              b) Bogat
  • c) Jugal Kishore    d) Boenninghausen

57. Ile name of the repertory, compiled by Hahnemann was

  • a) Repertory of Materia Medica
  • b) Logico utilitarian repertory
  • c) Fragmenta De Viribus Medicamentorum Positivis
  • d) Homoeopathic Repertory

58. ‘The Repertory of Concordance’ by Gentry is a

  • a) Card Repertory               b) Logico Utilitarian Repertory
  • c) Clinical Repertory         d) Puritan Repertory

59. Compiler of ‘Repertory Eyes’ is

  • a) Curie                  b) Beridge
  • c) Cipher                d) Bogar

60. Symptoms Register was compiled by

  • a) T.F. Allen          b) Adolf Lippe
  • c) C.M. Bogar       d) C.B.Kneer

61. Pseudo chronic disease is caused by

  • a) Exciting cause                 b) Maintaining cause
  • c) Fundamental cause        d) None of the above

62. Sensation of ease and comfort due to the harmonious playing of the vital force is called

  • a) Health              b) Disease
  • c) Cure                   d) None of the above

63. When more than one dissimilar diseases are present at the same time in a person is called

  • a) Natural disease                b) Acute disease
  • c) Complex disease             d) Double disease

64. Potentisation includes  _ phenomena,

  • a) Dilution                               b) Frication
  • c) Concentration                  d) Both a) and b)

65. `Disinfectant’ kills the following

  • a) All micro-organisms       b) Pathogenic micro-organisms
  • c) Viruses and Fungi –         d) Non-Pathogenic micro-organisms

66. The UNICEF was established in

  • a) 1929                  b) 1946
  • c) 1948                  d) 1952

67. Major signs for diagnosis of AIDS

  • a) Weight loss 10% of body weight                    b) Chronic diarrhoea for more than 1 month
  • c ) Prolonged fever for more than 1 month    d) All the above

68. National Tuberculosis programme in operation since

  • a) 1962                  b) 1946
  • c) 1976                  d) 1973

69.The leading cause of death in low birth weight babies are

  • a) Atelectasis                        b) Malformation
  • c) Intracranial bleeding secondary to anoxia or birth trauma d) All the above

70. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act was passed by Indian Parliament in

  • a) 1981
  • b) 1971
  • c) 1975
  • d) 1979

71.Causticum is prepared from

  • a) Potassium Sulphate        b) Potassium Carbonate
  • c) Potassium Hydrate         d) Potassium Permanganate

72. Action of medicines on the vital force is called

  • a) Primary action to            b) Secondary action
  • c) Alternating action           d) Physiological action

73. Diseases which produced by the allopathic non healing art by the prolonged use of violent heroic medicines in large and over increasing doses is called the

  • a) Pseudo chronic diseases               b) Artificial chronic diseases
  • c) True natural chronic diseases    d) All of the above

74. Biochemic system of medicine is based on

  • a) Excess of nutrition theory    b) Deficiency disorder theory
  • C) Miasm                                          d) None of these

75. Fundamental cause of all the diseases are

  • a) Psora                 b) Syphilis
  • c) Sycosis              d) Bacteria

76. Idea about “Hydrogenoid, Carbagenoid and Oxygenoid” constitution was given by

  • a) Dr. Adolph Lippe            b) Dr. Farrington
  • c) Dr. Gravol                         d) None of these

77. A Homoeopath never selects medicine on the name of diseases EXCEPT

  • a) Indisposition                    b) Epidemic diseases
  • c) One sided diseases          d) Mental diseases

78. Homoeopathic Materia Medica written by Dr, C, Hering is an ideal book because

  • a) All the symptoms are clinically verified
  • b) Written after proving
  • c) He was the follower of Dr. Hahnemann
  • d) None of these

79. “Tolle causam” means

  • a) Palliation           b) Removal of the cause
  • c) Suppression      d) None of these

80. Pathagnomonic symptoms are those symptoms of the disease on

  • a) Which diagnosis can be made
  • b) Which prescription can be made
  • c) Which proper dose can be made
  • d) All of the above

81. The editor of `Synthesis’ is

  • a) George Vithoulkous        b) Fredric Schroyens
  • c) Robert Young                    d) John Slater

82. Puritian group Repertory is

  • a) Repertory which maintains the purity of symptoms as described and recorded in the words of the provers or clinicians
  • b) Repertory which does not care so much for the actual words but gives the sole values to essence the real meaning of the symptom
  • c) Repertory which described with the complete symptom like location, sensation modalities and concomitant
  • d) All of the above

83. First alphabetical pocket Repertory was written by

  • a) Boenninghausen             b) Weber Peschier
  • c) Rouff                                  d) Glazor

84. Time required for maceration is

  • a) 24 hours            b) 72 hours            c) 2-4 weeks          d) 6-7 weeks

85. Analytical Repertory by Hering was published in the year of

  • a) 1870                  b) 1879
  • c) 1881                  d) 1890

86. Nerve NOT related to humorus is

  • a) Radial               b) Ulnar
  • c) Median              d) Musculocutaneous

87. Sinuses are NOT seen in

  • a) Kidney                                 b) Spleen
  • c) Endocrine gland              d) Liver

88. Nerve supply of the cremaster muscle

  • a) Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve      b) Femoral nerve
  • c) Branch from sacral plexus                            d) Sub costal nerve

89. Appendicular artery is a branch of

  • a) Anterior cecal artery       b) Right colic artery
  • c) Middle colic artery          d) Ileocolic artery

90. Which foramen is also called as Foramen of Winslow ?

  • a) Lesser sciatic foramen   b) Sacral foramen
  • c) Epiploic foramen            d) Obturator foramen

91. The region in the Brachial Plexus where the six nerves meet, this point is called as

  • a) Thoracodorsal nerve      b) Dorsal nerve
  • c) Suprascapular nerve       d) Spinal part of accessory nerve

92. Blood platelets in stored blood do not remain functional after

  • a) 24 hrs     b) 48 hrs                c) 72 hrs                 d) 96 hrs

93. Factor deficiency in Christmas disease is

  • a) II        b) VII
  • c) VIII    d) IX

94. Paradoxical breathing is characteristic of

  • a) Pneumonia       b) Pneumothorax
  • c) Atelectasis        d) Diaphragmatic Paralysis

95. Vomiting centre is situated in

  • a) Hypothalamus               b) Amygdala
  • c) Pons                                   d) Medulla

96. What is the normal GFR (Glomerular Filtration Rate) ?

  • a) 6.20 ml/min     b) 125 ml/min      c) 160 ml/min       d) 9.75 ml/min

97. The overall condition of elevated concentration of Ketone bodies in tissues and blood is called

  • a) Ketolysis           b) Ketogenesis
  • c) Ketosis               d) Ketonemia

98.. Gloves, syringes, needles, etc., used for patients whose HIV test result is NOT known, should be immersed in

  • a) Povidone-iodine 1 %
  • b) Boiling water
  • c) 1% solution of sodium hypochlorite
  • d) 14% solution dettol

99. The pathology of Parkinsonism lies in

  • a) Red Nucleus
  • b) Nigro-Striatal tract
  • c) Hypothalamus
  • d) Hippocampus

100) Liquefactive necrosis is common in

  • a) GIT    b) Brain c) Liver  d) Heart

Courtesy : We are thankful to Dr.Pavan for providing this question booklet

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Govt of Andhrapradesh Homeopathy MD Entrance 2001

Select the most appropriate answer for each of the following 200 multiple choice questions and enter the answer against the corresponding question number in the answer sheet by a THICK HORIZONTAL STROKE in black ink with a sketch pen ACROSS a single correct alphabet a,b,c,d . More than one entry or other type of markings or incomplete markings or erased markings or dots will invalidate the mark for that question.

 Time : 3 hours                                     Marks : 200 

Example : If (d) is the correct answer

(a)      (b)    (c)  (d)

1. Pineal Gland

  • a) Is developed from the 3rd pharyngeal arch
  • b) Presents both facial & true capsules between which lie its venous plexus
  • c) Is made up of follicles lined by simple cuboidal epithelium
  • d) Is supplied by branches of the external carotid artery

2. Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by

  • a) Choroid plexuses
  • b) Lateral ventricles only
  • c) Arachnoid granulations
  • d) All the ventricles

3. The nerve is most likely to be compressed by cervical rib is

  • a) upper trunk of brachial plexus
  • b) lower trunk of brachial plexus
  • c) middle  trunk of brachial plexus
  • d) axillary nerve

4.The uterine artery  is branch of

  • a) common iliac artery
  • b) external iliac artery
  • c) internal iliac artery
  • d) ovarian artery

5.  The 3rd part of duodenum is

  • a) the longest part of duodenum
  • b) crossed in front by inf mesenteric artery
  • c)  developed from the foregut
  • d)  pierced by the ampulla of vater

6.Dietary fat is absorbed chiefly in the

  • a) stomach
  • b) jejunum
  • c) ileum
  • d) ascending colon

7. The neurotransmitter at the myoneuronal junction is

  • a) dopamine
  • b) norepinephrine
  • c) acetyl choline
  • d) histamine

8.The following are the imp buffer systems present in the blood except

  • a) plasma protein buffer
  • b) phosphate buffer
  • c) bicarbonate – carbonic acid buffer
  • d) haemoglobin

9. In which of the following organs will the rate of blood flow change the least during exercise

  • a) brain
  • b) stomach
  • c) intestine
  • d) kidney

10. Wernick’s encephalopathy is a condition associated with Deficiency of

  • a) vitamin B 12
  • b) folic acid
  • c)  thiamine
  • d)  nicotinic acid

11. Cholagogues

  • a) increases the secretions of bile
  • b) produce contraction of the gall bladder
  • c) increases the enterohepatic circulation
  • d) increased in choleliathiasis

12. Cholesterol in the body perform the following functions except

  • a) Involvement in the synthesis of sex hormones
  • b) Structural component of cell membrane
  • c) Required for synthesis of corticosteroids
  • d) Substrate for the synthesis of bile pigments

13. Vitamin d is an essential dietary nutrient for

  • a)  Pregnant & lactating women
  • b)  Humans not exposed to sunlight
  • c)  Adult men & women
  • d)  Children during growth

14.Melanin & melatonin are respectively synthesized from

  • a)  Tryptophan &tyrosine
  • b)  Tyrosine & Tryptophan
  • c)  Arginine  & Tryptophan
  • d)  Phenyl alanine & Tyrosine

15. Sickle cell hemoglobin is characterised by

  • a) Replacement of glutamate by valine at beta 6 position
  • b) Replacement of glutamate by lysine at beta 6 position
  • c) Replacement of glutamate by valine at beta 22 position
  • d) Replacement of glutamate by valine at alpha 6 position

16.  Tertiary prevention include the following

  • a) Early diagnosis & treatment
  • b) Specific protection
  • c) Health promotion
  • d) Rehabilitation

17. Which of the following diseases is transmitted by black fly

  • a) Sleeping sickness
  • b) Chagas diseases
  • c) Onchocerciasis
  • d) Babesiosis

18. All of the following are killed vaccine except

  • a) BCG vaccine
  • b) Japanese encephalitis vaccine
  • c) Hepatitis vaccine
  • d) Rabies vaccine

19. Which is the most common cause of blindness in India

  • a) Vitamin a deficiency
  • b) Cataract
  • c) Glaucoma
  • d) Corneal opacity

20. The incubation period for staphylococcal food poisoning

  • a) 1 – 6 hours
  • b) 12- 36 hours
  • c)  48 – 72 hours
  • d)  More than 72 hours

21. Least amount of  protein per 100 g is present in the milk of

  • a) Human milk
  • b) Cow milk
  • c) Goat milk
  • d) Buffalo milk

22. Measles vaccine currently used  in universal immunisation programme is a

  • a) Killed vaccine
  • b) Sub unit vaccine
  • c) Live attenuated vaccine
  • d) Polyvalent vaccine

23. Which of the following is an advantage in a case control study

  • a) easy to select the control groups
  • b) suitable to investigate rare disease
  • c) incidence of disease can be directly measured
  • d) temporal  relationship is clearly evident

24.Which of the following is the most common route of transmission of hepatitis A virus

  • a)  Faecal oral route
  • b)  Parenteral  route
  • c)  Sexual transmission
  • d)  Vertical transmission

25. Which of the following has the highest calcium content

  • a)  Jower
  • b)  Bajara
  • c)  Ragi
  • d)  Rice

26. Which of the following insecticide is used as a space spray

  • a) Abate
  • b) Pyrethrum
  • c) D.D.T
  • d) PARIS GREEN

27. Attack rate

  • a) Is an incidence rate of a disease
  • b) Is a prevalence  rate of a disease
  • c) Represent the killing power of a disease
  • d) Depends on the incubation period of the diseases

28. Physical quality of life index includes all of the following EXCEPT

  • a) Infant mortality
  • b) Life expectancy at age one
  • c) Per capita income
  • d) Literacy

29.Major signs for clinical definition of AIDS include all of the following EXCEPT

  • a) Weight loss more than 10 % of the body
  • b) c/c diarrhoea for more than one month
  • c) persistent cough for more than one month
  • d) prolonged fever for more than one month

30. Sex ratio is defined as

  • a) The no of males per 1000 females
  • b) The no of females per 1000 males
  • c) The no of males per 1000 population
  • d) The no of females per 1000 population

31. Amylodosis is significantly associated with the following EXCEPT

  • a) a/c pyelonephritis
  • b) medullary carcinoma thyroid
  • c) multiple myeloma
  • d) TB

32. ESR decreased in

  • a) Multiple myeloma
  • b) TB
  • c) Polycythemia
  • d) RA

33. Mesothelioma is significantly associated with

  • a) Asbestosis
  • b) Berylliosis
  • c) Siderosis
  • d) Silicosis

34.  A primary TB lesion seen in the following e except

  • a) Liver
  • b) Meninges
  • c) Small intestine
  • d) Tonsil

35. Which of the following ovarian neoplasm’s is associated with postmenopausal bleeding

  • a) Dysgerminoma
  • b) Endodermal sinus tumour
  • c) Granulosa  cell tumour
  • d) Krukenberg tumour

36. Which of the histological type Hodgkin s lymphoma is associated with best prognosis

  • a) Lymphocyte depletion
  • b) Lymphocyte predominance’s
  • c) Mixed ceullarity
  • d) Nodular sclerosing

37. Trisomy 21 is known as

  • a)  Patau s syndrome
  • b)  Edwards syndrome
  • c)  Marfan syndrome
  • d)  Down syndrome

38. Splenomegaly is seen all of the following except

  • a)  Hereditary spherocytosis
  • b)  Sickle cell anaemia
  • c)  Beta thalassemia
  • d)  c/c myeloid leukaemia

39. The most common tumour of the appendix is

  • a) Squamous cell carcinoma
  • b) Carciniod tumour
  • c) Adenocarcinoma
  • d) Lymphoepithelioma

40. Brown atrophy of heart is due to accumulation of

  • a) Haemosiderin
  • b) Haemofusin
  • c) Lipofusein
  • d) Free iron

41. The protozoa that causes water borne diarrheal disease is

  • a) Entamoeba
  • b) Toxoplasma
  • c) Giardia
  • d) Belantidium

42. The most sensitive method for demonstration of AFB in sputum is

  • a) Auramine rhodamine O
  • b) ZIEHL NEELSEN METHOD
  • c) KINUYON STAIN
  • d) Culture

43. Culture MEDIA COMMONLY — USED for growing bordetella pertussis is

  • a) Blood agar
  • b) Bordet gengou medium
  • c) Brucella agar
  • d) Brain heart infusion agar

44. The following parasitic infections are commonly seen in India except

  • a) Pinworm
  • b) Trichomoniasis
  • c) Microfilaria
  • d) Schistosomiasis

45. Identify the most combination of tests which gives the most  specific diagnosis of HIV

  • a) Elisa & western blot
  • b) Elisa  of 2 different regions
  • c) Elisa & Dot blot
  • d) Elisa & eastern blot

46. An increased serum iron & decreased iron binding capacity are found in

  • a) Iron deficiency anaemia
  • b) Megaloblastic anaemia
  • c) Anaemia of c/c disorders
  • d) Sideroblastic anaemia

47. Hypothermia in an uremic patient is due to

  • a) Failure of temperature regulating centre
  • b) Inhibition Na+  pump
  • c) Excessive dissipation of heat
  • d) Excessive sweating

48. Renal TB

  • a) Occurs as primary complex
  • b) Occurs always  as a result of lymphatic spread
  • c)  Tends to Occur in old people
  • d) Is characterised by sterile pyuria

49. The following clinical sign is seen in diabetic coma with ketosis

  • a) Moist skin
  • b) Full pulse
  • c) Brisk reflexes
  • d) Lowered B. P

50. The incubation period of mumps is

  • a) Around 3 days
  • b) Around 7 days
  • c) Around 10 days
  • d) Around 18 days

51. The following statement regarding SLE are true except

  • a) It is a multi system connective tissue disorder
  • b) There is profound disturbance of immune regulation
  • c) Arthritis ,arthralgia & fever are the commonest presenting features
  • d) Moderately enlarged spleen is seen in 90 % of cases

52.  Hypokalemia is characterised by

  • a) Scaphoid abdomen
  • b) Brisk reflexes
  • c) Loud quality of heart sounds
  • d) Weakness or paralysis of skeletal muscles

53.The following are true for ventricular septal defect , except

  • a) Spontaneous closure in 50 %
  • b) R/a respiratory infection & congestive failure
  • c) Infective endocarditis occurs in 25 % cases
  • d) Pulmonary hypertension occurs  a result of high pulmonary blood flow

54. Cholera is associated with

  • a) Gram positive organism infection
  • b) Metabolic alkalosis
  • c)  Hypovolemic shock
  • d) Hyperkalemia

55. Megaloblastic anaemia is associated with the following  , except

  • a) Folic acid deficiency
  • b) B12 deficiency
  • c) Orotic aciduria
  • d) Lead poisoning

56. Whispering pectoriloquy is heard in

  • a) Bronchitis
  • b) Bronchial asthma
  • c) Collapse due to peripheral bronchial obstruction
  • d) Diffuse pulmonary emphysema

57. Adult  respiratory distress syndrome

  • a) Is a single disease entity
  • b) Affects one lung
  • c) Produces pulmonary oedema
  • d) Is not a serious problem

58. ‘a’ wave in jugular venous patches is absent in

  • a) Pulmonary stenosis
  • b) Tricuspid stenosis
  • c) Pulmonary hypertension
  • d) Atrial fibrillation

59.  The first heart sound is accentuated in

  • a) Myocarditis
  • b) Cardiomyopathy
  • c) Mitral regurgitation
  • d) Thyrotoxicosis

60. Berger’s nephropathy is

  • a) Ig G type
  • b) Ig A type
  • c) Ig M type
  • d) Ig D type

61. Koplik s spots are seen in

  • a) Mumps
  • b) Measles
  • c) Rubella
  • d) Herpes simplex

62. Complications of myocardial infarction include all ,except

  • a) Pulmonary emboli
  • b) Systemic emboli
  • c) Dissection of aorta
  • d) Cardiogenic shock

63. “Sick-Cell Syndrome” is characterised by one of the following

  • a)   Hypo natriemia
  • b)   Hyper natriemia
  • c)   Hypo Kalemia
  • d)   Hyper Kalemia

64. Chest pain two weeks after acute myocardial infarction could be

  • a)   Dressler’s syndromc
  • b)   Integumental in origin
  • c)   Psychogenic in origin
  • d)   None of the above

65. The most common cause congenital hypothyroidism is

  • a)   Thyroid dysgenesis
  • b)   Defects of iodine transport
  • c)   Pendred’s syndrome
  • d)   Thyrotropin defeciency

66. Uveoparotid fever is characteristically seen in

  • a)   Tuberculosis
  • b)   Sarcoidosis
  • c)   Systemic lupus erythamatosis
  • d)   Sjogrens syndrome

67. N. Gonorrhoea ferments one of the following sugars

  • a)   Glucose
  • b)   Maltose
  • c)   Sucrose
  • d)   Fructose

68. Morbid preoccupation with symptoms and fear of disease, Either physical or psychological is a characteristic feature of

  • a)   Phobia
  • b)   Hypochondrasis
  • c)   Hysteria
  • d)   Generalised anxiety disorder

69. Body image disturbance is a characteristic features of

  • a)   Hypochondrias
  • b)   Manai
  • c)   Neurasthenia
  • d)   Anorexia nervosa

70. The genital warts are caused by

  • a)   Human Papilloma virus
  • b)   Herpes Simplex virus
  • c)   Cytomegalo virus
  • d)   Hepatitis-B Virus

71. All are the First Grade remedies for inflammation of endocardium, EXCEPT:   (Kent’s Repertory)

  • a)   Aurum Met
  • b)   Spigelia
  • c)   Kalmia
  • d)   Digitalis

72. First grade remedy for Paralysis agitans   (Kent’s Repertory)

  • a)   Tarentula
  • b)   Plumbum Met
  • c)   Zincum Met
  • d)   Baryata Carb

73. Mania following disappearance of neuralgia (Allen’s Key Notes of M. M)

  • a)   Kali Bichromicum
  • b)   Actea Racemosa
  • c)   Phytolacca
  • d)   Lac. Can.

74. Coryza; constant picking at nose until it bleeds. Acrid excoriating nasal discharge (Boericke’s M. M)

  • a)   Cina
  • b)   Arum Triphyllum
  • c)   Zincum Met
  • d)   Sticta pulmonalise

75. Violent collic, sensation as if abdominal wall was drawn as if by a string to the spine. Constipation, stools hard, lumpy, black like sheep-dung (Allen’s Key Notes of M. M)

  • a)   Kali Carb
  • b)   Plumbum met
  • c)   Opium
  • d)   Chelidonium

76.Madura foot is caused by

  • a)   Streptococcus viridans
  • b)   Nocardin
  • c)   Leprosy
  • d)   Ischemic disease of foot

77. Hydrochloric acid is secreted in the stomach  by

  • a)   Gastric epithelial cells
  • b)   Chief cells
  • c)   Pariental cells
  • d)   Gastrin cells

78. Desmoid tumours arise from

  • a)   Chest wall
  • b)   Musculoaponeurotic layers of abdominal wall
  • c)   Perineum
  • d)   Scalp

79. Which one of the statements about a furuncles is TRUE?

  • a)   Common in the sole of the foot
  • b)   Usually due to staphylococcus
  • c)   It must be treated by excision
  • d)   It is synonymous with carbuncle

80. CARDIOSPASM is due to

  • a)   Coronary atheroma
  • b)   Coronary spasm
  • c)   Cork screw oesophagus
  • d)   Functional disorder at the lower end of oesophagus

81. A blue green discharge from an ulcer indicates infection with

  • a)   Pseudomonas pyocyanents
  • b)   Streptococcus viridans
  • c)   Candida albicans
  • d)   Streptococcus aureus

82. Which of the following is least likely in cancer of the oral cavity

  • a)   It is squamous (epidermoid) in type
  • b)   Associated with tobacco
  • c)   Commonly spreads to lungs
  • d)   Diagnosis confirmed by incisional

83. Heamophilla is due to deficiency of

  • a)   Platelets
  • b)   Factor IX
  • c)   Factor VIII
  • d)   Fibrinogen

84. The ganglion contains

  • a)   Mucoid material
  • b)   Water
  • c)   Blood
  • d)   All of the above

85. Carpal tunnel syndrome is due to compression of

  • a)   Radial nerve damage
  • b)   Mediam nerve
  • c)   Ulnar nerve
  • d)   Flexor tendons

86. Volkman’s ischemic contracture is due to

  • a)   Massive loss of muscles
  • b)   Interruption in the nerve supply to the muscles
  • c)   Ischaemia of the muscles
  • d)   Myositis ossificans

87. Regarding bleeding polypus of the nose which one of the following is TRUE:

  • a)   It is an antrochoanal polyp
  • b)   It is a form of juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
  • c)   It is the other name for Rhinosporidiosis
  • d)   It is a capillary heamangioma arising from the septum

88. Recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies all of the following laryngeal muscles, EXCEPT:

  • a)   Posterior cricoarytenoid
  • b)   Crico-thyroid
  • c)   Lateral crico-arytenoid
  • d)   Thyro-arytenoid

89. Infantile glaucoma usually presents with

  • a)   Leucocoria
  • b)   Progressive visual loss
  • c)   Microphthalmos
  • d)   Photophobia

90. The triad of kerato conjunctivitis sicca, exrostomia and connective tissue disorder  is called

  • a)   Steven Jognson syndrome
  • b)   Parinaud’s syndrome
  • c)   Reiter’s syndrome
  • d)   Sjogren’s syndrome

91. First grade remedy for oedema of vocal cords (Ken’s Repertory)

  • a)   Lachesis
  • b)   Lycopodium
  • c)   Crotalus H-
  • d)   Arsenic Alb

92. Amaurosis from atrophy of retina or optic nerve. Dim sighted: sees as through a veil; strabismus, depending upon the brain trouble (Allen’s Key Notes of M.M.).

  • a)   Conium
  • b)   Gelsemium
  • c)   Tabacum
  • d)   Physostigma

93. Chronic sequelae of haemorrhages, after operation with oozing of blood and coldness and prostration;  For  shock after surgical operations (Boericke’s M. M)

  • a)   China
  • b)   Strontia.c
  • c)   Staphisagria
  • d)   Ruta G

94. Post operative gas pain, abdomen distended, tympanitic, hard emitted  ,upward or downward (Boericker’s M. M)

  • a)   Carbo veg
  • b)   Nux vomica
  • c)   Raphanus
  • d)   Lycopodium

95. The Only first grade remedy for heamorrhoids alternating with palpitation (Kent’s Repertory)

  • a)   Collinsonia
  • b)   Aloes
  • c)   Sulphur
  • d)   Aesculus

96. The presence of oligohydromnios denotes one of the following fetal abnormality

  • a)   Anennecephaly
  • b)   Cleft palate
  • c)   Tracheo-esophageal fistula
  • d)   Renal agenesis

97. Occipto posterior position of the fetus is diagnosed by

  • a)   Unengaged head
  • b)   Anterior shoulder well above the symphysis pubis
  • c)   Anterioror shoulder away from midline
  • d)   An easy palpable back of the fetus

98. Progress of labour can be best monitored by

  • a)   Recording of uterine contraction
  • b)   Descent of the foetal head
  • c)   Descent of anterior shoulder
  • d)   Cervicograph

99. The most likely cause of neonatal death in a breech delivery is:

  • a)   Low birth weight
  • b)   Intra-carnial hemorrhage
  • c)   Cord prolapse
  • d)   Intrapartum asphyxia

100. Umbilical cord commonly contains:

  • a)  Two veins and one artery
  • b)   Two arteries and one vein
  • c)   Two arteries and two veins
  • d)   One artery and one vein

101.  The commonest cause of prolonged labour in young primigravidae is:

  • a)   Cephalopelvic disproporation
  • b)   Breech presentation
  • c)   Face presentation
  • d)   Occipitoposterior presentation

102.  Disseminated intravascular Coagulation can be associated with all of the following conditions, EXPECT:

  • a)   Abruptio placenta
  • b)   Intrauterine fetal death
  • c)   Rhesus incompatibility
  • d)   Septic abortion

103.  The earliest clinical manifestation of pre-eclampsia is

  • a)   Rise in blood pressure
  • b)   Albuminuria
  • c)   Weight gain
  • d)   Narrowing of the retinal vessels

104.  The endometrium is lined by the following epithelium

  • a)   Simple cuboidal
  • b)   Stratified squamous
  • c)   Transitional
  • d)   Simple columnar

105.  The commonest causative organism in  Bartholinitis is

  • a)   Treponema pallidum
  • b)   Trichomonas vaginalis
  • c)   Neisseria Gonorrhea
  • d)   Herpes simplex

106.  All of the following tumours are germ cell  tomours of ovary, EXCEPT:

  • a)   Dys germinoma
  • b)   Granulosa cell tumour
  • c)   Teratoma
  • d)   Choricarcinoma

107. All the Following statements are true regarding vagina EXCEPT:

  • a)   Contain no glands.
  • b)   Is lined by squamous epithelium.
  • c)   Develops entirely from Mullerian ducts.
  • d)   Has acidic pH during reproductive life.

108.  All the following hormones are involved in regulation of menstrual cycle, EXCEPT:

  • a)   Oestradiol
  • b)   Human chorionic gonodotropins
  • c)   Luteinising hormone
  • d)   Follicular stimulating hormone

109.  The causes of while discharge in children include all of the following, Except:

  • a)   Foreign bodies
  • b)   Gonorrohea
  • c)   Mycotic infection
  • d)   Mycoplasma

110.  The following arteries give blood supply to vagina, EXCEPT:

  • a)   Uterine arteries
  • b)   Anterior division of the internal illiac artery.
  • c)   Middle rectal artery
  • d)   External pudendal artery

111.  Pain and numbers in right ovary running down of that side (Allen’s Key Notes of M.M.)

  • a)   Lycopodium
  • b)   Pulsatilla
  • c)   Podophyllum
  • d)   Kalmia

112.  A Lady suffering from leucorrhoea, which is acrid, corrosive offensive, worse between periods, has the odour of green corn, stiffens like starch, stains the linen  yellow.

  • a)   Kreosotum
  • b)   Bovista
  • c)   Borax
  • d)   Conium

113.  Bearing down sensation as if internal organs would be pushed out, must sit down and  cross limbs to amel. Pressure, Least contact  of parts causes violent sexual excitement.  Sore pain in uterus (Allen’s Key Notes of M.M.).

  • a)   Murex Purpurea
  • b)   SDepia
  • c)   Helonias
  • d)   Platina

114.  All are the first grade remedies for  “Regidity of so during labour, EXCEPT: (Kent’s Repertory).

  • a)   Caulophyllum
  • b)   Beiladonna
  • c)   Chamomilla
  • d)   Gelsemium

115.  Menses: too early, too profuse, too protracted;  partly fluid, partly clotted; flow in   paroxysms; with colic and labour-like  pains, from sacrum to pubes (Allen’s Key  Notes of M.M.).

  • a)   Ferrum Met
  • b)   Sabina
  • c)   Pulsatilla
  • d)   Secale Cor.

116.  Teething children are pale weak, fretful  and want to be carried rapidly (Allen’s Key  Notes of M.M.).

  • a)   Chamomilla
  • b)   Cina
  • c)    Arg. Alb.
  • d)   Ant. crud

117.  Happy dreams, wakes up singing (Allen’s Key Notes of M.M.).

  • a)   Natrum Mur.
  • b)   Sulphur
  • c)   Sepia
  • d)   Veratrum Alb.

118.  Foul breath in girls at puberty (Allen’s Key  Notes of M.M.).

  • a)   Merc. Sol.
  • b)   Carbo. animalis
  • c)   Baptisia
  • d)   Aurum met.

119.  Cough has gurgling sound, as if water was   being poured from a bottle (Allen’s Key Notes of M.M.).

  • a)   Ipecac
  • b)   Cuprum met.
  • c)   Phosphorous
  • d)   Senega

120.  Twitching of single muscles or group of muscles especially upper part of body: Chorea (Allen’s Key Notes of M.M.).

  • a)   Stramonium
  • b)   Hyoscyamus
  • c)   Cuprum met.
  • d)   Cicuta vir.

121.  The full name of Naja is

  • a)   Naja tripudians
  • b)   Naja Trifolium
  • c)   Naja Incarnata
  • d)   Naja Semperviens

122.  All the ailments are accompanied by drowsiness and sleepiness, or an inclination of faint even from slight pain with  great dryness of mouth (Allen’s Key Notes  of M.M.).

  • a)   Bryonia alb.
  • b)   Opium
  • c)   Hepar Sulph
  • d)   Nux moschata

123.  Every sound seems to penetrate through  the whole body, causing nausea and vertigo (Nash M.M.)

  • a)   Theridion
  • b)   Ferrum met
  • c)   Taraxicum
  •  d)   Conium

124.  Patients cannot bear tobacco, smoking or being in tobacco smoke produces or aggravates headache, Headache as if a nail were driven out through the site, relieved by lying on it (Allen’s Key Notes of M.M.).

  • a)   Staphisagria
  • b)   Tabacum
  • c)   Natrum Mur
  • d)   Ignatia

125.  Rheumatism alternating with gastric symptoms, one appearing in the fall and the other in the spring. Rheumatism and dysentery alternate. Pain in small spots can be covered with the tip of a finger (Allen’s Key Notes of M.M.).

  • a)   Kali carb
  • b)   Kali Bichromicum
  • c)   Aloe Soccotrina
  • d)   Rhus tox

126.  Fingers jerk when holding pen, Neuritis, Typewriter’s paralysis (Boericke’s M.M.)

  • a)   Zincum met
  • b)   Stannum met
  • c)   Aconite
  • d)   Arnica

127.  Sore throat before menses appear Menses too late and scanty, thick dark, like pitch; mucous leucorrhoea. Menses flow only in sleep; more profuse at night, or when lying down, cease while walking (Boericke’s M.M.)

  • a)   Magnesia Mur
  • b)   Mag carb
  • c)   Kali card
  • d)   Ammon, Mur

128.  Diarrhea before and during menses, cannot bear tight clothing around waist. Traces of menses between menstruation. Awkward, drops thing from hands (Boericke’s M.M.)

  • a)   Lachesis
  • b)   Apis
  • c)   Bovista
  • d)   Rhus tox

129.  Sensation of coldness in single parts profuse sweats on the head of large headed open fontanelles children (Nash M.M)

  • a)   Calc carb
  • b)   Moschus
  • c)  Calc phos
  • d)   Sulphur

130.  Eczema of lids, eruptions moist and fissured, margins of lids covered with scales and crusts. Stools are knotty and mucous often follows the stool (Nash M.M.)

  • a)   Graphite
  • b)   Hepar sulph
  • c)   Sulphur
  • d)   Mezereum

131.  Sensation as if something moving or hopping about in the stomach, abdomen, uterus or chest Haemorrhages from different parts blood is back viscid clotted and froming itself into long black string from the bleeding orifice (Nash M.M.)

  • a)   Crocus sativus
  • b)   Aconite
  • c)   Calcarea carb
  • d)   Millefolium

132.  Convulsions from concussion of the brain, Desire for unnatural things like coal. Back bent backward like an arch (Boericke’s M.M)

  • a)   Opium
  • b)   Cicuta virosa
  • c)   Calcarea carb
  • d)   Alumina

133.  …………………………. water or …………….. water complaints. Hydrophobia, fear of becoming mad, Cannot bear heat of sun (Allen’s Key Notes of M.M.).

  • a)   Lyssin
  • b)   Glonoine
  • c)   Lachesis
  • d)   Gelsemium

134.  Sweat sweat the files. Destroys ………… for tobacco. Aversion to motion, ………. to move (Allen’s Key Notes of M.M.)

  • a)   Bryonia
  • b)   Caladium
  • c)   Calcare carb
  • d)   Borax

135.  Vertigo when lying down, and when turning over in bed, when turning head sidewise, or  turning eyes; worse shaking head, slight noise or conversation of others, especially towards the left. Effects of suppressed sexual appetite (Boericke’s M.M.)

  • a)   Gelsemium
  • b)   Cocculus
  • c)    Conium
  • d)   Agaricus

136.  Drawing pain through the chest from breast to scapula, of the same side every time the child nurses; nipple very sore. Swashing sensation in the intestines, as from water, before stool. The bowels are moved as if by spasmodic jerks, “coming out like a shot”, as soon as patient eats, drinks or even while eating; yellow watery stool (Allen’s Key Notes of M. M)

  • a)   Aloe Soc
  • b)   Gambogia
  • c)   Croton tig
  • d)   Lilium tig

137.  Gastric complaints from ever comes stomach weak, digestion can be disturbed, a thick milky white coating on the tongue, very subject to canker sores in the mouth. Longing for acids and pickles. (Allen’s Key Notes of M. M)

  • a)   Sulphur
  • b)   Argentum Nitricum
  • c)   Antim Crud
  • d)   China

138.  Which of these is not a nosode?

  • a)   Medorrhinum
  • b)   Anthracinum
  • c)   Syphilinum
  • d)   Santonium

139.  Great dryness of mucous membrane of air passages- throat, larynx, trachea, bronchi- “dry as a horn”. Cough dry, sibilant, like a saw driven   through a pine board; <sweets, cold drinks. (Allen’s Key Notes of M. M)

  • a)   Nux.Moschata
  • b)   Spongia Tosta
  • c)   Bryonia alb
  • d)   Pulsatilla

140.  Pains sticking, pricking as from splinters, urine scanty, dark brown, strong smelling like horse’s urine, cold when it passes; turbid, looks like remains of a cider barrel (Allen’s Key Notes of M.M.)

  • a)   Nitric acid
  • b)   Benzoic acid
  • c)   Sulphuric acid
  • d)   Lactic acid

141.  Great depression; groundless fears of financial ruin (Boericke’s M. M)

  • a)   Kali Phos
  • b)   Calc Flour
  • c)   Ferrum Phos
  • d)   Natrum Mur

142.  Nausea or vomiting from riding in a carriage, boat of railroad car, or even looking at a boat in motion; sea-sickness. Bad effects: from loss of sleep, mental; excitement and night watching. (Allen’s Key Notes of M.M.)

  • a)   Coca
  • b)   Cocculus
  • c)   Arnica
  • d)   Nux vomica

143.  Pains stitching, darting, worse during rest and lying on affected side. Bag like swelling between the upper eyelid and eyebrows. Feels badly a week before menstruation: backache before and during menses. Great aversion to be alone (Allen’s Key Notes of M.M.)

  • a)   Kali Carb
  • b)   Apis
  • c)   Lycopodium
  • d)   Causticum

144.  Persons of feeble digestive powers; flatulence specially of tea drinkers. Violent twisting colic, in regular paroxysms, as if intestines were grasped and twisted by a powerful hand. Colic pains agg. bending forward and while lying; amel. Standing erect or bending backwards (Allen’s Key Notes of M.M.)

  • a)   Colocynth
  • b)   Duoscorea villosa
  • c)   Mag. Carb
  • d)   Lobelia Inflata

145.  Made the oil of turpentine, this remedy has peculiar urinary symptom like urine having the odour of violets; haematuria, blood thoroughly mixed with urine; sediment like coffee grounds; cloudy, smokey, albuminous; profuse dark or black, painless (Allen’s Key Notes of M.M.)

  • a)   Phosphorus
  • b)   Taraxicum
  • c)   Terebinth
  • d)   Colchicum

146.  Which of the following diseases is most difficult to be treated- (Organon of Medicine by Hahnemann)

  • a)   Pseudo Chronic diseases
  • b)   Artificial Chronic diseases
  • c)   Natural Chronic diseases
  • d)  One sided diseases

147.  Whenever a patient comes after being treated in allopathy, he should be – (Organon of Medicine by Hahnemann)

  • a)   Prescribed Nux Vomica
  • b)   Prescribed Sulphur
  • c)   Watched & given no medicine with a view to get the original picture of his natural disease
  • d)   Anti doted

148.  Which of the following is not true to the Hahnemannian classification of Intermittent fevers (Organon of Medicine by Hahnemann)

  • a)   Epidemic Intermittent fever occurring in marshy districts
  • b)   Epidemic Intermittent fever occurring sporadically
  • c)   Epidemic Intermittent fever where nne are epidemic
  • d)   All of the above

149.  “Half Acute Miasm” is the cause of (Hahnemann’s Chronic diseases)

  • a)   Rabies
  • b)   Measles
  • c)   Gonorrhoea
  • d)   None of the above

150.  The number of Aphorisms in the sixth edition of Dr. Hahnemann’s Organon of Medicine is

  • a)   294
  • b)   291
  • c)   274
  • d)   289

151.  Accessory symptoms becomes observable in the disease if the medicine administered happens to be

  • a)   Similimum
  • b)   Appropriate remedy
  • c)   Not perfectly appropriate remedy
  • d)   None of the above

152.  Second burial of Dr. Hahnemann took place at

  • a)   Montmartre cemetery
  • b)   Pere Lachaise cemetery
  • c)   Eythra cemetery
  • d)   None of the above

153.  Which observation of Dr. Kent shows that cure is taking place according to hering’s law of direction of cure (Kent’s Philosophy)

  •   a)   IInd observation
  •   b)   IIIrd observation
  •   c)   IXth observation
  •   d)   XIth observation

159. The term vital force changed into vital  principle in the

  • a)   The edition of Organon
  • b)   IVth edition of Organon
  • c)   Vth edition of Organon
  • d)   IIIrd edition of Organon

160. Proving of drugs onh healthy individuals is not easy as (Homeopathy the science of Therapeutics by C. Dunham)

  • a)   The doses by which corresponding varieties of symptoms are produced differ widely in different drugs
  • b)   The susceptibility of the different provers to the same drug is very different
  • c)   The susceptibility of prover to different preparations of the same drug is very various
  • d)   All of the above

161.  Hering’s law of direction of cure

  • a) The cure must take place from above downwards
  • b)   From within outwards
  • c)   In the reverse order of the appearance of Symptoms
  • d)   All of the above

162. “Similia Similibus Curenmter” is

  • a)   Let likes be treated by likes
  • b)   Like cures likes
  • c)   Same cures same
  • d)   All of the above

163. Dr. Hearing introduced

  • a)   Decimal scale
  • b)  Centesimal scale
  • c)   50 millesimal scale
  • d)   None of the above

164. “Quibus Auxillus” means (Lesser writings by Boenninghausen)

  • a)   Seat of the disease
  • b)  Concomitant ailments
  • c)   Personality of the disease
  • d)   Causation of the disease

165.  The grosser, over whelming symptoms are (Kent’s Philosophy)

  • a)   Toxicological results of drug
  • b)  Dynamic results of drug
  • c)   P. Q. R. S symptoms of drug
  • d)   None of the above

166.     Homoepathicity is (Kent’s Philosophy)

  • a)   The ralation between the homoeopathic remedy & the patient who has been cured
  • b)   Similia Similibus Curanter
  • c)   Equalia Equalibus Curenter
  • d)   City where all physicians practice homoeopathy

167.     One sided disease are those (Organons  of Medicine by Hahnemann)

  • a)   Which affect part of the body
  • b) Which affect half of the body
  • c)   Which display only one or two principle symptoms
  • d)   None of the above

168.     The successful Homoeopathician must be (Dr. Stuart Close’s Philosophy)

  • a)   An Artist
  • b)  Scientist
  • c)   Both artist and Scientist
  • d)   None of the above

169. Negative general symptoms (Dr. Stuart Close’s Philosophy)

  • a)   Absence of mental general symptoms
  • b)  Absence of physical general symptoms
  • c)   Absence o f expected or customary features in the case
  • d)   None of the above

170.     Susceptibility & potency are (Dr. Stuart Close’s philosophy)

  • a)   Directly proportional to each other
  • b)  Inversely proportional to each other
  • c)   Not related
  • d)   None of the above

171.  For proving, indigenous plants should be taken in the form of (Organon of Medicine)

  • a)   Freshly expressed Juice
  • b)  Tincture prepared with alcohol
  • c)   Powder form
  • d)   All of the above

172.   Lord Bacon was the father of (Orgaqnon of Medicine with B. K. Sarker Commentary)

  • a)  Objective & realistic tradition in the modern Philosophy
  • b)  Subjective & Idealistic tradition in the modern Philosophy
  • c)   Both (a) & (b)
  • d)   None of the above

173.     A Dynamic disease is extinguished by another that is more powerful when the later is (Organon of Medicine)

  • a)   Similar
  • b)   Equal
  • c)   Dissimilar
  • d)   Weaker

174.     Case taking is easy in acute diseases, because (Organon of Medicine)

  • a)   All the phenomena & alternation in state of health has recently lost
  • b)  These are still fresh in patients memory
  • c)   These are still continue to be novel & striking
  • d)   All of the above

175.     Full time amelioration of symptoms, yet no special relief of the patient. Indicates (Kent’s Philosophy)

  • a)   Latent existing organic condition in patient which prevents improvements beyond certain stage
  • b)   Medicine acting superficially
  • c)   Increased potency is required
  • d)   Change of remedy

176.     The chapters in the “Homoeopathy Medical Repertory” by Robin Mu…… N. D. are arranged in

  • a)   Alphabetical order
  • b)  Systematic order
  • c)   Hahnemannian order
  • d)   Hierarchical order

177.     In Kent’s Repertory the rubric, “lie down, inclination to” is found in the chapter

  • a)   Mind
  • b)  Generalities
  • c)   Extremities
  • d)   All of the above

178.     In Kent’s Repertory the rubric “Coldness, painful nerves, / along is found in the chapter

  • a)   Skin
  • b)  Generalities
  • c)   Extremities
  • d)   Chill

179.     The first edition of ‘Therapeutics of Fevers’ by H. C. Allen was published in the year

  • a)   1878
  • b)   1879
  • c)   1880
  • d)   1890

180.     In Kent’s Repertory the rubric “Rocking, amel’ is found in the chapter

  • a)   Mind
  • b)   Generalities
  • c)   Extremities
  • d)   Skin

181.     The earliest card Repertory was made by

  • a)   Dr. W. J. Guernsey
  • b)   Dr. H. N. Guernsey
  • c)   Dr. W. N. Guernsey
  • d)   H. J. Guernsey

182.     The first sub section in the chapter ‘Fever’ in the old edition of Boeninghausen’s Therapeutic Pocket Book is

  • a)   Circulation of Blood
  • b)   Chill
  • c)   Coldness
  • d)   Compound fevers

183.     The first ‘hernia’ is found under which chapter of Boenninghausen’s Therapeutic Pocket Book

  • a)   Abdominal Rings
  • b)   Internal abdomen
  • c)   External abdomen
  • d)   Sensations

184.     The plan of Concordance Repertory of Materia Medical by W. D. Gentry is based on

  • a)   Crudence concordance of Bible
  • b)   Hahnemannian method
  • c)   T. F. Allens method
  • d)   Mullers concordance of Bible

185.     Bogers-Bonninghausen’s Characteristic Repertory was published in the year

  • a)   1905
  • b)   1906
  • c)   1907
  • d)   1908

186.     Which is not a fundamental concept of Boger-Boenninghausen’s Repertory

  • a)   Doctrine of Complete symptom
  • b)   Doctrine  of Pathological general
  • c)   General to particular
  • d)   Doctrine of Causation & time

187.     Which chapter in Bogers-Boenninghausen’s Repertory

  • a)   Mind
  • b)   Sensorium
  • c)   Taste
  • d)   Stomach

188.     Which chapter in Boger-Boenninghausen’s Repertory incorporated rubric “Thirstlessness during fever”

  • a)   Stomach
  • b)   Sensations and complaint in general
  • c)   Thirst
  • d)   Heat and fever in general

189.     Which chapter in Boger-Bonninghausen’s Repertory incorporated rubric “Petechiae and ecchymosis”

  • a)   Upper extremities
  • b)   Lower extremities
  • c)   Skin and exterior body
  • d)   Sensations and complaints in general

190. Synthesis – Repertorium Homoeopathicum Syntheticum is authored by

  • a)   Frederick Schroyens
  • b)   H. Barthel
  • c)    Neatby and Stonham
  • d)   Boger

191.  Who was the first to incorporate grading of drugs in repertory?

  • a)   Dr. Hahnemann
  • b)   Dr. Kent
  • c)   Dr. Knerr
  • d)   Dr. Boenninghausen

192. Which symptom amongst the following has highest value in repertorisation by Kentian method

  • a)   Lack of vital heat
  • b)   Copious menses
  • c)   Alternate diarrhoea and constipation
  • d)   Diagonal complaints

193. In Kent’s Repertory the rubric “Insufficient, incomplete, unsatisfactory stools” is found in the chapter

  • a)   Mind
  • b)   Stool
  • c)   Abdomen
  • d)   Rectum

194.  “Berridge’s Repertory was published in the

  • a)   1873
  • b)   1875
  • c)   1825
  • d)   1850

195. In Boger-Boenninghausen’s Repertory the rubric “crackiness” is found in the chapter

  • a)   Stomach
  • b)   Vertigo
  • c)   Mind
  • d)   Sensation

196. The rubric ‘Sit inclination to’ is represented in which chapter of the Kent’s Repertory

  • a)   Mind
  • b)   Generalities
  • c)   Extremities
  • d)   All of the above

197. The rubric’Touch, illusion of’ is represented in which chapter of Kent’s Repertory

  • a)   Mind
  • b)   Generalities
  • c)   Eyes
  • d)   Extremities

198. “Lie down, before the dinner must” is a sub rubric of which main rubric in the chapter Generalities of Kent’s Repertory

  • a)   Lassitude
  • b)   Dinner
  • c)   Weariness
  • d)   Lie down

199. The rubric “Foreign bodies, sensation is small foreign bodies or grains of sand under the skin” is represented under which chapter of Kent’s repertory

  • a)   Skin
  • b)   Mind
  • c)   Extremities
  • d)   Generalities

200. In Kent’s Repertory, the rubric “Torticollis” is found in the chapter

  • a)   Throat
  • b)   External throat
  • c)   Extremities
  • d)   Generalities
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Govt of Andhrapradesh Homeopathy MD Entrance 2000

Select the most appropriate answer for each of the following 200 multiple choice questions and enter the answer against the corresponding question number in the answer sheet by a THICK HORIZONTAL STROKE in black ink with a sketch pen ACROSS a single correct alphabet a,b,c,d . More than one entry or other type of markings or incomplete markings or erased markings or dots will invalidate the mark for that question.

Time : 3 hours                                     Marks : 200

Example : If (d) is the correct answer

(a)      (b)    (c)  (d)

1. The lowest structure  in the root of the lung is

  • a) Pulmonary artery
  • b) Bronchus
  • c) Pulmonary vein
  • d) Inferior pulmonary vein

2. The hepato pancreatic ampulla opens in to

  • a)  1st  part of duodenum
  • b)  2nd part of duodenum
  • c)  3rd  part of duodenum
  • d)  4th  part of duodenum

3. Illioinguinal nerve

  • a)  Is a branch of lumbar plexus
  • b)  Passes through the deep inguinal ring
  • c)  Its root value is dorsal ramus L1
  • d)  Runs between external and internal oblique muscles of abdominal wall

4. The depressor temporomandibular joint is

  • a) Lateral pterygoid
  • b) Medial pterygoid
  • c) Masseter
  • d) Temporalis

5. The following statement regarding motor speech ( Broca’s area) is true

  • a) It is present bilaterally
  • b) It is supplied by middle cerebral artery
  • c) A lesion in this area results in the paralysis of laryngeal muscles
  • d) It is situated in the temporal lobe of cerebrum

6.The axon reflux is related to

  • a)  Wheal
  • b)  Red reaction
  • c)  Flare
  • d)  White reaction

7. The following are increased during muscular exercise except

  • a) Peripheral resistance
  • b) Cardiac output
  • c) Venous return
  • d) Coronary blood flow

8.The ‘C’ wave in arterial pressure tracing is due to

  • a) Atrial filling
  • b) Atrial systole
  • c) Ventricular filling
  • d) Ventricular systole

9. Mammalian RBC are biconcave, therefore

  • a)   They can easily pass through capillary
  • b)   They are flexible
  • c)   Their surface area is more compared to sphere of the same diameter
  • d)   They can be stacked one over other to form ‘roluex’

10.One of the following statement is true of Rh factor

  • a) Has no naturally occurring antibodies
  • b) Is present only in women
  • c) Is present only in human race
  • d) Is not important for blood transfusion

11.Oxidative phosphorylations is inhibited at cytochrome oxidase by

  • a) Carbondioxide
  • b) Barbiturates
  • c) Carbon monoxide
  • d) Rotenone

12.In Glycolysis ATP synthesis is catalyzed by

  • a)   Hexokinase
  • b)   6 phosphofructo 1 kinase
  • c)   Glyceraldehydes 3 phosphate de hydrogenas
  • d)   Phosophoglycerate kinase

13.Carboxypeptid  B acts as an Exopeptidase and hydrolyses terminal  peptide bonds containing

  • a) Lysine and arginine
  • b) Glycine and leucine
  • c) Leucine arid isoleucine
  • d) Leucine and arginine

14.In which disease of the following organs, LDH1 and LDH will be released in plasma?

  • a)  Kidney, Red cells, Liver
  • b)  Heart, Kidney, Redcells
  • c)  Heart, Kidney, Liver
  • d)  Heart, Lungs, Brain

15.The two nitrogen atom in urea arise from

  • a) Ammonia and glutamine
  • b) Ammonia and aspartic acid
  • c) Glutamine and aspartic acid
  • d) Glutamic acid and alanine

16.The chlorination of water

  • a) Kills all spores
  • b) Kills hepatitis A virus at normal concentration
  • c) Kills polio virus at normal concentration
  • d) Has residual effect

17.The causative agent in epidemic typhus

  • a)  Rickettsia Quintana
  • b)  Rickettsia prowazeki
  • c)  Borellia recurrentis
  • d)  Tunga penetrans

18.The bacteria that are involved in nosocomial (hospital associated) infections are transmitted most often by

  • a)  Airborne route
  • b)  Fomites
  • c)  Indwelling catheters
  • d)  Direct contact via hands

19.The safe limit of fluorine level in drinking water

  • a) 0.5 to 0.8 mg/litre
  • b) 1.0 to 1.5 mg/litre
  • c) 2.0 to 2.5 mg/litre
  • d) 3.0 to 3.5 mg/litre

20.The disease transmitted by hardtick is

  • a) Viral hemorrhagic fever
  • b) Epidemic typhus
  • c) Malaria
  • d) Relapsing fever

21.‘Q’ fever is caused by

  • a) Streptococcus pyogens
  • b) Aspergilla
  • c) Coxiella burnetti
  • d) Dipetalonema strepocerca

22.The antigenic source of farmer’s lung is

  • a)  Unharvested paddy field
  • b)  Fresh cut hay
  • c)  Mouldy hay
  • d)  Paddy or rice husk

23.The following statement about breast feeding are true except

  • a) The incidence of infection is greater than bottle fed than in breast fed infants
  • b) Breast milk promote bonding between mother and infant
  • c) Breast milk provide about 115 K cal per 100 gms
  • d) It provides about 3.5 gms fats per 100 gms

24.The vector for dengue haemorrahgic fever is

  • a) Culex tritaeneorynchus
  • b) Phlebotomus papatasi
  • c) Aedes aegypti
  • d) Culex vishnui

25.In drinking water minimum recommended concentration of free chlorine is

  • a) 0.1 mg/litre
  • b) 0.2 mg/litre
  • c) 0.5 mg/litre
  • d) 1.0mg/litre

26.Community health centre’s are

  • a)  Upgraded primary health centres
  • b)  Upgraded health sub centres
  • c)  Upgraded ICDS centres
  • d)  Upgraded district hospitals

27.The working of septic tank is by

  • a) Aerobic digestion
  • b) Anerobic digestion
  • c) Both aerobic and anerobic digestion
  • d) Sedimentation and sludge formation

28.Side effects of oral contraceptive pills include all the following except

  • a) Breakthrough bleeding
  • b) Hypertension
  • c) Pelvic infection
  • d) Thromboembolism

29.One of  the following statements are true about iron requirements  except

  • a)  Human iron requirements are satisfied by cow’s milk
  • b)  Iron requirements of women decrease after menopause
  • c)  Iron requirements are approximately same in adult men and postmenopausal women
  • d)  Iron requirements increase during pregnancy

30.All the following infections are transmitted by sandflies except

  • a) Leishmaniasis
  • b) Sandfly fever
  • c) Chagas disease
  • d) Bartonellosis

31.Alpha feto protein is a marker for

  • a) Cholangio carcinoma
  • b) Angiosarcoma
  • c) Hepatocellular carcinoma
  • d) Leiomyoma

32.The commonest cause of congestive splenomegaly is

  • a) Cirrhosis of liver
  • b) Right heart failure
  • c) Portal vein thrombosis
  • d) Splenic vein thrombosis

33.The syndrome associated with grossly pigmented liver is

  • a) Rotor
  • b) Dubin Johnson
  • c) Gilbert’s
  • d) Crigler – Najjr

34.All the following are parts of triad of causes of thrombosis, except

  • a)  Alteration in blood flow
  • b)  Endothelial damage
  • c)  Thrombocytopenia
  • d)  Hyper coagulability

35.The substance which accumulates excess in Goucher’s disease

  • a)  Sphingomyelin
  • b)  Glucocerbroside
  • c)  Glycogen
  • d)  Glycolipid

36.Off the following intestinal polyp is most likely to undergo malignant change

  • a)  Hyperplastic
  • b)  Hamartomatous
  • c)  Lymphoid
  • d)  Adenomatous

37.Heart failure cells are haemosiderophagus found in

  • a) Heart
  • b) Spleen
  • c) Liver
  • d) Lung

38.The commonest tumor of the uterus is

  • a)  Leiomyoma
  • b)  Endometrial carcinoma
  • c)  Leiomyosarcoma
  • d)  Stromal sarcoma

39.The commonest type of ovarian teratoma is

  • a)  Immature
  • b)  Benign cyst
  • c)  Teratocarcinoma
  • d)  Struma liver

40.The commonest histological type of bronchogenic carcinoma

  • a) Small cell carcinoma
  • b) Adenocarcinoma
  • c) Large cell carcinoma
  • d) Squamous cell carcinoma

41.The following organism are encapsulated except

  • a)  Streptococcus pneumonia
  • b)  Vibrio cholera
  • c)  Haemophilus influenza
  • d)  Klebsiella pneumonia

42.The parasitic infection congenitally acquired is

  • a) Amoebiasis
  • b) Toxoplsamosis
  • c) Giardiasis
  • d) Balantidiasis

43.Direst coomb’s test is done with

  • a)  RBCs
  • b)  Plasma
  • c)  Serum
  • d)  Platlets

44.Cresentic or kidney shaped gametocytes are characteristic of

  • a)  Plasmodium vivax
  • b)  Plasmodium falciparum
  • c)  Plasmodium malaria
  • d)  Plasmodium ovale

45.One of the following causes food poisoning

  • a) Vibrio cholera classical
  • b) Vibrio cholera eltor
  • c) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
  • d) Vibrio cholera 0139

46.The clinical features of acute severe asthma include the following except

  • a)  Marked wheezing and breathlessness
  • b)  Silent chest
  • c)  Respiratory rate over 25 per minute
  • d)  Absence of cyanosis

47.The following features occurs in Dengue fever except

  • a) Saddle back fever
  • b) Cervical lymph adenopathy
  • c) Leucocytosis
  • d) Bradycardia

48.Clinical manifestation of polyneuropathy includes

  • a) Muscle weakness and atrophy
  • b) Brisk tendon refluxes
  • c) Proximal part of limb affected first
  • d) Distal progression as the disorder become severe

49.The following are true in iron deficiency anemia except

  • a) Decrease in iron stores
  • b) Decreased level of serum ferritin to less than 10mg/ml
  • c) Decreased level of free erythrocyte protoporphyrin (FEP)
  • d) Decrease in activity of intracellular enzymes contacting iron

50.One of the following statements regarding AIDS is false

  • a) It is caused by retero virus
  • b) Pneumocystis carinni infection is commonly associated
  • c) Serology is confirmatory for diagnosis
  • d) Virus is resistant to heat and other disinfectants

51.Rasmussen’s aneurysm are found in

  • a) Anterior part of circle of Willis
  • b) Posterior part of circle of Willis
  • c) Tuberculous cavity
  • d) Abdominal aorta

52.The most common urinary abnormality in a patient with acute glomerulonephritis  is

  • a) Macroscopic hematuria
  • b) Microscopic hematuria
  • c) Protenuria
  • d) Significant bacteuria

53.All the following can cause megaloblastic anemia, except

  • a)  Crohn’s disease
  • b)  Diphyllobothrium latum
  • c)  Perinicious anemia
  • d)  Hookworm infestation

54.Factors pre disposing to hyperuricemia and gout are

  • a) Psoriasis
  • b) Myxoedema
  • c) Hyperparathyroidism
  • d) All the above

55.The following are important complications of  chronic bronchitis except

  • a) Respiratory failure
  • b) Rt ventricular failure
  • c) Secondary polycythemia
  • d) Hyperuricemia

56.Following statement regarding senile dementia are true except

  • a) Early personality deterioration
  • b) Late impairment of intellect
  • c) CT shows cortical shrinkage and dilatation of ventricle
  • d) Occurs after 65 years

57.All the following are features of tetralogy of fallot except

  • a) Pulmonary stenosis
  • b) Ventricular septal defect
  • c) Left ventricular hypertrophy
  • d) Over riding of aorta

58.Cutaneous larva migrans occurs in infection with

  • a) Ancylostoma brasilianse
  • b)  Toxocara canis
  • c) Scabies
  • d) Echinococcus granulosus

59.In diabetic patient impotence may be attributed to

  • a) Autonomic neuropathy
  • b) Vascular insufficiency
  • c) Psychogenic origin
  • d) All the above

60.Necrobiosis lipoidica is associated with

  • a) Diabetes mellitus
  • b) Panniculitis
  • c) Hyperthyroidism
  • d) Hyperparathyroidism

61.Reiter’s syndrome is a triad of the following symptoms

  • a) Urethritis, Cervicitis and Salpingitis
  • b) Urethritis, Conjunctivitis and arthritis
  • c) Urethritis, cystitis and pyelitis
  • d) Urethritis, cystitis and proctitis

62.Pigmentation of oral mucosa is diagnostic of

  • a)  Vit A deficiency
  • b)  Secondary syphilis
  • c)  Addison’s disease
  • d)  Lead poisoning

63.All are true regarding adult respiratory syndrome  except

  • a)  Decreased tidal volume
  • b)  Decreased lung compliance
  • c)  Increased respiratory rate
  • d)  Increased pulmonary capillary pressure

64.Macroglossia is seen in

  • a) Amyloidosis
  • b) Addison’s disease
  • c) Motor neurone disease
  • d) Syringiomyelia

65.Creeping eruptions are more commonly seen in infections with

  • a) Ankylostoma duodenale
  • b) Nectar americanus
  • c) Ankylostoma caninum
  • d) None of the above

66.Which one of the pair of polypeptide chains constitute haemoglobin F

  • a)  Alpha 2 Beta 2
  • b)  Beta 2 Gamma 2
  • c)  Alpha 2 Gamma 2
  • d)  Gamma 2 Delta 2

67.One of the following cannot be diagnosed by stool examination

  • a)  Entrobius vermicularis
  • b)  Trichuris trichura
  • c)  Ancylostomiasis
  • d)  Ascariasis

68.Hyper esinophilic syndrome is charectrised by all except

  • a) Peripheral esinophilia
  • b) Parasitic infestation
  • c) Bone marrow esinophilia
  • d) Tissue esinophilia

69.The major criteria in rheumatic fever according to modified Jone’s criteria includes

  • a) Fever
  • b) Arthralgia
  • c) Chorea
  • d) Prolonged PR interval

70.The most effective method for definitive diagnosis of Granuloma venerum is by

  • a) Tissue smear
  • b) Serum tests
  • c) Skin tests
  • d) Culture

71.First grade remedy for cough after measles in Kent’s repertory

  • a)  Carb.veg
  • b)  Arnica
  • c)  Pulsatilla
  • d)  Cuprum met

72.First grade remedy for chorea ameliorated during sleep in Kent’s repertory

  • a) Agaricus
  • b) Actea recemosa
  • c) Helliborous nig
  • d) Mygale

73.Asthma where the patient can only breath by standing up (Allen’s Key note)

  • a) Ignatia
  • b) Mephitis
  • c) Corallium Rub
  • d) Cannabis sativa

74.Epilepsy from valvular diseases of the heart (Allen’s Key note)

  • a) Calc.ars
  • b) Cretagus
  • c) Digitalis
  • d) Cactus Grand

75.Heart disease that had developed from rheumatism or alternate with it, pulse slow, scarcely perceptible (35 -40 per minute) pale face and cold extremities (Allen’s Key note)

  • a) Ledum pal
  • b) Kalmia lat
  • c) Aurum met
  • d) Lilium tig

76.Cysticercosis is a cyst of

  • a) Echinococcus
  • b) Taenia solium
  • c) Dracunlus
  • d) Trichenella

77.The one feature common to all forms of shock is

  • a) Falling right atrial pressure
  • b) Inadequate tissue perfusion
  • c) Reduction in cardiac out put
  • d) Fall in left atrial pressure

78.Gas gangrene is caused by

  • a)  Clostridium perfringens
  • b)  Anaerobic streptococcus
  • c)  Eschericia coli
  • d)  Clostridia difficile

79.Neuroblastoma is a malignant tumor of

  • a) Adrenal cortex
  • b) Adrenal medulla
  • c) Kidney
  • d) Spleen

80.Froment’s sign shows a paralyzed

  • a)   Median nerve
  • b)   Ulnar nerve
  • c)   Radial nerve
  • d)   Circumflex nerve

81.Compound fracture means

  • a) Fracture associated with neurovascular complication
  • b) Comminuted fracture
  • c) Fracture which communicate outside through an open wound
  • d) Double fracture

82.Osteitis fibrosa cystic is due to

  • a) Hyperthyroidism
  • b) Hyperparathyroidism
  • c) Hypoparathyroidism
  • d) None of the above

83.Kretagner’s syndrome is characterized by the following except

  • a) Situs inversus
  • b) Chronic sinusitis
  • c) Chronic mastoditis
  • d) Braonchiectasis

84.Factors delaying wound healing are all except

  • a) Malignant disease
  • b) Hypertension
  • c) Uremia
  • d) Diabetes

85.Regarding ‘peau d orange’ following statements are true except

  • a)  Due to cutaneous lymphatic edema
  • b)  Is a classical sign of early breast cancer
  • c)  Occasionally seen in chronic abscess
  • d)  Resembles orange peel

86.Honey comb liver is a feature of

  • a) Cirrhosis of liver
  • b) Actinomycosis
  • c) Hydatid cyst
  • d) Gumma liver

87.Pipe stem colon is characteristics of

  • a) Ulcerative colitis
  • b) Hirschsprung’s disease
  • c) Diverticulosis
  • d) Amoebic colitis

88.Nerve abscess in leprosy is commonly seen in

  • a)  Median nerve
  • b)  Lateral popliteal nerve
  • c)  Greater auricular nerve
  • d)  Ulnar nerve

89.The tumor of testis which spreads by lymph stream is

  • a) Steroli cell tumor
  • b) Choriocarcinoma
  • c) Teratoma
  • d) Seminoma

90.The most common cause of conjunctivitis is

  • a) Staphylococcal infection
  • b) Trachoma
  • c) Drug irritation
  • d) Contact lens wearing

91.First grade remedy for prolapse of rectum in children in Kent’s repertory

  • a) Podophyllum
  • b) Nux.v
  • c) Ruta
  • d) Aloe. S

92.First grade remedy for crushed and lacerated wounds of finger ends in Kent’s repertory

  • a) Laedum Pal
  • b) Staphysagria
  • c) Hypericum
  • d) Arnica

93.Renal colic, intense pain in ureters with sensation of passing calculus with craving for ice in Allen’s Keynotes of MM

  • a) Medorrhinum
  • b) Verat.alb
  • c) Beriberis Vulg
  • d) Phosphorous

94.Promotes expulsion of foreign bodies from tissue. Fish bone, needles, bone splinters ( Allen’s Key notes)

  • a) Hepar.S
  • b) Merc.sol
  • c) Sulphur
  • d)  Silicea

95.Dry senile gangrene aggravation from external heat ( Allen’s Key notes)

  • a) Secale cor
  • b) Silicea
  • c) Phosphorous
  • d) Antim.crud

96.Precipitated labour can cause all the following except

  • a) Postpartum haemorrhage
  • b) Prolonged labour
  • c) Perennial lacerations
  • d) Cervical incompetence

97.Maternal death in eclampsia occurs due to

  • a) Cerebral haemorrhage
  • b) Pulmonary edema
  • c) Renal failure
  • d) All the above

98.The largest diameter of fetal skull is

  • a) Mentovertical
  • b) Submento bregmatic
  • c) Sub occipitobregmatic
  • d) Occipito frontal

99.Sheehan’s syndrome is caused by thrombosis of vessels supplying

  • a) Anterior pituitary
  • b) Posterior pituitary
  • c) Thyroid  gland
  • d) Adrenal gland

100.Colostrums has more of the following compared to breast milk

  • a)  Calcium
  • b)  Magnesium
  • c)  Iron
  • d)  Copper

101.In a primigravida ith 12 weeks amenorrhea and vaginal bleeding  with internal os admitting a finger, the most likely diagnosis is

  • a)  Threatened abortion
  • b)  Inevitable abortion
  • c)  Incomplete abortion
  • d)  Complete abortion

102.In the histological examination of choriocarcinoma, which one of the following absent?

  • a) Trophoblast
  • b) Haemorrhage into surrounding tissue
  • c) Villi
  • d) Necrosis of adjoining tissue

103. Which one of the following is associated with maximum risk for endometrial malignancy

  • a) Atypical hyperplasia
  • b) Cystic glandular hyperplasia
  • c) Adenomatous hyperplasia
  • d) Proliferative endometrium

104.The karyotype typical of Turner’s syndrome

  • a) 47XXY
  • b) 48XXXY
  • c) 45X
  • d) 47XXX

105.Klinfelter’s syndrome is associated with all the following except

  • a) Gynaecomastia
  • b) XXX chromosome
  • c) Infertility
  • d) Mental defect

106.In a 30 day menstrual cycle, ovulation occurs between the following cycle days

  • a) 11 to 13
  • b) 14 to 16
  • c) 17 to 19
  • d) 20 to 22

107.The most common cause of postpartum haemorrhage is

  • a) Uterine fibroids
  • b) Antepartum haemorrhage
  • c) Mismanagement of 3rd stage of labour
  • d) Coagulation defects

108.Oestrogens are secreted by one of the following

  • a) Cystic teratoma
  • b) Granulose cell tumor
  • c) Dysgerminoma
  • d) Arrhenoblastoma

109.The decubitus ulcer in prolapse of the uterus is due to

  • a) Supravaginal elongation of cervix
  • b) Friction of exposed parts
  • c) Congestion and circulatory changes
  • d) Hyperkeratosis

110.The most common complication in a fibromyoma during pregnancy is

  • a)  Cystic degeneration
  • b)  Red degeneration
  • c)  Calcareous deposits
  • d)  Infection

111.Phlebitis, puerperal after forceps delivery (Allen’s Key notes)

  • a)  Allium cepa
  • b)  Secal cor
  • c)  Cimicifuga
  • d)  Caulophyllum

112.Leucorrhoea, thick bluish white mucus especially or only night (Allen’s Key notes)

  • a) Syphillinum
  • b) Alumina
  • c) Ambra griesa
  • d) Pulsatilla

113.Cold drinks relieves menstrual pain and menstrual flow aggravates on lying down ( Allen’s Key notes)

  • a) Mag.Carb
  • b) Kreosote
  • c) Bovista
  • d) Ammonium mur

114.First grade remedy for abortion from excitement (Kent’s repertory)

  • a) Aconite
  • b) Gelsemium
  • c) Sepia
  • d) Opium

115.Prolapsus uteri, seemingly in hot weather ( Allen’s Key notes)

  • a) Medorrhinum
  • b) Lilium tig
  • c) Kali. Bich
  • d) Nat.carb

116.Convulsions preceded by great restlessness (Allen’s Key notes)

  • a) Ars. Alb
  • b) Rhus. Tox
  • c) Arg.nit
  • d) Aconite

117.Always anticipating, feels matter most positively, before they occur and generally correctly (Allen’s Key notes)

  • a) Ars alb
  • b) Arg nit
  • c) Medorrhinum
  • d) Phosphorous

118.Very forgetful in business, but during sleep  dreams of what he had forgotten (Allen’s Key notes)

  • a) Lachesis
  • b) Selenium
  • c) Anacardium
  • d) Cannabis Indica

119.When symptoms re-appear they change locality or go from one side to other (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Agaricus
  • b) Led.pal
  • c) Anti.crud
  • d) Phytolacca

120.Feels unusually well day before the attack (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Ignatia
  • b) Psorinum
  • c) Thuja.oc
  • d) Hyoscyamus

121.As the coldness of the body increases so also does the ill humor (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Allium Cepa
  • b) Eup.perf
  • c) Podophyllum
  • d) Capsicum

122.Excessively happy,affectionate, ants to kiss everybody, the nest moment in a rage (Allen’s key notes)

  • a)  Ignatia
  • b)  Crocus.sat
  • c)  Murex
  • d)  Lilium tig

123.When child nurses, pain goes from nipple to all over body (Allen’s key notes)

  • a)  Crot.tig
  • b)  Phytolacca
  • c)  Medorrhinum
  • d)  Rhus.tox

124.Enuresis diurnal et nocturna, profuse watery urine, where habit is the only ascertainable cause (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Equisetum hyemale
  • b) Acid.p
  • c) Helonias
  • d) Cantharis

125.Constipation with ineffectual urging ameiolerated by drinking cold milk (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Iodum
  • b) Rhus.tox
  • c) Chelidoneum
  • d) Phosphorous

126.Cataract, gauze before eyes with complaints caused by checked foot sweat (Boerick’s MM)

  • a)  Calc. carb
  • b)  Phosphorous
  • c)  Silicea
  • d)  Baryta carb

127.Small wounds bleed freely and cough after influenza (Boerick’s MM)

  • a)  Lachesis
  • b)  Crotalus.H
  • c)  Kreosote
  • d)  Phosphorous

128.Before menses pain in sacrum, hunger, palpitation and amenorrhea with asthma (Boerick’s MM)

  • a) Cuprum.met
  • b) Lachesis
  • c) Iodum
  • d) Spongia

129.Expectoration gray, thick bloody purulent salty with nocturnal pyuria (Boerick’s MM)

  • a) Phosphorous
  • b) Pulsatilla
  • c) Lycopodium
  • d) Ars.alb

130. Headache if obliged to pass dinner hour, rt sided prosopalgia, constrictive pain in the head and pain return at the same hour. (Boerick’s MM)

  • a)  Ars.alb
  • b)  Lachesis
  • c)   Cactus. Grand
  • d)   Lycopodium

131.Piles with scanty menses at climaxis, strangulated with stitches shooting upwards (Allen’s key notes)

  • a)  Pulsatilla
  • b)  Lachesis
  • c)  Graphitis
  • d)  Collinsonia

132.Frequent urging to urinate, if desire is not attended with sensation of congestion in chest (Allen’s key notes)

  • a)  Lilium tig
  • b)  Cannabis.I
  • c)  Stannum.met
  • d)  Phosphorous

133.Stammering, repeats first syllable three or four times, with abdominal ailments, with helminthiasis (Allen’s key notes)

  • a)  Stramonium
  • b)  Bovista
  • c)  Spigelia
  • d)  Gelsemium

134.Sensation of growing larger in every direction (Allen’s key notes)

  • a)  Asarum Europ
  • b)  Platina
  • c)  Thuja
  • d)  Cannabis ind

135.Sweat, mouldy musty odor, after 4am, every morning,on neck and forehead, very debilitating. (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Stannum
  • b) Silicea
  • c) Psorinum
  • d) Sulphur

136.Can only void  urine while sitting bend backwards (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Kali.carb
  • b) Hep.s
  • c) Zincum.m
  • d) Medorrhinum

137.Circumscribed red cheeks in afternoon, burning in ears, in bronchitis,pneumonia,pthisis (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Sangunaria.can
  • b) Chamomilla
  • c) Sulphur
  • d) Phosphorous

138.Mentally happier when leucorrhoea is worse (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Sepia
  • b) Ignatia
  • c) Murex
  • d) Thuja

139.Avaricious, greedy, miserly, malicious, pusillanimous (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Nux.v
  • b) Lycopodium
  • c) Sulphur
  • d) Calc.carb

140.Cold sensation in larynx on inspiration ameliorated after shaving (Allen’s key notes)

  • a) Bromium
  • b) Carb.animalis
  • c) Iodum
  • d) Phosphorous

141.Stitches in the chest, pleurisy with exudation, tendency to gangrene (Boerick’s material medica)

  • a) Kali.c
  • b) Cantharis
  • c) Bryonia
  • d) Squilla

142.Parotid gland swollen with night walking (Boerick’s materia medica)

  • a) Rhus.t
  • b) Belladonna
  • c) Calc.carb
  • d) Silicea

143.Aural vertigo,burning in lower lip in old smokers, lip swollen dry black and cracked (Boerick’s materia medica)

  • a) Aurum met
  • b) Silicea
  • c) China
  • d) Bryonia

144.Great weakness and trembling, tongue trembles while protruding, catches under the lower teeth. (Nash MM)

  • a) Lycopodium
  • b) Lachesis
  • c) Rhus.t
  • d) Sulphur

145.Dyspnoea , agg from sitting, after sleep in room, amel by dancing or walking rapidly (Nash MM)

  • a) Rhus.t
  • b) Psorinum
  • c) Sepia
  • d) Kali.carb

146.Dr.Hahnemann went to Leipzig university to study medicine in the year

  • a) 1779
  • b) 1775
  • c) 1777
  • d) 1782

147.Dr. Hahnemann translated Cullen’s material medica from English in the year

  • a)  1799
  • b)  1790
  • c)  1793
  • d)  1803

148.The theme of dissertation submitted by Hahnemann   to Erlanger University for his MD examination was

  • a)  Experiment on hydrophobia
  • b)  On mineral waters and warm bath
  • c)  The wonderful construction of human hand
  • d)  A view of the cause and treatment of cramps

149.First edition of Dr.Hahnemann’s ‘The chronic disease, their peculiar nature and their homeopathic cure’ was published in the year

  • a)  1790
  • b)  1828
  • c)  1805
  • d)  1819

150.The homeopathic law of nature has been enunciated by Dr.Hahnemann in his Organon aphorism

  • a)   7
  • b)  48
  • c)  26
  • d)  57

151.The true natural chronic disease are that arise from

  • a) Exciting cause
  • b) Maintaining cause
  • c) Chronic miasm
  • d) Material cause

152.The section of Dr.Hahnemann  Organon with we enter  the field of mental disease is

  • a) Aphorism no.184
  • b) Aphorism 201
  • c) Aphorism 210
  • d) Aphorism 78

153.A patient having latent Psora is (H.A.Robert)

  • a) Alert active and quick
  • b) Anxious restless, hysterical
  • c) Depressed and melancholic
  • d) All the above

154.“Amelioration by unnatural elimination through the mucus surface” is a feature of (H.A.Robert)

  • a) Psora
  • b) Sycosis
  • c) Syphilis
  • d) None of the above

155.If a patient suffering from particular disease is attacked by a stronger and dissimilar disease, then which of the following does not happen (Organon. Hahnemann)

  • a) The former disease is cured
  • b) The latter cannot enter body
  • c) The patient is cured both diseases
  • d)  All the above

156.As per Boenninghausen concept, the term QUID pertains to

  • a) Nature and peculiarity of disease
  • b) Personality of the patient
  • c) Cause of the disease
  • d) Modalities

157.In his material medica Prof.Cullen explained that the curative property of  Peruvian bark in the treatment of intermittent fever, was done due to

  • a) Insipid taste
  • b) Tonic effect in the stomach
  • c)  Similarity between the symptoms of intermittent fever and the effect of juice of Peruvian bark on healthy human beings
  • d) None of the above

158.One of the following is not applicable to idiosyncrasy

  • a) Peculiar physical constitution
  • b) A disease state
  • c) Posses a disposition to be affected by certain things
  • d) None of the above

159.To remove a disease in the living organism, a medicinal force is required, which must satisfy the conditions like

  • a) Superior in strength
  • b) Similar in manifestation
  • c) Different in kind
  • d) All the above

160.In sudden poisoning, where imminent death allow no time for the action of a homeopathic remedy, Hahnemann recommended use of antidotes, such as

  • a) Alkalies for mineral acids
  • b) Hep.s for metallic poisons
  • c) Coffee and camphor for opium poisoning

161.During drug proving, the symptoms of the primary action alone of the drugs are to be recorded, Except

  • a) Narcotics
  • b) Aphrodisiac
  • c) Astringents
  • d) Purgatives

162.After the administration of a remedy, if the patient exhibit full time amelioration with out any relief, then he requires (Kent’s philosophy)

  • a) Palliative treatment
  • b) Anti syphilitic medicine followed by anti psoric
  • c) A deep acting anti psoric
  • d) Anti sycotic medicine followed by anti psoric medicine

163.The requisite knowledge on the part of  a physician for being a true practitioner of the healing art, has been enunciated by Hahnemann in the doctrine part in Organon

  • a)  Aphorism 9
  • b)  Aphorism 26
  • c)  Aphorism 3
  • d)  Aphorism 59

164.A method  of curing a given disease by the same contagious principle that produces it, is called

  • a) Enantiopathy
  • b) Isopathy
  • c) Antipathy
  • d) Heteropathy

165.“There are two realms or words, the realms or world of cause and the realms or world of ultimates” this statement was made by

  • a) Dr.H.A.Robert
  • b) Dr.Stuart Close
  • c) Dr.C.Dunham
  • d) Dr.J.T.Kent

166.A symptom brought out by a prover occasionally and which has not been confirmed but verified by curing the sick people is called

  • a) First grade
  • b) Third grade
  • c) Second grade
  • d) None of the above

167.The reaction of the organism to external and internal influences according to Dr.H.A.Robert  is called as

  • a)  Immunity
  • b)  Resistance
  • c)  Sensitivity
  • d)  Susceptibility

168.The treatise captioned “ Samuel Hahnemann his life and work” in two volume has been complied by

  • a)  Richard Hughes
  • b)  Richard Hale
  • c)  Dudgeon R.E
  • d)  William Boerick

169.The most appropriate and efficacious time of administering the medicine in the case of intermittent fever is

  • a) Before the paroxysm
  • b) Immediately after the termination of paroxysm
  • c) 24 hour after the termination of paroxysm
  • d) Just before the next paroxysm

170.What is the word meaning of the couplet of words “Lege artis” by Hahnemann in the introduction of Organon

  • a) Enervating the body to death
  • b) Very opposite of what it should do
  • c) Away from act of employing medicine
  • d) Document or evidences

171.The word Organon was first used by

  • a)  Aristotle
  • b)  Hahnemann
  • c)  Lord bacon
  • d)  Hufeland

172.The only peculiar way to know the peculiar effects of medicines to administer experimentally to

  • a)  Animals
  • b)  Sick person
  • c)  Healthy persons
  • d)  Laboratory testing

173.The modus operandi of homeopathic medicine is explained in Organon in Aphorism

  • a) 25
  • b) 26
  • c) 27
  • d) 29

174.When one sided disease assume the shape of some affections more of  an external kind, it is distinguished by the name of

  • a) Disease proper
  • b) Local maladies
  • c) Iatrogenic disease
  • d) None of the above

175.A typical intermittent  disease, according to Hahnemann satisfy the following

  • a) A morbid state returning at tolerably fixed period
  • b) The feature which return are of unvarying character
  • c) The symptom disappear at an equally fixed period
  • d) All the above

176.Repertory of intermittent fever was published by

  • a)  H.C.Allen
  • b)  T.F.Allen
  • c)  W.A.Allen
  • d)  Minton

177.One of the following chapter in Boger’s repertory incorporates rubric – Apolexy

  • a)  Sensorium
  • b)  Head
  • c)  Sensation & Complaints
  • d)  Circulation

178.Whooping cough belongs to which chapter of Kent’s repertory

  • a)  Generalities
  • b)  Expectoration
  • c)  Chest
  • d)  Cough

179.The cross reference  given for ‘Activity desire for’ in Kent’s Repertory is

  • a)  Workaholic
  • b)  Laborious
  • c)  Busy
  • d)  Industrious

180.Gentry’s concordance repertory was published in the year

  • a) 1886
  • b) 1890
  • c) 1782
  • d) 1990

181.‘Hiccough’ belongs to one of the following sub chapters in Boger’s repertory

  • a) Stomach
  • b) Throat
  • c) Eructation
  • d) None of the above

182.‘Waterbrash’ belongs to one of the following sub chapters in Boger’s repertory

  • a) Eructation
  • b) Nausea
  • c) Mouth
  • d) Abdomen

183.‘Milky Urine’ in Kent’s repertory

  • a) Urine
  • b) Kidney
  • c) Bladder
  • d) Urethra

184.Kneer’s repertory is based on

  • a) Hering;s guiding symptom
  • b) Allen’s encyclopedia
  • c) Material medica pura
  • d) None of the above

185.Rubric ‘Goitre’ is found in which chapter of Kent’s repertory

  • a)  Generals
  • b)  External throat
  • c)  Internal throat
  • d)  Neck

186.In Kent’s repertory, rubric ‘jaundice’ is found in

  • a)  Abdomen
  • b)  General
  • c)  Skin
  • d)  Stomach

187.Pick one symptom among the following that occupy highest value in repertorisation according to Kentian approach

  • a) Weeping disposition
  • b) Poor memory
  • c) Delusions
  • d) Open air ameliorates

188.In Kent’s repertory the section Kidney is placed immediately after

  • a) Bladder
  • b) Prostate gland
  • c) Urethra
  • d) Urine

189.Boenninghausen’s TPB has…… medicines

  • a) 242
  • b) 342
  • c) 442
  • d) 252

190.Thirstless  with desire to drink can be found in Kent’s repertory under

  • a)  Mind
  • b)  Mouth
  • c)  Stomach
  • d)  Generalities

191.The number of sections in TPB

  • a)  33
  • b)  5
  • c)  7
  • d)  9

192.The doctrine of concomitants is the gift of

  • a)  Boenninaghausen
  • b)  William Boerick
  • c)  H.C.Allen
  • d)  C.M.Boger

193.The full name of C.M.Boger is

  • a) Christopher M Boger
  • b) Cyrus M Boger
  • c) Christian M Boger
  • d) Cyriac M Boger

194.Boenninghausen’s repertory of antipsorics with the preface by Hahnemann was published in the year

  • a) 1890
  • b) 1790
  • c) 1835
  • d) 1832

195.One of the following chapters in Boger’s repertory contains the rubric ‘illusion,auditory, voices etc’

  • a) Mind
  • b) Sensation & complaints
  • c) Ears
  • d) Sensorium

196.Repertory is useful

  • a) As a reference book
  • b) To find out group of similar medicines
  • c)  Helps in the study of material medica
  • d) All the above

197.In Kent’s repertory ‘appetite wanting’ is found in

  • a)  Stomach
  • b)  Abdomen
  • c)  Generalities
  • d)  Mind

198.T.F.Allen’s symptom register published in the year

  • a) 1885
  • b) 1882
  • c) 1880
  • d) 1883

199.‘Anthrophobia’ belongs to one of the following in Boger’s repertory

  • a) Mind
  • b) Sensation
  • c) Dream
  • d) Vertigo

200.In Kents’ repertory, the rubric talking sleep in is found in chapter

  • a) Generalities
  • b) Sleep
  • c) Mind
  • d) Mouth
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IHMA Model MD Homeopathy Entrance 2010 Paper II

Questions : 150                                            Marks : 600                                         Time : 120 Minutes
Time Allowed: 2 Hour                               Maximum Marks: 600

This Test Booklet contains 150 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

You have to mark all your responses by shading the bubbles on the separate Answer Sheet provided. DO NOT write anything on the Answer sheet.

Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to penalization formula based on the number of right answers actually marked and the number of wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded 4 mark. 1 mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a question will be deemed as an incorrect response and will be negatively marked. No negative marks for un attended questions

1) Match the following items in list

     List 1                                                  List 2

  •  A) Hepatitis B                 1) High mortality rate in pregnant women
  •  B) HeapatitisD                2) Chromic hepatitis in more than 50%cases
  •  C) HepatitisC                  3) Ground glass hepatocytes
  •  D) Heaptitis E                 4) Defective genes

 (a)A-3,B-4,C-1,D-2     (b)A-3,B-4,C-2,D-1

 (c)A-4,B-3,C-2,D-1     (d)A-4,B-3,C-1,D-2

2) A loud first heart sound is heard in all the following except

  •  A) Mitral stenosis               (b)Fever
  •  B) Mitral incompetence  (d)Lown Ganong Levine syndrome

3) Measurement of glycosylated haemoglobin gives indication of glycaemic control over the preceding

  •  A) 4-6Weeks    (b)6-8weeks
    (c)8-10weeks   (d)10-12weeks

4) In Kawasaki` disease the cause of death is

  • A) Coronary arteritis (b)Cerebral infarction
    C) Pneumonia                (d)Renal failure

5)A young lady has been admitted with  complaints of acute pain in abdomen,vomiting,abdominal distension &constipation. Clinically she has been diagnosed as intestinal obstruction. The most  appropriate investigation is

  • A) USGabdomen (b)Plain xray abdomen
  • (c)Upper G.I.endoscopy (d)C.T abdomen

6) Red currant jelly stool is associated with

  • A)Carcinoma pancreas (b)Intussusceptions
  • (c)Acute appendicitis (d)Duodenal atresia

7) Which among the following is not matching correctly?

  • A) Schultz charltons test              Scarlet fever
  • B) Freis test                                        Lymphogranuloma venereum
  • C) Jerish Herxheimer test           Chikungunya fever
  • D) Urea breath test                         Helico bactor pylori

8) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

             List I                                                                                                               List II
(Disorder producing the given disorders)                 (Clinical features associated with intestinal obstruction)

  • A. Intussusception                1. Extreme abdominal distension
  • B. Sigmoid volvulus               2. Red currant jelly stool
  • C. Duodenal atresia               3. Bells at the evening pealing
  • D. Acute appendicitis             4. Rovsing’s sign
    5.Double bubble sign

Codes:

     A B C D

  • (a) 3 4 5 1
  • (b) 1 2 3 4
  • (c) 2 1 5 4
  • (d) 2 1 3 5

9) Consider the following antigens/ antibodies:

  • 1) Antibody to surface antigen (Anti HBs Ag anti-body)
  • 2) Hbe Ag (Hepatitis B envelope antigen)
  • 3) HBs AG (Hepatitis B surface antigen)

The correct sequence of their appearance in Hepatitis B virus infection is

  • A)3,2,1
  • B)1,2,3
  • C)3,1,2
  • D)2,1,3

10) Match List-I (Murmurs) with List-II (Disease state) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:

         List-I                         List-II
( Murmurs)                (Disease state)

  • A. Carey-Coombs      1. Aortic incompetence
  • B. Austin-Flint           2. Pulmonary hypetension
  • C. Graham-Steell       3. Ruptured chorade tendinae
  • D. Seagull                4. Rheumatic carditis

Codes:

     A B C D

  • A) 4 1 2 3
  • B) 1 4 3 2
  • C) 1 4 2 3
  • D) 4 1 3 2

11) Tuberculosis characteristically involves which of the following groups of lymph nodes?

  • A) Supra clavicular       B) Deep cervical    C) Upper jugular   D) Mediasitinal

12) Frothy copious blood tinged sputum is characteristically seen in

  • A) Acute bronchitis    B) Mitral stenosis   C) Tuberculosis
  • D) Acute pulmonary oedema

13) Inguinal & femoral hernia are differentiated by the relation with

  • A) Femoral artey                             B) Pubic tubercle
  • C) Inferior epigastric artery        D) Pectineal line

14) Primary feature of small intestinal obstruction

  • A) Abdominal distention                          B) Fever
  • C) High peristalisis with colic                   D) Vomiting

15) Bedsore is an example of

  • A) Post thrombotic ulcer   B) Tropical ulcer
  • C) Trophic ulcer                     D) Venous Ulcer

16) Signs and symptoms mimics appendicitis caused by

  • A) Yersinia  enterocolitica   B) Enteropathic E coli
  • C) Trichomonas hominis     D) Entrobius vermicularis

17) 18 F sized catheter means

  • A) 1.8” diameter             B) 18mm diameter at tip
  • C) 1.8” circumference  D) 18mm circumference

18) Battle sign is seen in fracture of

  • A) Maxilla                               B) Middle cranial fossa
  • C) Anterior cranial fossa  D) Posterior cranial fossa

19) M4 stage of AML is called as:

  • A) Acute myelomonoblastic leukemia B) Acute monoblastic leukemia
  • C) Myelomonocytic leukemia                  D) Monocytic leukemia

20) A patient is performing the movement of flexion of the hip Joint when she:

  • A) Moves the limb away from the midline in the coronal plane
  • B) Moves the limb posteriorly in the paramedian plane :
  • C) Moves the limb anteriorly in the paramedian plane
  • D) Moves the limb towards the median sagittal plane

21) The correct line of management in a child who has swallowed a coin

  • A) Wait and watch      B) Fibro optic endoscopy
  • C) Rigid endoscopy   D) Laparotomy

22) Which one of the following is the complication of “Meckel’s Diverticulum” ?

  • A) Retinal detachment
  • B) Haemorrhoids
  • C) Peptic ulcer
  • D) Corneal ulcer

23) Early neonatal period means

  • A) 1 day  B) 7 day   C) 14 day   D)28 day

24) Roseola infantum is caused by

  • A) CMV   B)EBV   C) Parvo virus  D) Human herpes 6

25) Most common in neonatal meningitis

  • A) Poor feeding       B) Convulsions
  • C) Nuchal rigidity   D) Bulging fontanles

26) Atavism is when child resembles

  • A) Parents    B) Grand parents   C) Twin   D) Cousin

27) Symptoms of minor brain damage

  • A) Hoarse cry  B) Hyper activity  C) Spasticity  D) Fits

28) Nipples cracked and ragged extreme sensitive cannot bear to touch this symptom peculiar to :

  • A) Silicea.              (B) Castor equi.
  • C) Sarasaparilla. (D) Graphitis.

29) Vomitting of Pregnancy in women have the colour of dark olive green is a feature of:

  • A) Carbolic acid. (B) Cerium oxalicum.
  • C) Sepia.                (D) Symphoricarpus.

30) Which medicine is more suitable for habitual abortion :

  • A) Sabina. (B) Vibrunam.
  • C) Sepia.    (D) Pulsatila.

31) The earliest symptom of pregnancy in a regularly menstruating women is :

  • A) Missing the period.              (B) Morning sickness.
  • C) Enlargement of abdomen. (D) Pica.

32) The most sensitive pregnancy test is :

  • A) Latex agglutination inhibition test for beta HCG.
  • B) Direct latext agglutination test for beta HCG.
  • C) Membrane ELISA.
  • D) Radio receptor assay.

33) Match the following

  • A) Abrtion from uterine debility                              (1) Sabina
  • B)Abortion from anaemia with profound melancholy(2)Sepia
  • C) Abortion in third month                                     (3)Helonias
  • D) Abortion in 5th to 7th month                             (4) Caulophyllum
  • (a)A-3,B-4,C-2,D-1 (b) A-4,B-3,C-1,D-2
  • (c) A-4,B-3,C-2,D-1 (d) A-2,B-3,C-1,D-4

34)  “Sour belching and vomiting of pregnancy,burning waterbrash and profuse salivation   day and night”-this symptom is found in

  • (a) Mer.sol (b)Colchicum (c) Ars.alb (d) Acetic.acid

35) A dark complexioned, lean and tall female is suffering from : chronic vaginitis for two years; leucorrheal discharge acrid, offensive with the odour of green corn which is worse between periods; violent itching of vulva and vagina while urinating; discharge stains the linen yellow and becomes stiff like starch; menstrual flow ceases on sitting or walking and reappears on lying down,incontinence of urine and can only urinate when lying. What is the most suitable remedy?

  • (a) Hydrastis
  • (b) Sepia
  • (c) Pulsatilla
  • (d) Kreosotum

36) Episiotomy is indicated in which one of the following?

  • (a) Rupture of perinium,
  • (b) Premature delivery
  • (c) Breech presentation
  • (d) All of the above

37) Vision 2020 contains all except

  • A) Glaucoma  B) Cataract   C) Refractive errors  D) Trachoma

38) Commonest cause of low vision in India

  • A) Cataract   B) Squint   C) Glaucoma   D) Uncorrected refractive errors

39) Tear film is composed of

  • A) 1 layer   B) 2 layer   C) 3 layer  D) 4 layer

40) Most common cause of ocular morbidity

  • A) Trauma   B) Trachoma  C) Vitamin deficiency   D) Cataract

41) Earliest affected in papilledema

  • A) Color sense   B) Esotropia   C) Lid reaction  D) Visual acuity

42) In RA the part most affected

  • A) Cartilage B) Synovium  C) Tendon   D) Subchondral bone

43) Most commonest site of tumor of bones

  • A) Tibia   B) Femur   C) Humerus   D) Vertebral column

44) Most common complication of fracture clavicle

  • A) Non union  B) Stiffness  C) mal union D) Injury to brachial plexus

45) In an infant with ASOM, the infecting organism is likely to be

  • A)Pneumococcus   B)H.Influenza C)Streptococcus D)Staphylococcus

46) Schwartze operation is done in

  • A) CSOM     B) Acute mastoiditis  C)Otosclerosis  D)Serous otitis media

47) Otosclerois affects

  • A) Tympanic membrane  B)Round window  C) Oval window   D)Ossicle

48) Percentage of newborn with deviation of nasal septum

  • A)50    B) 20     C) 10   D) 2

49) Rubric anesthesia is found in which chapter of Kent’s repertory

  • A) Mind    B) Skin   C) Generalities   D) Extremities

50)  The following mucosal sites are commonly involved in Lichen Planus except

  • A) Nasal mucosa     B) Buccal mucosa    C) Tongue    D) Glans penis

51) The least likely area to become involved in Atopic dermatitis is

  • A) Eyelids    B)Antecubital fossa   C) Popliteal fossa    D)Chest

52) Nikolysky’s sign is diagnostic of

  • A) Lichen planus     B)Pemphigus
  • C) Psoriasis            D)Tuberous sclerosis

53) For psoriasis palmaris important medicine is :

  • (A) Sulphur.    (B) Ars iodide.
  • (C) Selenium.  (D) Lycopodium

54) Delusion is not seen in

  • A) Depression   B)delirium   C)Schizophrenia    D)Mania

55) Which hallucination is characteristic of alcoholism?

  • A) visual      B)Tactile    C)Auditory   D) Gustatory

56) Pseudo community is seen in

  • A) Hysteria   B) Paranoid disorder   C) Schizoid personality   D) Depreciation

57) Peptic ulcer is uncommon in

  • A) Schizophrenics    B) OCN    C) Alcoholics   D) Depression

58) Pavor nocturnes  means

  • A) Sleep apnea   B) Sleep terror    C) Bruxism   D) Anxiety

59) Mental illness most common in hypothyroidism

  • A) Euphoria     B) Mania   C) Depression    D) Psychoses

60) X-ray changes in acromegaly are following except

  • A) Lengthened terminal phalanx  B)Widened joint spaces
  • C) Obtuse angle of mandible         D)Premature OA

61) Least affected by radiation

  • A) Cartilage   B) GIT   C) Gonads  D) Lymphocytes

62)  H shaped vertebrae is seen in

  • A) Phenylketonuria    B) Heamngioma
  • C) Sickle cell anemia  D) Osteoporosis

63) High resolution CT is ideal in

  • A) Pleural effusion    B) Lung mass
  • C) Intrestial lung disease    D) Mediastinal adenopathy

64) Kali iodide is suitable in which stage of syphilis

  • A) 1st stage
  • B) 2nd stage
  • C) 3rd stage
  • D) All stages

65) “Can emit urine only when he goes on his knees, pressing head firmly against the floor” is the symptom of

  • A) Pareira brava
  • B) Ocimum canum
  • C) Chimaphila
  • D) Acid phos

66) “Pain over Mc Burney’s point and at location of sigmoid flexure” indicated medicine is

  • A) X – ray
  • B) Rad bromide
  • C) Medorhinum
  • D) Cholesterinum

67) Which medicine has got the symptom “Aversion to butter”

  • A) Sabadilla
  • B) Bellis per
  • C) Ran bulb
  • D) Sang can

68) Who is the prover of Blatta orientalis

  • A) Dr. S.C.Ghosh
  • B) Pt. Iswar chandra
  • C) Dr. D.N.Ray
  • D) Dr. S.K.Ghosh

69) “The true physician is the man who knows how to make the best cures and the most expert healer is the man who knows best how to handle his Materia medica” Whose statement is this

  • A) Dr.C.Hering
  • B) Dr.J.T.Kent
  • C) Dr.S.Hahnemann
  • D) Dr.C.M.Boger

70)”Sore throat beginning and ending with menses” is the symptom of

  • A) Lac can
  • B) Phytolacca
  • C) Merc cyanatus
  • D) All of the above

71) Match the following

  • A) Suffering parts emaciate       (1) Tabacum
  • B) Emaciation of cheeks & back (2) Lobelia inflata
  • C) Nervous prostration              (3) Graphites
  • D) Inclined to be fleshy             (4) Picric acid
  • A) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
  • B) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
  • C) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
  • D) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

72) For “Humid asthma”, which of the following medicines in commonly used ?

  • A) Aconite nap.      (B) Nat.sulph.
  • C) Platina.                 (D) Glonoine.

73). Which of the following features is/are not correct in respect of Dulcamara :

  • A) Urticaria < in cold air. (B) Fleshy, smooth warts.
  • C) Chyluria.                            (D) Rash before menses

74) “Menses scanty, painful and of short duration” is found in :

  • A) Euphrasia.     (B) Ferrum met.
  • C) Platina.            (D) Tuberculinum.

75) Find the odd one out in respect of Drug ~ Family relation :

  • A) Cina – Compositae.              (B) Belladonna – Ranunculaceae.
  • C) Croton tig. – Euphorbiaceae. (D) Nux vom. – Loganiaceae.

76) Madness during pregnancy is found in one of the following medicine :

  • A) Stramonium. (B) NuxMos.
  • C) Cicuta.          (D) Actea Racemosa.

77) Toothache in Pregnancy is relieved by keeping cold water

  • A) Coeffea.  (B) Kreosotum.
  • C) Pulsatila. (D) Chamomula.

78) Cold air or cold water very pleasant to the eyes

  • A) Caust       B) Asar  C)Bismuth   D)None

79) Boy’s complaints after using tobacco

  • A)Ars           B)Arg nit       C)Verat         D)All.cepa

80) Children not easily impressed when ant t seems indicated require

  • A)Sil            B)Hepar        C)Dulc                    S)All

81) Anacardium follows and is followed by

  • A)Puls                   B)Sabina       C)Plat  D) Bry

82) Asthma in children as a constitutional remedy in sycotic subjects :

  • A) Natrum sulph. (B) Antimtart.
  • C) Silicea.           (D) Heparsulph.

83) Rheumatism associated with urticarea like eruptions :

  • A) Rhustox. .    (B) Graphites.
  • C) Urtica urens. (D) Dulcamera.

84) In Apoplexy with Headache and sensation of a lump of Ice on the vertex :

  • A) Glonoine. .  (B) Belladonna.
  • C) Gelsemium. (D) veratrum alb.

85) An important remedy for pericarditis is :

  • A) Kalicarb. (B) Apis mel.
  • C) Spigelia. (D) Bryonea.

86) A medicine for post Herpetic Neuralgia :

  • A) Mezereum.  (B) Sulphur.
  • C) Bryonea.     (D) Phosphorus.

87) According to Dr. HC Allen, this remedy should not be given in syphilis

  • A) Syphilinum    B) Ferrum met     C) Carcinosin   D) Argentum met

88) Remedy corresponding to bowel nosode “Proteus”

  • A) Natrum mur                 B) Phosphorus  C) Sulphur          D) Lycopodium

89) Preventive remedy for boils according to Hahnemann

  • A) Arnica              B) Sulphur           C) Merc sol                         D) All of the above

90)This remedy is angry at trifles and perfectly harmless things, but is soon sorry for it

  • A) Mezerium only                                            B) Mezerium & Crocus sativus
  • C) Mezerium, Crocus sativus & Nux moschata      D) Mezerium & Ignatia

91) “Any drug which in its natural state affects the vital energy but little will develop a proving only in high potency”.  This statement is applicable to

  • A) Lycopodium                  B) Lobelia                            C) Mercury            D) Gold

92) Appearance of new symptoms after administration of a remedy is an indication for selection of

  • A)  Antidote       B) Complementary          C) Repetition    D) None

93) According to HA Roberts susceptibility can be compared to

  • A) Vaccum          B) Miasm             C) Immunity                       D) None

94)Who gave the name ’50 millesmal’ to the new method of dynamisation.

  • A) Horace      B)  Gellert      C)  Boenninghausen  D) P. Schmidt

95) “What influence can it exert whether a homoeopath adopt the theoretical opinion of Hahnemann on not, so long as the holds the principal tool of master and the materia media of our schools.  Whose words are they:

  • A)   William Boericke   B) Hering    C) Richard Hughes     D)Stuart close

96) Craving for Potato is a …………. symptom

  • A) Psoric       B)Sycotic      C)  Tubercular D)Syphilitic

97) The most suitable degree of minuteness for sure and gentle effect can be found out by.

  • A) Experience and experiment
  • B) Experiment and research
  • C) Accurate experience and careful observation of sensitiveness of each patient
  • D) Proper case taking and miasmatic diagnosis

98) Which of the parts of body can be used as a route for administration of medicine.

  • A)   Blood vessel      B) Skin
  • C)  Wounded skin     D) Nerves

99) In 50 millesmal potency 1 part of 3rd tricturation should be dissolved in …………. part of alcohol water mixture.

  •  A)   100            B)  300           C)  500           D) 1000

100) Posology is related with

  • A) Potency          B) Dose                C) Both                 D) None

101) Criteria for selection of potency is

  • A) Seat of disease            B) Duration of action of drug       C) Sensations    D) Totality.

102)  According to Hughes side affinity comes under ………… similarity

  • A) Generic          B) Specific                           C) Individualistic   D) Pathological

103) In which of the below that nothing can be accurately observed during proving?

  • A) When large doses taken (B) When more moderate doses taken
  • C) When small doses taken (D) When minute doses taken

104) Which type is cured by homoeopathy in a few days?

  • A) Acute disease        (B) Somewhat longer standing
  • C) Complicated cases (D) Allopathic bungling

105) Numerous striking symptoms are present in ?

  • A) Indisposition    (B) Chronic diseases
  • C) Acute diseases (D) Poisoning cases

106) In which condition of the below several anti psoric remedies are given in succession?

  • A) Diseases of varying nature due to congenital corporeal constitution
  • B) Indisposition
  • C) Syphilitic miasm
  • D) Sycotic miasm

107) In which of the below the local affection increases gradually :

  • A) A part of the general disease
  • B) By repeated application of antipathic drugs
  • C) Mechanical irritation
  • D) Sudden poisonings

108) Of the below who said “We often hear patients classified on snap judgement as a pulsatilla patient, a nux vomica patient or perhaps a phosphorous patient. Because of the general build and colouring associated with these remedies many mistakes have been made in prescribing on this so called type method”?

  • A) H.A. Roberts (B) Kent
  • C) Stuart Close (D) Hahnemann

109) The following is written by one of the below Doctors :
Biological development : Function creates and develops the organs
Disease development : Functional symptoms are produced by the vital force in exact proportion to the profundity of the disturbance. Functional symptoms precede structural change.

  • A) Dr. Kent              (B) Dr. H.A. Roberts
  • C) Dr. Stuart Close   (D) Dr. Hahnemann

110) “The cell lives for itself” says:

  • A) Hahnemarin    B) Huges    C) Burnet     D) Carpenter

111) “The subjects of Anatomy, Physiology are not life, but only results of life” is said by:

  • A) Dunham    B) Close    C) Kent     D) Hahnemann

112) Chronic disease was published after…………… years of research study.

  • A) 10    (B) 11     (C) 12    (D) 14

113) Which is the observation which details the action of medicine on provers.

  • A) 8       (B) 9        (C) 11    (D)10.

114) Two advices were taken back by Hahnemann mentioned in the preface of 5th edition. One was the use of mild electric shocks the other was.

  • A) Using 2 successions instead of 10
  • B) Using 10 successions instead of 2
  • C) Use of pitch plaster on back to produce it during
  • E) Use of tea in diet

115) Cito tuto et jecunde means

  • A) Quickly ,safely,pleasantly
  • B) safely ,quickly ,pleasantly
  • C) pleasantly, safely ,quickly
  • D)quickly ,pleasantly,safely

116)The sign of complete cure in Syphilis is disappearance of

  • A) Bubo     B)Chancre   C) Scar leaving healthy skin     D) None

117) Antpsoric is most useful during

  • A) Menses    B)Fasting      C)Lactation      D)Pregnancy

118) Aude Sapere has originated from:

  • A) Latin      (B) Greek
  • C) German (D) Hibru

119) Hahnemann died in the city of:

  • A) Kothen (B) Leipzig
  • C) London (D) Paris

120) Proving of  narcotic medicines are mentioned in aphorism

  • A)108       B)113     C)119    D)128

121) ”It`s next impossible that medicine and disease should cover one another  symptomatically as  as exactly as two triangles with equal sides & equal angles”-the Statement is from aphorism

  • A)169      B)26    C)156   D)243

122) Best Tonic for Debility after Exhausting Diseases :

  • A) China. (B) Selenium.   C) Avena Sativa.    (D) Psorinum.

123 In Hyperchlor hydria with aversion to milk and fat food :

  • A) Pulsatilla.   (B) Robinia     C) Acid Sulph. (D) Calcarea carb.

124) Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

  • A) All symptoms of Phosphorus are aggravated from cold and ameliorated from warmth in general except stomach complaints.
  • B) All symptoms of Ars. alb. are worse from cold and better from warmth.
  • C) All complaints of Act. racimosa are worse from warmth and better from cold in general except headache.
  • D) All ailments of Lycopodium are aggravated from warmth and better from cold.

125) The drug Causticum belongs to :

  • A) Sodium Group (B) Calcium Group
  • C) Carbon Group (D) Potassium Group

126) Last rubric in Mind Chapter of Kent’s Repertory:

  • A) Yielding disposition
  • B) Writing, mistakes in
  • C) Wrong, everything seems
  • D) Zealous

127) During the construction of his repertory, Kent also referred:

  • A) Minton’s Diseases of Women
  • B) Biegler’s Diary      (C) Jahr’s Repertory
  • D) All of the above

128) In Kent’s repertory which chapter will you find ‘feels head is separated from body’

  • A) Mind     B) Head     C) Generalities   D) External throat.

129) In BBCR where will you find ‘Confused’?

  • A) Mind    B) Sensorium    C) Agg. & Amel.   D) Head internal

130) In BBCR where will you find ‘Confusion’?

  • A) Mind
  • B) Sensorium
  • C) Agg. & Amel.
  • D) Head internal

131) Author of Sensation as if is :

  • A) Dr. Hahnemann.  (B) H.A. Roberts.
  • C) W.A. Alien.         (D) Boenninghausen.

132) Systemic Alphabetical Repertory was published in 1848 by:

  • A) Robin Murphy.     (B) Lippe.
  • C) Clopar Muller.      (D) Jahr.

133) T.F. Alien’s Symptom Register was published in the year:

  • A) 1885.      (B) 1882.
  • C) 1880.      (D) 1925.

134) Analytical Repertory of Hering was published in :

  • A) 1881.    (B) 1825.
  • C) 1790.    (D) 1921.

135) Necrosis of bones are found in Kent Repertory in chapter:

  • A) Generalities
  • B) Extremities
  • C) In (A)&(B)
  • D) Not given

136) First repertory in English language was published by:

  • A) J.T.Kent
  • B) Dr. Lippe
  • C) Dr.C.Hering
  • D) Dr. P. Schmidth

137) Kent says: “The greatest of all comparers of the materia medica was Boenninghausen. The concordances of Boenninghausen’s book are wonderful. These are the most important part of the book and they would not fail.” The chapter concordance of Boenninghausen’s reporting contains.

  • A) 124 Med    (B) 141 Med    (C) 125 Med    (D) 144 Med

138) The 3rd volume of synthetic reporting contains.

  • A) Mental Symptoms    (B) Physical Generals    (C) Sleep, Dream & Sex

139) Integrated approach for repertory section was put forward by.

  • A) MLDhawale     (B) HA Robert       (C) Boger   (D) Boenninghausen

140)Rubric for Loathing of life in BBCR

  • A) Depression    B)Tedium     C)Listlessness    D) Aversion to life

141) Gradations in the Leaders in respiratory organs by E.B Nash

  • A) 2     B) 3      C) 1        D) 4

142) The Rubric Pseudopsia in BBCR

  • A) Mind       B) Sensorium      C) Sens & Compl     D) Agg & Amel

143) Haemorrhoids is given in which chapter of the Boenninghausens repertory

  • A) Rectum       B)Anus
  • C)Stool             D)Sensations and complaints

144) Remedy for puts things to mouth in Boger’s repertory

  • A) Stramonium      B)Hyocyamus
  • C)Belladonna          D)Mercurius

145) Rubric perspiration gives no relief is given in which chapter of Kent’s repertory

  • A)Chill       B)Perspiration    C)Fever     D)Generalities

146) “Therapeutic Pocket Book” by Boenningauessen was originally written in:

  • A) English (B) Latin
  • C) German (D) Greek

147) “Therapeutic Pocket Book” by Boenningauessen had originally:

  • A) 124 remedies (B) 126 remedies
  • C) 136 remedies (D) 156 remedies

148) Kent started his works on repertory from:

  • A) Lee’s Repertory                   (B) Lippe’s Repertory
  • C) Boenningauessen’s Repertory (D) Jhar’s Repertory

149) Eliminating Rubric was first introduced in Homoeopathy by:

  • A) Margret Tyler        (B) Sir John Weir
  • C) None of the above (D) Both the above

150) The Eighth Volume of HPI published by Government of India was in the year:

  • A) 1998 (B) 2000
  • C) 2002 (D) 2004

Download Answer Key : www.similima.com/pdf/ihma-mdentrance-2010-key.pdf

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IHMA Model MD Homeopathy Entrance 2010 Paper I

Questions : 150             Marks : 600       Time : 120 Minutes

Time Allowed: 2 Hour                               Maximum Marks: 600

1. DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO.

2. Please verify that your test booklet contains 18 pages, including answer sheet.

3. This Test Booklet contains 150 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

4. You have to mark all your responses by shading the bubbles on the separate Answer Sheet provided. DO NOT write anything on the Answer sheet.

5. Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to penalization formula based on the number of right answers actually marked and the number of wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded 4 mark. 1 mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a question will be deemed as an incorrect response and will be negatively marked. No negative marks for un attended questions

6. Please note the matching ROLL NUMBERS given in your question booklet and answer sheet

 1) Hot days and cold nights towards the close of summer are especially favorable to   the action of this medicine

  • (a) Nat sulph
  • (b) Rhus tox
  • (c) Aranea diadema
  • (d) Dulcamara

2) Anaemic children who are peevish,, flabby have cold extremities and feeble digestion; child refuses breast, milk taste salty-these symptoms points towards

  • (a) Phos
  • (b) Calc carb
  • (c) Verat alb
  • (d) Calc phos

3) Patient thinks that his thoughts are coming from his stomach is a symptom of

  • (a) Cann ind
  • (b) Coca
  • (c) Aconite
  • (d) Medorrhinum

4) At puberty; acne in anaemic girls with vertex headache and flatulent dyspepsia relieved by eating-this symptom is seen in

  •  (a) Kali brom
  • (b) Carboneum sulph
  • (c) Calc phos
  • (d) Ferr met

5) Which medicine is prepared from “Papal cross spider”

  • (a) Mygale lassiodora
  • (b) Lactrodectus mactans
  • (c) Theridion
  • (d) Aranea diadema

6) Loquacity, aversion to work, indifference fearlessness –These  symptoms are found in

  • (a) Agaricus
  • (b) Cup .met
  • (c) Stramonium
  • (d) Lachesis

7) Match the following

                                     SYMPTOM                                                                     MEDICINE

  • (A) In writing omits final letters or letters in a word           (1) Medorrhinum
  • (B) Weakness of memory, cannot remember names,         (2) Lycopodium
  •                 words or initial letters.
  • (C)  Writes last letters of words first                                            (3) Xerophyllum
  • (D)  Cannot read what he writes                                                    (4) Lac can
  • (a)  A-4,B-1,C-3,D-2
  • (b) A-4,B-1,C-2,D-3
  • (c) A-1,B-4,C-2,D-3
  • (d) A-1,B-3,C-4,D-2

8) This remedy is serviceable in almost all cases when it is required to dry up milk.

  • (a) Lac caninum
  • (b) Lac defloratum
  • (c) Avena sativa
  • (d) Alfalfa

9) The remedy for habitual abortion from uterine debility is

  • (a) Aurum met.
  • (b) Ammonium mur.
  • (c) Caulophyllum
  • (d) Secale cor.

10) At every menstrual nisus when the throat, mouth and tongue are intolerably dry, especially when sleeping the remedies are;

      (1) Nux Moschata   (2) Pulsatilla   (3) Tarentula cubensis   (4) Bryonia

  • (a) (1) & (2)
  • (b) (2) & (3)
  • (c) (1) & (3)
  • (d) (2) & (4)

11) In children it may be often repeated, in aged people should not be repeated-this statement is true regarding

  • (a) Lycopodium
  • (b) Baryta carb
  • (c) Both
  • (d) Calc carb

12) Which medicine follows Cinchona in haemorrhage and digitalis in dropsy?

  • (a) Ferrum met
  • (b) Hamamelis
  • (c)Phosphorus
  • (d) Acetic acid

13) A gouty, rheumatic diathesis engrafted on a gonorrheal or syphilitic patient-this is true regarding

  • (a) Thuja
  • (b) Ledum
  • (c) Colchicum
  • (d) Benzoic acid

14) Which medicine is to be   given for children and young people inclined to grow fat

  • (a) Calc carb
  • (b) Calc carb & Antim crud
  • (c) Calc carb & Borax
  • (d) Calc carb & Asafoetida

15) Match the following

  • (A) Bush master                           (1) Bothrops
  • (B) Yellow viper                           (2) Elaps corallinus
  • (C) Coral snake                            (3) Lachesis
  • (D) Rattle snake                           (4) Crotalus horridus
  • (a) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4    (b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
  • (c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4    (d) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

16) Match the following

  • (A) Head ache returning in every winter                    (1) Carbolioc acid
  • (B) Head ache as if a tornado in head                            (2) Bismuth
  • (C) Head ache as if a rubber band were stretched    (3) Argent nit
  •                tightly over forehead
  • (D) Head ache with sense of expansion                         (4)) Carbo animalis
  • (a) A-2,B-4,C-3,D-1
  • (b) A-2,B-4,C-1,D-3
  • (c) A-2,B-1,C-4,D-3
  • (d) A-2,B-1,C-3,D-4

17) Medicine for head hot with cold body

  • (a) Arnica
  • (b) Mag.phos
  • (c) Zincum met
  • (d) Rhustox

18) Name the medicine for the symptom decided aversion to coition in both sexes

  • (a) Kali Bich
  • (b) Sep
  • (c) Agnus cast
  • (d) Graph

19) Sexual desire absent in fleshy people is the characteristic symptom of

  • (a) Kali bich
  • (b) Calc carb
  • (c) Graph
  • (d) Caps.

20) Match the following

  •  A) Ulcers bleeding easily sensitive,zigzag irregular edges         (1) Cinnabaris
  • B) Ulcers with punched out edges tendency to penetrate with   (2) Flouric acid
  • C) Very fiery red looking ulcers                                                               (3)Kali.bich
  • D) Ulcers red edges &vesicles  Copious discharge                              (4)Nitric acid
  • (a)  A-4,B-3,C-2,D-1
  • (b)  A-4,B-3,C-1,D-2
  • (c) A-4,B-2,C-1,D-3
  • (d) A-2,B-3,C-1,D-4

21) Medicine for Chilblains’ with gangrenous tendency,purpura haemorrhagica

  • (a) Anthracinum
  • (b) Ars.alb
  • (c) Agaricus
  • (d) Sulphuric acid

 22) Medicine for red pimples or tubercles on forehead cheeks as in brandy drinkers stinging when touched

  • (a) Eugenia
  • (b) Ledum pal
  • (c) Sulphur
  • (d) Kali mur

23) Diarrhoea from high game – indicated medicine :-

  • (a) Crotalus horridus & Pyrogen
  • (b) Crotalus & Aloes
  • (c) Crotalus
  • (d) Crotalus&Zingiber

24) Match the following

  • (A) Constipation from intestinal atony                 (1) Iodum
  • (B) Constipation while traveling                          (2) Ignatia
  • (C) Constipation better by drinking cold milk         (3) Ferr met
  • (D) Constipation from carriage riding                    (4) Platina
  • (a) A-2,B-4,C-1,D-3
  • (b) A-2,B-4,C-3,D-1
  • (c) A-4,B-3,,C-1,D-2
  • (d) A-3,B-4,C-1,D-2

25) Match the followings

  • (A) Colic from cucumbers,salads                1) Ipecac
  • (B) Colic at certain hours each day             2) Kali brom
  •              periodical from gall stones
  • (C) Flatulent cutting colic about umbilicus    3) Allium cepa
  •  (D) Daily colic of infants at 5 am                         4) China
  • (a) A 3,B 4,C 1, D 2
  • (b) A 4, B 1, C 3, D 2
  • (c) A  4,B 3,C 1, D 2
  • (d)  A 2, B 4, C 1, D 3

26) Medicine for low types of fever according to H.C.Allen

  • (a) Nat.mur
  • (b) Phosphoric acid
  • (c) Rhustox
  • (d) Sepia

27) In intermittent  fever which follows lachesis when type changes

  • (a) Nux vomica
  • (b) Sulphur
  • (c) Nat.mur
  • (d) Thuja

28) Medicine for diarrhea in with beginning of typhoid

  • (a) Rhustox
  • (b) Nux vom
  • (c) Gelsemium
  • (d) Ars.alb

29) Medicine for  involuntary stools and urine ‘subsultus tendinum’

  • (a)Hysocyamus
  • (b)Rhustox
  • (c) Baptisia
  • (d) Lachesis

30) Pain extends from orifice of urethra backwards”-this symptom is seen in

  • (a) Calendula
  • (b) Cannabis ind
  • (c) Cantharis
  • (d )Staphy

31) The German word used by Hahnemann for mission is

  • (a) Beruf
  • (b) Daurhafte
  • (c) Einzuscheneden
  • d) Deviribus

32) “The physician has no higher object than to make sick men well-to cure as it termed”- fist aphorism is  seen in this form in

  •  (a) First edition of  Organon
  •  (b) Second edition of  Organon
  •  (c) Third edition of  Organon
  •  (d) Fourth edition of  Organon

 33) “The decisive amount is always a minimum,an infinitesimal” – is stated by

  • (a)Fincke
  • (b)Maupertuis
  • (c)Hahnemann
  • (d)Hippocrates

 34) Theoritical medicine is mentioned footnote  to aphorism

  • (a) 1
  • (b) 2
  • (c) 6
  • (d) 53

35)  Fixed miasm, accessory miasm mentioned in aphorism

  • (a) 42
  • (b) 48
  • (c)  46
  • (d) 32

36) The beneficent deity has granted us in Homoeopathy the means for affording relief       for

     (1) Natural diseases (2) Pseudo chronic diseases (3) Artificial chronic diseases

  • (a) 1 only
  • (b) 1&2
  • (c) 1&3
  • (d) 1,2&3

37) Calcutta  journal of medicine was edited by

  • (a) M.L.Sircar
  • (b) P.C.Majumdar
  • (c) D.N.Ray
  • (d) B.L.Dutt

38) The first homoeopathic periodical Archive was published by

  •  (a)Kent
  •  (b)Hering
  •  (c)Boger
  •  (d)Stapf

39) Boenninhausen became interested in homoeopathy after his disease (tuberculosis) was cured with

  • (a) Phosphorus
  • (b) Ars.iod
  • (c) Tuberculinum
  • (d) Pulsatilla

40) In preface to 2nd edition of organon Hahnemann  accuses one of the historical personality  Of medicne as hypothesis framer; Who is this personality

  • (a)Aristotle
  • (b)Galen
  • (c)Sydenham
  • (d)Harvey

41) 5th edition of Organon was translated to English  by

  • (a) Dudgeon
  • (b) Dudgeon,Finky,Wesselhoeft
  • (c) Boericke
  • (d) Wheeler

42) Organon was translated to English for the first in 1833 by

  • (a) Dudgeon
  • (b) Hempel
  • (c) Wheeler
  • (d) Devrient

43) No. of medicines described in Fragmenta deviribus

  • (a)27         (b)32
  • (c)47         (d)99

44) Point out the wrong statement

  • (a) Charakasamhita mentions 500drugs
  • (b) Imhotep was a great Egyptian physician
  • (c) Golden age of Indian medicine is between 600to800AD
  • (d) Life period of Galen is 130to205AD

45) Select the wrong statement

  • (a) Susruta is known as father of  Indian surgery
  • (b) Ambroise pare is known as father of surgery
  • (c) Edwin Smith papyrus is a treatise on surgery
  • (d) Localities of mankind is written by Hippocrates

46)Match the following

                                 Books                                 Authors

  • A) Materia medica of India        (1) S.C.Ghosh
  • B) Indian materiamedica           (2) R.N.Nadkarni
  • C) Drugs of hindoosthan            (3) R.N.Khory
  • D) Indigenousdrugs of India      (4) R.N.Chopra
  • (a)A-3,B-4,C-1,D-2
  • (b)A-3,,B-2,C-1,D-4
  • (c)A-2,B-3,C-1,D-4
  • (d) A-4,B-2,C-1,D-3

47) Ashtanga Hridayam is written by

  •  (a) Sushruta     (b)Charaka
  •  (c) Vagbhata    (d) Atreya

48) Which among the following is most incurable among chronic diseases?

  • (a)Drug diseases
  • (b) Pseudo chronic disease
  • (c) Non venereal disease
  • (d) Mixed miasmatic disease

49) Match the following

  • A) Indisposition                     (1) 78
  • B) Drug disease                     (2) 74
  • C) Pseudochronic disease         (3) 150
  • D) Natural chronic disease        (4) 77
  • (a) A-3,B-4,C-1,D-2
  • (b) A-3,,B-2,C-4,D-1
  • (c) A-2,B-3,C-1,D-4
  • (d) A-4,B-2,C-1,D-3

50) Administration of something of unmedicinal character is mentioned in

  • 1) Aphorism 91
  • 2) Foot note to   Aphorism 96
  • 3) Aphorism 90
  • (a) 1&2
  • (b) 1
  • (c) 2
  • (d)1,2&3

51) Medicine for proving should be given in simple unadulterated form-This statement is       given in

  • (a) 123
  • (b) 118
  • (c) 115
  • (d) 116

52) Hahnemann discussed guidelines about examination of patient  first time in

  • (a) Aesculapius in the balance
  • (b) A new principle for ascertaining the curative power of drugs
  • (c) Fragmenta deviribus medicamnetorum
  • (d) Medicine of experience

53) Psora is the  real fundamental cause and producer of all other numerous-this statement is given in aphorism

  • (a) 79
  • (b) 82
  • (c) 83
  • (d) 80

54)”It is wrong to attempt complex means when simple means suffice This statement is   Given in

  • (a) 274
  • (b) 273
  • (c) 68
  • (d) 234

55) In chronic disease homoeopathic  aggravation  may be seen

  • (a) Up to10 days
  • (b) Up to 8 days
  • (c) Up to 6 days
  • (d) All the above

56)  Hahnemann advises physician against use of favourite medicine in aphorism

  • (a) 274
  • (b) 273
  • (c) 257
  • (d) 255

57) Which among the following has written the biography of Hahnemann

     (1)R.E.Dudgeon   (2)R.W..Hobhouse   (3)R.Haehl

  • (a) 3
  • (b) 1,2&3
  • (c) 1&3
  • (d) 2&3

58) Which among the following is not required for  apprehending the picture of disease?

  • (a) Freedom from prejudice
  • (b) Sound senses,
  • (c) Attention in observing and fidelity in tracing the picture of the disease.
  • (d) Rational explanation

59) Schein symptoms caused by

  • (a) Excess of homoeopathic medicines
  • (b) Antipathic medicines
  • (c) Allopathic medicines
  • (d) Isopathic medicines

60) Epidemics of intermittent fever weakened by use of allopathic medicines should be   treated with

  • (a) Sulphur or Hepar sulph in high potency. is to be given..
  • (b) Any antipsoric medicine
  • (c) Sulphur or Hepar sulph in low potency. is to be given
  • (d)  Acute medicines

61) The word “Yalephed” for old itch was used by-

  • A) Alexandrians    B) Plato
  • C) Moses                   D) Jonathan,

62) Hahnemann’s medical  essays were published first in –

  • A) Hufeland’s journal      B) Crells’chemical Annals
  • C) Der arzinger                   D) Kreb’s medical observations

63) The idea of preparation of the antisyphilitic remedy is given by Master Hahnemann in-

  • A) First edn of MM Pura.              B) First edn of C/C Diseases.
  • C) Second edition of C/C d’s.        D) Second edn of MM Pura.

64) In a C/C case after the administration of a similimum, the inference was as follows- patient had a severe < with worsening of his general symptoms, for which he was brought back to the physician after a short period of time …. The best possible explanation is-

  • A) Physician should wait.           B) Homeopathic < which will subside by its own.
  • C) Medicine was deep & potency was high.  D) Antidote the effects with a more correct similimum.

65) The idea of prophylaxis for the coming generations can be enunciated with Homoeopathic treatment by giving anti miasmatic treatment during child bearing period can be read in which among the following-

  • A) 284 6th  edition         B) 284 5th  edn
  • C) FN of 284 6th  edn     D) FN of 285 6th  edn

66) Lucid interval is mentioned in aphorism

  • (a))210     (b)217      (c)229     (d)219

67) 50 Millismal scale of preparation is mentioned in aphorism –in 6thedition

  • (a)270       (b)268      (c)269      (d)253

68) Meaning of the word ‘Non inutilis vixi”is

  • (a) My mission is accomplished
  • (b) For the suffering humanity
  • (c) Ultimate aim is cure
  • (d) Not lived invain

69) Alternating diseases belong to the domain of:

  • (a) Psora
  • (b) Sycosis
  • (c) Chronic diseases
  • (d) Sycosis, Syphilis

70) Only one wart on left index finger is a/an:

  • (a) Internal one sided disease
  • (b) External one sided disease
  • (c) Artificial chronic disease
  • (d) False chronic disease

71) A Patient aged 40 is coming with an anxious look, where will you look for this subjective symptom?

  • (A) Mind
  • (B) Generalities
  • (C) Face
  • (D) All the above.

72) A child aged 5 is brought to you; it looks old from the first look itself. Where will you look for this subjective symptom?

  • (A) Mind
  • (B) Generalities
  • (C) Face
  • (D) All the above.

73) Match the repertory with its author

                      Author          Repertory

  • i)T.F.Allen      a)Repertory of Fever
  • ii)H.C.Allen     b)Repertory of Intermittent Fever
  • iii)W.A.Allen    c)Symptom Register
  • (A) i&a, ii&b, iii&c
  • (B) i&b, ii&c, iii&a
  • (C) i&c, ii&a, iii&b
  • (D) i&c, ii&b, iii&a

74) In1931 Dr.Boger published:

  • (A) Card Repertory
  • (B) Synoptic Key
  • (C) BBCR
  • (D) Times of Remedies and Moon Phases.

75) Clinical Repertory has been written by:

  • (A) Clarke, Boericke & Sheed.
  • (B) Clarke, Boericke & Kent.
  • (C) Clarke, Kent & Sheed.
  • (D) Kent, Boericke & Sheed.

76) Allentown academy was established by

  • (a) Hering           (b) J.T.kent
  • (c) J.H.Clarke      (d) C.M.Boger

77) The rubric scurvy is given in chapter –in T.P.B

  • (a) Mouth          (b)Circulation
  • (c) Sensations   (d) Face

78) In .B.B.C.R the rubric for diabetes mellitus is

  • (a) Urine saccharine                     (b)Urine sugar
  • (c) Sensation&complaints diabetes (d) Urine diabetes

79) In Kent’s repertory rubric mastoidits is seen as

  • (a)Ear mastoiditis      (b) Head mastoiditis
  • (c)Ear caries mastoid (d) Face inflammation mastoid

80 1s1 Indian repertory the ‘Manual of Homoeopathy’ was published by.

  • (A) Fr Augustus Mullar (B) Augustine Muller
  • (C) Dr. S.K. Tiwari (D) C. Hering

81) Repertory of the more characteristic symptoms of the Materia Medica – Published by.

  • (A) A. Lippe    (B) C. Hering    (C) C. Lippe    (D) Jahr

82. Which among the following is not a puritan repertory.

  • (A) Knerr’s Rep. (B) Jahr’s repertory
  • (C) Hering’s Analytical Repertory (D) Murphy’s Repertory

83) The chapter mind in Kent’s repertory was made by.

  • (A) Kent Alone (B) Lee and Kent(C) Lee Alone (D) Clar a Loui.se Kent

84) BBCR is mainly based on.

  • (A) TPB
  • (B) Boenning Bausen’s Repertory ofAntipsoric
  • (C) B.H’s Repertory of Medicines which are not antipsoric
  • (D) All the above

85) Repertory of sensations as if made by..

  • (A) H.A. Robert (B) Honi Comb(C) None (D) Both

86) Ist Card Repertory was available to the profession in which year.

  • (A) 1888 (B) 1892 (C) 1896 (D)1893

87) Size of the card in Jugal Kishore’s Card Repertory is.

  • (A) 9″x3″”(B) 9″x2 (C) ll”x3″ (D)iix2″

88) 1st Indian edition of Murphy’s Repertory is in the year.

  • (A) 1973 (B) 1974(C) 1994 (D) 1993

89) Concise Repertory of Homoeopathic medicine published by.

  • (A) Murphy (B) Phathak (C) Boericke (D)Clarke

90) Total number of chapters in Knerr’s Repertory is.

  • (A) 38   (B) 48    (C) 47    (D)37

91) Rubric perspiration gives no relief is given in which chapter of Kent’s repertory

  • (A) Chill   (B) Perspiration
  • (C) Fever  (D) Generalities

92) Asphyxia neonatorum is given in which chapter of boger’s repertory

  • (A) Respiration    (B) Chest
  • (C) Larynx and trachea  (D) Sensations and complaints

93) Remedy for cough ameliorated by eructation in Kent’s repertory

  • (A) Sang    (B) Nux v
  • (C) Sep      (D) Sulph

94) Rubric falling to the ground with consciousness is given in Boger’s repertory

  • (A) Mind           (B) Vertigo
  • (C) Sensorium  (D) Sensations and complaints

95) Rubric cracks in the corners of mouth is given in which chapter of kents repertory

  • (A) Mouth     (B) Face
  • (C) Skin        (D) Generalities

96) Remedy for well says he is when very sick in Kent’s repertory

  • (A) Arn      (B) Lyco    (C) Nat-m   (D) Opium

97) Gentry’s Repertory of Concordance consists of volumes.

  • (A) Two.   (B) Five.
  • (C) Six.    (D) Eight.

98) ‘Repertory of Hemorrhoids’ was written by:

  • (A) Gentry.      (B) Kent.
  • (C) Guernsey. (D) Hering.

99) Repertory of ‘Fevers’ was published by:

  • (A) T.F. Alien.    (B) H.C. Alien.
  • (C) WA. Alien   . (D) Milton.

100) ‘C.M. Boger’s Synoptic Key with Repertory’ was published in the year:

  • (A) 1931.    (B) 1936.
  • (C) 1898.  (D) 1930.

101) The median cubital vein is the vein of choice for I V for withdrawing blood from donors and for catheterization because

  • (A) It is a long vein                (B) doesn’t slip during perceiving
  • (C) It is an accessory vein  (D) It is a deep vein.

102) The arch of aorta lies behind the

  • (A) Lower half of manubrium sterni  (B) xiphoid process of sternum
  • (C) Middle 1/3 rd manubrium sterni  (D) Jugular notch

103) The right coronary artery supplies all except

  • (A) SA node                                  (B) Interatrial septum
  • (C) Interventricular septum (D) Apex of heart

104) Diseases of hip may produce referred pain in knee because of

  • (A) Femoral & sciatic nerve   (B) Femoral & obturator nerve
  • (C) Obturator & sciatic nerve (D) only sciatic nerve.

105) Inferior epigastric artery is branch of:

  • (A) Femoral artery.
  • (B) Ext. iliac artery.
  • (C) Internal iliac artery.
  • (D) Lateral circumflex artery

106) Muscle attached to Ulnar tuberosity

  • (A) Supinator.
  • (B) Biceps brachi.
  • (C) Brachialis.
  • (D) Flexorcarpi ulnaris.

107) 99. The normal life span of RBC (in days) is :

  • (A) 30. (B) 120.
  • (C) 150. (D) 180.

108)  Oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the right in all except:

  • (A) Fall in PH.                         (B) Rise in temperature.
  • (C) Increase of 2, 3, DPG.  (D) HbF.

109) An important factor in Kwashiorkor is :

  • (A) Mineral deficiency. (B) Protein deficiency.
  • (C) Vitamin deficiency. (D) None of them.. An important factor in Kwashiorkor is :

110) The nitrogenous base present in cephalin is :

  • (A) Serine.                (B) Choline.
  • (C) Elhanolamine. (D) Sphingosine.

111) Negative N3 balance is observed in :

  • (A) Pregnancy.         (B) Chronic illness.
  • (C) Growth period. (D) Convalescence.

112) In a healthy adult the upper limit of serum creatinine is :

  • (A) 0.75mg7dl. (B) 1.20mg./dl.
  • (C) 1.60mg./dl. (D) 2.00mg./dl.

113) Normal clotting time

  • A) 1-2 min           B) 2-4 min
  • C) 3-6 min          D) 3-8 min

114) Oxygen dissociation curve shifting to left in

  • A) Foetal blood                          B) Decrease Ph
  • C) Increase in temperature       D) Excess of 2,3 DPG

115) Burning foot syndrome is caused by the deficiency of

  • A) Pyridoxine        B) Pantothenic acid
  • C) Biotin              D) Niacin

116) The level of HDL is said to be protective against atherosclerosis

  • A) 40 mg/dl             B) 50 mg/dl
  • C) 60 mg/dl             D) 70 mg/dl

117) Malaria protection comes from all except

  • A) G6PD deficiency            B) Thalassemia
  • C) Sickle cell anaemia        D) Acanthocytosis

118) Organ of corti is concerned with :

  • (A) Hearing. (B) Vision.
  • (C) Smell. (D) Taste.

119  ‘P.C’ is the abbreviated word in prescription writing for

  • A) Placebo       B) as prescribed
  • C) after food    D) before food

120) Which of the following is the glycoside present in Cinchona?

  • A) Quinidine          B) Isoquinoline
  • C) Cinchonine       D) Quinovin.

121) Quantity of absolute alcohol required for Stapf’s process?

  • A) 450ml         B) 1litre
  • C) 2 litre          D) 500 ml

122) An example for drug prepare from Class 6 (A) of classical method of mother tincture   preparation

  • A) Guaiacum         B) Iodum
  • C) Graphitis          D) Anacardium

123) The drug strength of 1st  ‘Fifty – millesimal potency’ is

  • A) 1/5 x 1/108        B)  1/50 x1/108
  • C) 1/5 x 1/1010      D) 1/50 x 1/1010

124) A mother tincture is

  • (A) An alcoholic solution.   (B) Alcoholic extract.
  • (C) Dilution of the drug.      (D) Aquo alcoholic extract.

125) Glonoin is the drug prepared from

  • (A) Glycerin trichloride.   (B) Nitroglycerin.
  • (C) Triglycerides.           (D) Benzene.

126) Chemical formula of camphor is

  • (A) C10H140.       (B) C10H16O
  • (C) C10H10N4O    (D) C3H5N3O9

127) ‘Russell bodies’ are found in

  • A) Plasma cell tumour   B) Gonadal tumour
  • C) Parkinsonism                D) Ovarian tumour

128) Kaposi’s sarcoma arises from

  • A) Skin    B) Fibrous tissue    C) Veins
  • D)Capillaries & Connective tissue

129) The diagnostic test for AIDS is

  • A) ELISA   B) CFT   C) Immuno fluorescence   D) Western blot

130) Koilonychia is seen m :

  • (A) Wilsdn’s Disease.        (B) Iron deficiency Anaemia.
  • (C) Haemochromatosin. 0) Megaloblastic Anaemia.

131) Pyogenic Meningitis in Pre-School Children—the commonest organism is :

  • (A) Haemophilus Influenza. (B) Group B streptococci.
  • (C) Neisseria Meningitidis.  (D) E.Coli.

132) Virulance in gonococcus is due to

  • (A) Cytolytic enzyme   (B) Pilli
  • (C) Cell membrane  (D) Its intracellular location

133) Most sensitive test for antigen detection

  • (A) ELISA                             (B) RIA
  • (C) Hemoagglutination  (D) Immunofluresence

134) Normal habitat of giardia

  • (A) Duodenum & Jejanum   (B) Ileum  (C) Caecum  (D) Stomach

135) Toxic shock syndrome is caused by

  • (A) Strep viridians    (B) Staph albus   (C) Staph aureus  (D) Strep pyogens

136) Commonest site of extra intestinal amebiasis

  • (A) Lungs   (B) Brain   (C) Liver   (D) Spleen

137) Poisoning with one of the following produces clinical features similar to viper bite :

  • (A) Abrus Precatorius.               (B) Ricinus Communis.
  • (C) Semecarpus Anacardium. (D) Cerbera thevetia.

138) A First Class Judicial Magistrate can award imprisonment for a maximum period of :

  • (A) 3 years. (B) 5 years.
  • (C) 7 years. (D) 10 years.

139) The first permanent tooth to erupt is the :

  • (A) Canine.            (B) Lateral incisor.
  • (C) First molar. . (D) Central Incisor.

140) Statutory rape, is rape on a girl below :

  • (A) 10 years. (B) 12 years.
  • (C) 15 years. (D) 16 years.

141) All the following .are features of a still born foetus except:

  • (A) Born after 28 weeks of pregnancy.
  • (B) Was alive in utero.
  • (C) Will show signs of maceration.
  • (D) Severe moulding of head.

142) Chapter III of the Central Council of Homeopathy Act deals with :

  • (A) Recognition of medical qualifications.’
  • (B) Central register.
  • (C) Miscellaneous.
  • (D) Number of seats allocated in Central Council in each state.

143) Medical negligence falls under following except:

  • (A) Sec. 304 A.
  • (B) Indian Contract Act.
  • (C) IPC 312.
  • (D) IPC 351.

144) 80.The minimum capacity of a septic tank is:

  • (A) 700 gallons (B) 900 gallons
  • (C) 800 gallons (D) 500 gallons

145) Name of the first chemical coagulant that is used in rapid sand fillers:

  • (A) Bleaching powder (B) Chlorine gas
  • (C) Alum                           (D) None of the above

146)The ESI act provides ………. For the employees

  • A) Medical benefit            B) Maternity benefit
  • C) Funeral benefit            D) All above.

147) Anganwadi workers of ICDS scheme are selected

  • A) From the community itself        B) From the other district
  • C) Nominated by LSG                     D) None as above

148) In the NRHM  the ASHA promotes good health practices and they are provided with…….

  • A) Stethoscope             B) Syringe
  • D) Drug kit                    D) Thermometer

149) The most cost effective family planning method is

  • A) Vasectomy     B) Tubectomy
  • C) Copper T        D) Oral pills

150) Benefit under the ESI act to an insured person in the case of sickness is payable for a continues maximum period of —- days, the daily rate being —- of the average daily wages.

  • A) 91 and 5/12             B)181 and 7/12
  • C) 91 and 7/12             D) 181 and 5/12

Download Answer Key : www.similima.com/pdf/ihma-mdentrance-2010-key.pdf

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Delhi University MD Homeopathy Entrance Exam 2009

Date : 13th December 2009
Time : 2 hours
Maximum marks : 120
Please do not open this booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator

Instructions

1. Total 120 questions in 28 pages. All questions carry equal marks. There is no negative marking.

2. Use blue or black ball point pen only for darkening the appropriate circle completely

3. Rough work is to be done only on the test booklet and not on answer sheet

4. Make sure that you do not posses any pages ( Blank or Printed) of anu un authorized material. If such material is found in your possession during examination, you will be disqualified for admission

5. If you are found copying/helping others, you will be disqualified for admission

6. Candidates found in possession of Cellular phone/Mobile phone/Cordless phone/Communication device/Pager/Scanner whether using or not will be liable to be debarred for taking examinations either permanently or for a specified period  and dealt with as per law and ordinance of the university according to the nature of offence, or/and she/he may be proceeded against and shall be liable for prosecution under the relevant provisions of the Indian Penal Code.

7. At the end of the examination handover the answer sheet to the invigilator

8. Do not leave the examination hall until you are asked to do so

1.Purkinjee fibers from the cerebellum end in

  • (A) Extra pyramidal system
  • (B)Cranial nerve nuclei
  • (C) Cerebellar nuclei
  • (D) Cerebral cortex

2.Hypoglossal nerve does not supply

  • (A) Genioglossus
  • (B) Palatoglossus
  • (C) Styloglossus
  • (D)Hypoglossus

3.Trendenberg’s sign is positive with weakness/paralysis of

  • (A) Gluteus maximus
  • (B) Gluteus medius & minimus
  • (C) Adductor longus
  • (D) Hamstrings

4.The following provides maximum support to the uterus

  • (A) Broad ligament
  • (B) Meckenrodt’s ligaments
  • (C) Round ligament
  • (D) Vascicoureterine fold

5.Lacrimation occurs when facial nerve injury is at

  • (A) Geniculate ganglion
  • (B) In semicircular canal
  • (C) At sphenopalatine ganglia
  • (D) At foramen spinosum

6.Shortest part of the colon is

  • (A) Ascending colon
  • (B) Transverse colon
  • (C) Descending colon
  • (D) Sigmoid colon

7.Carpal tunnel syndrome is due to the compression of

  • (A)Ulnar nerve
  • (B) Radial nerve
  • (C) Median nerve
  • (D) Axillary nerve

8.Iron is stared in

  • (A) RBC
  • (B) Reticuloendothelial System
  • (C) Plasma
  • (D) All of the above

9.One of the following is true regarding vomiting

  • (A) Chest held in mid inspiration
  • (B) Glottis opened
  • (C) Intra-abdominal pressure decreased
  • (D) Abdominal muscles relaxed

10. Full form of LASER is –

  • (A) Light amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
  • (B) Low assimilation of Small Energy Reserves
  • (C) Light assimilation by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
  • (D) Light array Causing Electromagnetic Radiation

11. First change to occur after nerve cut is

  • (A) Schwan cell mitosis
  • (B) Axonal sprouting
  • (C) Myelin sheath degeneration
  • (D) Nuclear disintegration

12.In Addison’s disease there is rise in –

  • (A) Blood glucose
  • (B) Blood pressure
  • (C) Serum potassium
  • (D) Serum sodium

13.Function of leutenising hormone is

  • (A) Follicle maturation and ovulation
  • (B) Milk secretion
  • (c) Causes progesterone secretion during ovulation
  • (D) Maintains placenta

14.All the following can be measured by simple spirometry except

  • (A) Inspiratory reserve volume
  • (B) Expiratory reserve volume
  • (C) Residual volume
  • (D) Tidal volume

15. Cyanosis or bluish discoloration of the skin and mucus membrane depends upon

  • (A)A relative proportion of reduced & oxygenated haemoglobin
  • (B) Absolute amount of reduced haemoglobin
  • (C) Thickness of the skin
  • (D) Fragility of the capillaries

16. In Beri Beri which enzyme activity is measured

  • (A) Transketolase
  • (B) Transaminase
  • (C) Decarboxylase
  • (D) Deazrzinase

17. Ketone body which is maximum in diabetic ketoacidosis

  • (A) Acetone
  • (B) Pyruvate
  • (C) Acetoacetic acid
  • (D) B – oxaloacetate

18. Ketoacidosis without giycosuria is seen in

  • (A) Aspirin poisoning
  • (B) Renal tubular acidosis
  • (C) Prolonged starvation
  • (D)) Paracetamol poisoning

19. Cholesterol detection can be done with the following except

  • (A) Lieberman Burchard reaction
  • (B) Zimmerman reaction
  • (C) Winslow test
  • (D) Salkowski reaction

20. Collagen is a major component of

  • (A) Synovial fluid
  • (B) Wharton’s Jelly
  • (C) Bone
  • (D) Hair

21.Whole wheat is an excellent source of

  • (A) Vitamin D
  • (B) Vitamin
  • (C) Thiamine
  • (D) Vitatmin A

22.All are transmitted by Feco oral route except

  • (A) Ascariasis
  • (B) Enterobius
  • (C) Giadiasis
  • (D) Strongyloides

23.Which of the following is most resistant to gonococcal infection

  • (A) Prostrate
  • (B) Epididymis
  • (C)Testes
  • (D) Urethra

24.Which of the following Hepatitis virus have significant perinatal transmission

  • (A) Hepatitis B virus
  • (B) Hepatitis C virus
  • (C) Hepatitis B virus
  • (D) Hepatitis A virus

25. Commonest Ca lung in non-smoker

  • (A) Squemons Cell Ca
  • (B) Adeno-Carcinoma
  • (C) Small Cell Ca
  • (D) Large Cell Ca

26. Honeycomb liver is produced by

  • (A) Histoplasmosis
  • (B)Hydatidosis
  • (C) Amoebic liver
  • (D) Actinomycosis

27. Characteristic feature of the kidney in Diabetes Mellitus is

  • (A) Nodular Kidney
  • (B) Fibrin cap
  • (C) Pappilary necrosis
  • (D) Diffuse Glomeroclosclerosis

28. O group blood will have –

  • (A) Both A & B agglutinogens
  • (B) Both A & B agglutinins
  • (C) Neither agglutinogens nor agglutinins
  • (D) Universal recipients

29. A person is declared dead if he is not found for

  • (A) 2 Years
  • (B) 7 Years
  • (C) 15 Years
  • (D) 20 Years

30. Crocodile skin appearance is seen in

  • (A) High voltage burn
  • (B) Electric shock
  • (C) Drowning
  • (D) Mummification

31. A 25 year old female present with Pyraxia for the last 10 days develops acute pain in periumblical region spreading all over the abdomen what would be the most likely cause –

  • (A) Perforation peritonitis due to intestinal tuberculosis
  • (B) Generalised peritonitis due to Appendicular perforation
  • (C) Typhoid enteric perforation and peritonitis
  • (D) Acute Salpingo-oophoritis with peritonitis

32. The following are the characteristic features of Motor Neuron disease except –

  • (A) Dysphagia
  • (B) Fasciculations
  • (C) Extensor planter response
  • (D) Nystagmus

33. In a patient lobar pneumonia due to pneumococcus, identify the correct order to which the following pathological stages appear­

  • (A) Red hepatisation – Grey hepatisation – Congestion – Resolution
  • (B) Congestion – Red hepatisation – Grey hepatisatian – Resolution
  • (C) Congestion – Grey hepatisation – Red hepatisation – Resolution
  • (D) Grey hepatisation – Red hepatisation Congestion – Resolution

34. A 30 year old housewife reports with six months amenorrhoea. Her serum LH and FSH are high with low estradial levels, what is the most likely cause of amenorrhoea

  • (A) Pituitary tumour
  • (B) Polycystic ovarian disease
  • (C) Exercise induced
  • (D) Premature menopause

35. A pregnant woman in third trimester has normal blood pressure when standing and sitting. When supine the B.P. drops to 90150 mm Hg, what is the diagnosis –

  • (A) Compression of uterine artery
  • (B) Compression of Aorta
  • (C) Compression of inferior vena cava
  • (D) Compression of internal iliac artery

36. Which one of the following causes the greatest risk of ectopic pregnancy –

  • (A) Pelvic inflammatory disease
  • (B) Intrauterine contraceptive devices used
  • (C) Previous ectopic pregnancy
  • (D) Previous medical termination of pregnancy

37. Amongst the following which one is the absolute contraindication of combined oral-contraceptive pills –

  • (A) Diabetes mellitus
  • (B) Migraine
  • (C) Previous history of Thrombo-embolism
  • (D) Heart disease

38. The diagnosis of rheumatic fever is best confirmed by –

  • (A) Throat-swab culture
  • (B) Raised ESR
  • (C) ASLO titre
  • (D) ECG changes

39. Commenst cause of death in sarcoidosis is –

  • (A) Pneumonia
  • (B) Corpulmonale
  • (C) Myocardial infarction
  • (D) Liver failure

40. IUGR (Intra Uterine Growth Retardation) is caused by all except

  • (A)Diabetes
  • (B) Alcohol
  • (C) Smoking
  • (D) Chronic renal failure

41. Koebner’s phenomenon is seen in

  • (A) Lupus Vulgaris
  • (L) Lupus Erythematosis
  • (C) Psoriasis
  • (D) Eczematons dermatitis

42. In leprosy nerve abscess most commonly affects­

  • (A) Ulnar nerve
  • (B) Radial nerve
  • (C) Great Auricular nerve
  • (D) Posterior tibial nerve

43. Which one is a wrong statement regarding Lichen Planus

  • (A) Biopsy of the skin show subepidermal IgA deposits
  • (B) Hepatitis C virus is one of the cause
  • (C) Self limited condition
  • (D) It is a autoimmune disorder

44. Pterygium of nail is characteristically seen in

  • (A) Lichen Planus
  • (B) Psoriasis
  • (C) Tinea unguium
  • (D) Alopecia areata

45. Genital warts are caused by­

  • (A) Human Papilloma virus
  • (B) Herpes Simplex virus
  • (C) Epstein Barr virus
  • (D) Lymphogranuloma Venereum

46. Ribnotching is produced by

  • (A) Coarctation or Aorta
  • (B) Neurofibrometosis
  • (C) Superior Vena Cavai Obstruction
  • (D) All of the above

47. IVP is done using –

  • (A) Conray 240
  • (B) Conray 380
  • (C) Conray 480
  • (D) Conray 540

48. C.T. Scan was invented by

  • (A) Geofiery Hounsfield
  • (B) Eric Storz
  • (C) John Snow
  • (D) Takashita Koba

49. Negri Bodies are seen in –

  • (A) Herpes Simplex Encephalitis
  • (B) Rabies
  • (C) Subacute Sclerosing Pan Encephalitis
  • (D) HIV Encephalitis

50. Which of the following is not a vector borne disease

  • (A) Japanese Encephalitis
  • (B) Dengue Fever
  • (C) Kala Azar
  • (D) Meningococcal Meningitis

51. Most common presenting finding of Multiple Sclerosis is –

  • (A) Intra nuclear opthalmoplagia
  • (B) Optic Neuritis
  • (C)Transverse myelitis
  • (D) Cerebeller atexia

52. Anxiety Neurosis is characterised by all except

  • (A) Suicidal intent
  • (B) Panic attacks
  • (C) Multiple somatic complaints
  • (D) Over concern

53. Early feature of Diabetic Retinopathy is –

  • (A) Hard Exudate
  • (B) Flame haemorrhage
  • (C) Capillary leakage
  • (D) Microaneurysm

54. Most common cause of retinal detachment is –

  • (A) Myopia
  • (B) Emmetropia
  • (C) Astigmatism
  • (D) Hypeimetropia

55. Elderly male with heart disease has sudden loss of vision in one eye, examination reveals a cherry red spot, diagnosis is­

  • (A) Central retinal vein occlusion
  • (B) Central retinal artery occlusion
  • (C) Amaurosis fugax
  • (D) Acute ischemic optic neuritis

56. Quinsy is characterised by all except –

  • (A) Peritonsillar Abscess
  • (B) Indication for tonsillectomy
  • (C) Should be drained
  • (D) Affects nasal mucosa

57. The main blood supply of the tonsil is –

  • (A) Lingual Artery
  • (B) Facial Artery
  • (C) Ascending pharengeal Artery
  • (D) Occipital Artery

58. Tuberculosis of the spine starts in

  • (A) Nucleus pulposus
  • (B) Vertebral body
  • (C) Annulus fibrosus
  • (D) Paravertibral fascia

59. All the following statements about spina bifida occulta are true except –

  • (A) it may be incidental finding
  • (B) The overlying skin may show a hairy patch
  • (C) The membrane reunieus increases in size without the growth of the child
  • (D) Paralytic deformity of the lower limb may occur around the age of 10 years

60. Meniers disease is associated with

  • (A) Cochlear deafness
  • (B) Conductive deafness
  • (C) Retrocochlear deafness
  • (D) Mixed

61. The urine has an odor of Violets, Hamaturia blood thoroughly mixed with urine, sediments like coffee grounds, cloudy, smoky. albuminous, profuse dark or black painless –

  • (A)Terebinth
  • (B) Cantharis
  • (C) Nit. Acid
  • (D) Hamamellis

62. Restlessness, could not keep quiet in any position, must keep in motion, though walking aggravates all symptoms –

  • (A) Rhus Tox
  • (B) Ruta
  • (C) Arsenic Alb.
  • (D) Tarentula

63. Mumps metastasis to mammae or testicles is one of the peculiar symptom o f -­

  • (A) Pulsatilla
  • (B) Belladonna
  • (C) Merc. Sol
  • (D) Rhus ‘Fox

64. School girls headache, worse by study or even slight mental exertion when using eye in close work and glasses fail to relieve with a tubercular history -­

  • (A) Nat. Mur.
  • (B) Tubereulinium
  • (C) Physiostigma
  • (D) Euphrasia

65. Sweat only on uncovered parts or all over except the head when he sleeps, stops when he wakes, profuse sour smelling fetid at night

  • (A) Silicea
  • (B) Sambucus
  • (C) Thuja
  • (D) Calc. Carb.

66. Nitric Acid covers misaim

  • (A) Psora
  • (B) Syphilis & Psora
  • (C) Sycosis
  • (D) Psora, Sycosis & Syphilis

67. Desires light and company, cannot bear to be alone, worse in dark and solitude, cannot walk in a dark room and no pain with most of the complaints –

  • (A) Apis Mel.
  • (B) Lachesis
  • (C) Stramonium
  • (D) Nat. Mur.

68.Sensation of lump of ice on vertex with chilliness, as of heat and cold at the same time on the scalp as if brain was torn to pieces –

  • (A) Glonoine
  • (B) Belladonna
  • (C) Gelsimium
  • (D) Varatrum Alb.

69. Mapped tongue covered with white film with sensation of rawness. This film comes off in patches leaving dark red tender very sensitive spats

  • (A) Merc. Sol
  • (B) Taraxacum
  • (C) Rhus Tax
  • (D) Lachesis

70. Mechanical injuries from sharp cutting instruments, post surgical operations, stinging smarting pains like cutting of a knife

  • (A) Apis Mel.
  • (B) Staphysagria
  • (C) Bellis Per.
  • (D) Arnica

71. Thuja belongs to which of the following constitution –

  • (A) Oxygenoid
  • (B) Carbonitrogenoid
  • (C) Hydrogenoid
  • (D) Strumous

72. Discharge of blood from the vagina every time the child takes the breast –­

  • (A) Pulsatilla
  • (B) Silicea
  • (C) Medorrhinum
  • (D) Bryonia

73. The “Balm of Gilead” for the diseases of the old maid and women during and after climacteric –

  • (A) Sepia
  • (B) Conium Macuiaturn
  • (C) Lachesis
  • (D) Causticum

74. Vertigo on seeing flowing water when walking over water as when crossing a bridge –

  • (A) Theradion
  • (B) Conium Maculatum
  • (C) Ferrum Met.
  • (D) Phosphorus

75. Ledum Pal belongs to the family of

  • (A) Leguminosae
  • (B) Ericaceae
  • (C) Papaveraceae
  • (D) Polygonaceae

76. Commmon name of Rumex Crispus –

  • (A) Rue
  • (B)Yellow Dock
  • (C) Blue Cohosh
  • (D) Stone Root

77. With every explosive cough there escapes a volume of pungent foetid air –

  • (A) Kali Iodite
  • (B) Pulsatilla
  • (C) Capsicum
  • (D) Nitric Acid

78. Indifferent to one’s family, to those whom she loves best is one of the characteristic mental symptom of­

  • (A) Argentum Nit.
  • (B) Nat. Mur.
  • (C) Phosphorus
  • (D) Sepia

79. Toothache from tobacco smoking is one of the characteristic symptom of –

  • (A) Merc. Sol
  • (B) Pulsatilla
  • (C) Spigilia
  • (D) All of the above

80. Pains are drawing, tearing, pressing, light or superficial during warm weather. affect the bones & deeper tissues when air is cold. pain goes from left to right –

  • (A) Rhus Tox
  • (B) Colchicum
  • (C) Bryonia
  • (D) Syphilinum

81. Object of Homoeopathic case taking is­

  • (A) To get an idea about common symptoms
  • (B) To get an idea about mental symptoms
  • (C) To get an idea about symptoms of the body
  • (D) To obtain an individual picture of the disease

82. In which aforism Dr. Samuel Hal3nemann has given idea about homoeopathic specific remedy –

  • (A) § No. 18
  • (B) § No. 70
  • (C) § No. 71
  • (D) § No. 147

83. Outwardly reflected picture of the internal essence of the diseases are –

  • (A) Objective Symptoms
  • (B) Subjective Symptoms
  • (C) Totality of the Symptoms
  • (D) None of the above

84. Psora is the cause of –

  • (A) Non-veneral chronic diseases
  • (B) Veneral chronic diseases
  • (C) Both Veneral & Non-veneral chronic diseases
  • (D) All acute & chronic diseases

85. Hahnemann wrote in­

  • (A) Only German language
  • (B) Both German & Latin
  • (C) German, English & Latin
  • (D) German, French & Latin

86. The phrase “Aude Sapere” was coined by –

  • (A) Hippocrates
  • (B) Horace
  • (C) Hahnemann
  • (D) Homer

87. Hahnemann died in the city of –

  • (A) Meissen
  • (B) Leipzig
  • (C) Paris
  • (D) Koethen

88. Of the below which require change in diet regulation –

  • (A) Indisposition
  • (B) Allopathic bungling
  • (C) Chronic disease
  • (D) Surgical disease

89. Medicine of experience was written by –

  • (A) Jahr
  • (B) Hahnemann
  • (C) Boenninghausen
  • (D) Kent

90. Of the below which is suitable medicine –

  • (A) The medicine which has previously cured the same type of disease.
  • (B) The medicine which has greatest similarity to the totality of symptoms.
  • (C)The medicine which has developed the same type of lesion in animal experimentation.
  • (D) The medicine belongs to the same family of plant kingdom or animal kingdom when the indicated drug is not available.

91. Of the below four persons by whom “cessat-effectus cessat causa” was declared –

  • (A) Galen
  • (B) Hippocrates
  • (C) Paracelsus
  • (D) Hahnemann

92. Last words uttered by Dr. Samuel Hahnemann were –

  • (A) Please publish the sixth edition of Organon
  • (B) Please spread Homoeopathy
  • (C) I have not lived in vain
  • (D) 0h God

93. Dr. Kent was born

  • (A) 2nd July 1843
  • (B) 31st ‘March 1849
  • (C) 1 st January 1800
  • (D) None of the above

94. 50 millisimal scale is described in which edition of Organon

  • (A) First Edition
  • (B) Second Edition
  • (C) Third Edition
  • (D) Sixth Edition

95. Who gave the idea of complete symptom –

  • (A) Dr. Hahnemann
  • (B) Dr. Boenninghausen
  • (C) Dr. J. T. Kent
  • (D) Dr. Stuart Close

96. A symptom is said to be complete if there is –

  • (A) Location, Sensation, Modality & Concomitant symptoms
  • (B) Subjective and Objective symptoms
  • (C) Keynote- and uncommon peculiar symptoms
  • (D) All of the above

97. The interpretation of Kent’s 12th observation states –

  • (A) Repetition of medicine in the same potency
  • (B) Repetition of medicine in the higher potency
  • (C) Medicine must be antidoted at once
  • (D) None of the above

98. In which edition of Organon of medicine Dr. Hahnemann included theory of drug dynamisation –

  • (A) Second Edition
  • (B) Fourth Edition
  • (C) Fifth Edition
  • (D) Sixth Edition

99. In which edition of Organon of medicine Dr. Hahnemann has included the theory of chronic diseases –

  • (A) First Edition
  • (B) Second Edition
  • (C) Third Edition
  • (D) Fourth Edition

100. Pseudo Syphilis & Spurious Syphilis are.

  • (A) Synonymous
  • (B) 2 Stages of Syphilis
  • (C) Secondary and tertiary syphilis respectively
  • (D) None of the above

101. In Kent’ s Repertory “Bubo” is in the chapter of­

  • (A) Stomach
  • (B) Abdomen
  • (C) Skin
  • (D) Genitalia Male

102. In Kent’s Repertory “lousiness” belong to chapter –

  • (A) Head
  • (B) Skin
  • (C) Generalities
  • (D) None of the above

103. In Boenninghausen’s Repertory Rubric (Ecstasy) is under

  • (A) Abdomen
  • (B) Hunger & Thirst
  • (C) Intellect
  • (D) Sensorium

104. In Kent’s Repertory Rubric “Reeling” is placed under

  • (A) Head
  • (B) Mind
  • (C) Vertigo
  • (D) None  of the above

105.Prime importance to pathological generals by

  • (A) Dr. Boger
  • (B) Dr. Boenninghausen
  • (C) Dr. Kent
  • (D) Dr. Gross

106. Gentry’s concordance Repertory was published in the year –

  • (A) 1886
  • (B) 1890
  • (C) 1782
  • (D) 1990

107. Dr. Kent died on –

  • (A) 6th June 1916
  • (B) 6th June 1910
  • (C) 2nd July 1922
  • (D)1 st January 1920

108. In which year the Repertory of comparative Materia Medica was published by Lippe

  • (A) 1845
  • (B) 1849
  • (C) 1854
  • (D) 1859

109. Rubric Addison’s disease in Kent’s Repertory is placed under –

  • (A) Bladder
  • (B) Kidney
  • (C) Ureter
  • (D) Generalities

110. Rubric (Lochia) in Kent’s Repertory is in the chapter of –

  • (A) Uterus
  • (B) Genitalia Female
  • (C) Generalities
  • (D) Menstruation

111. Suppression of urine in Kent’s Repertory is placed under –

  • (A) Bladder
  • (B) Ureter
  • (C) Urethra
  • (D) Kidney

112. Which medicine is found under Rubric Benevotance in BBCR –

  • (A) Coffea
  • (B) Aconite
  • (C) Belladonna
  • (D) None of the above

13. Who has Published the repertory of Antipsorics –

  • (A) Dr. Samuel Hahnemann
  • (B) Dr. J.T. Kent
  • (C) Dr. Constantine Hering
  • (D) Dr. Boenninghausen

114. Total number of sections in Boenninghausen’s therapeutic pocket book –

  • (A) 37
  • (B) 7
  • (C) 38
  • (D) None of the above

115. Obesity you will find in Repertory chapter or subchapter of Kent’s

  • (A) Abdomen
  • (B) Extremities
  • (C) Face
  • (D) Generalities

116. Boenninghausen’s therapeutic pocket book consist of –

  • (A) Repertory of Antipsoric medicine
  • (B) Repertory of medicine which are not antipsoric
  • (C) An attempt of showing the relative kinship of Homoeopathic
  • (D) All of the above

117. What is the name of’ the repertory written by Dr. Halmeman –

  • (A) Repertory of Materia Medica
  • (B) Repertory of Antipsoric Medicine
  • (C) Fragmenta De Viribus medicamentorum
  • (D) None of the above

118. What was the full name of Boeninghausen –

  • (A) Von Boenninghausen
  • (B) Fra,az Vorz BoPnn’anghausen
  • (C) Clemens Boenninghausen
  • (D) Baron Clemens Maria Frauz Von Boenninghausen

119.Opisthotonos you will find in which chapter or subchapter of Kent’s Repertory –

  • (A) Extremities
  • (B) Chest
  • (C) Back
  • (D) Generalities

120. Sentimental mood in moonlight is rubric of which chapter or subchapter of Kent’s Repertory –

  • (A) Mind
  • (B) Generalities
  • (C) Vertigo
  • (D) Head

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Govt of Kerala Homeopathy MD Entrance 2001 Paper II

Questions : 150 Marks : 600 Time : 120 Minutes

1.Please read the instructions given in the OMR Answer Sheet for marking answers. Candidates are advised to strictly follow the instructions contained in the OMR Answer Sheet.

2.For each question there are four suggested answers, given against (A), (B), (C) and (D) of which only one will be MOST APPROPRIATE answer. Indicate it in the OMR Answer Sheet.

3. Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to penalization formula based on the number of right answers actually marked and the number of wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded FOUR marks. ONE mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a question will be deemed as an incorrect response and will be negatively marked.

1. Which of the following is a cause of bilateral lower motor neuron facial palsy?

  • (A) Mumps
  • (B) Leprosy
  • (C) Tabes dorsolis
  • (D) Sarcoidosis 

2. If husband is sex linked receiver and wife is normal which of the following will snuffed from the disease?

  • (A) Daughters
  • (B) Grand daughters
  • (C) Daughter’s son
  • (D) Son’s daughter

3. The commonest cause of Cushing’s syndrome is:

  • (A) Steroids
  • (B) Adrenal tumour
  • (C) Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia  (D) Tuberculosis

4. In nephrotic syndrome, levels of following serum proteins decreases except:

  • (A) Albumin
  • (B) Transferrin
  • (C) Fibrinogin
  • (D) Ceruloplasmin

5. Hypokalemia occurs in:

  • (A) Meningitis
  • (B) Hepatitis
  • (C) Osteomylitis
  • (D) Bronchiectasis

6. Common presentation of primary Hyperparathyroidism is:

  • (A) Gallstone
  • (B) Abdominal pain
  • (C) Recurrent abortion
  • (D)) Subtle neurological and psychiatric symptoms

7. Earliest sensation lost in Diabetic Neuropathy:

  • (A) Weakness of small muscles of hand.
  • (B) Temperature
  • (C) Pain
  • (D) Vibration

8. Region of spine most commonly affected in Rheumatoid arthritis:

  • (A) Cervical
  • (B) Thoracic
  • (C) Lumbar
  • (D) Sacral

9. Vit-B deficiency causes:

  • (A) Haemorrhage
  • (B) C.N.S. affected
  • (C) Fits
  • (D) Depression

10. Diagnostic of fresh M. I.:

  • (A) Waves
  • (B) S. T. depression
  • (C) S.T. elevation
  • (D) U-waves

11. Irradiation causes:

  • (A) Osteosarcoma
  • (B) Paget’s disease of breast
  • (C) Paget’s disease of skin
  • (D) Ewing ’s tumour

12.Egg shell – calcification of hilar lymphnodes is characteristically seen in:

  • (A) Tuberculosis
  • (B) Sarcoidosis
  • (C) Teratoma
  • (D) Silicosis

13. All are seen in right border of heart in chest X-Ray except:

  • (A) IVC
  • (B) SVC
  • (C) Right Atrium
  • (D) Ascending aorta

14. What is emission of Radium?

  • (A) Electron
  • (B) Gamma Rays
  • (C) X-Rays
  • (D) All of the above

15. In a case of suspected left pleural effusion, X-Ray chest should be done in:

  • (A) Left lateral position.
  • (B) Left lateral decubitus position.
  • (C) Right lateral decubitus position.
  • (D) A. P. view supine.

16. The commonest symptom of foreign body in bronchus a child is:

  • (A) Cough
  • (B) Vomiting
  • (C) Dyspnoea
  • (D) Wheezing

17. The commonest  of nasopharyngeal carcinoma (Fossa of Rosenmuller) is:

  • (A) Epistaxis
  • (B) Hoarseness
  • (C) Nasal block
  • (1)) Deafness

18. The commonest cause of epistaxis in an elderly is:

  • (A) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
  • (B) Trauma
  • (C) Hyper tension
  • (D) Antro choanal polyp

19. In a 4 year old with ASOM, commonest organism is:

  • (A) Pneumococcus
  • (B) Staphylococcus
  • (C) Strepto coccus
  • (D) H.Influenza

20. Which of the following is characteristic of T. B. Otitis Media?

  • (A) Multiple perforations.
  • (B) Large central perforation.
  • (C) Marginal perforation.
  • (D) Attic perforation.

21 The earliest change noticed in hypertensive Retinopathy is:

  • (A) Hard exudate
  • (B) Arterial spasm
  • (C) Venus spasm
  • (D) Soft exudate

22. Most toxic intra ocular foreign body is:

  • (A) Iron
  • (B) Copper
  • (C) Lead
  • (D) Glass

23. Sub-conjunctival haemorrhage maybe seen in:

  • (A) Rabies
  • (B) Measles
  • ( Mumps
  • (D) Pertusis

24. Normal size of optic disc is:

  • (A) 2.0mm
  • (B) 2.5mm
  • (C)1 1.5mm
  • (D)1.0mm

25. Impaired colour vision is seen in:

  • (A) Papilloedema
  • (B) Papillitis
  • (C) Toxic Amblyopia
  • (D) Eales disease

26. The local anaesthesia is contra indicated in:

  • (A) Diabetic gangrene of foot
  • (B) Haemophilia
  • (C) Intermittent Claudication
  • (D) All of the above

27. All of the following are Vaso-dilators except:

  • (A) Cocaine
  • (B) Mepi vacaine
  • (C) Procaine
  • (D) Lignocaine

28. Colour of oxygen cylinder is:

  • (A) Blue
  • (B) Black & White
  • (C) Grey
  • (D) Orange

29. Hallucinations may be produced by:

  • (A) Halothane
  • (B) TCE
  • (C) N
  • (D) Ketarnine

30. Broncho spasm is caused by:

  • (A) Morphine
  • (B) N
  • (C) Halothane
  • (D) Isoflurane

31. Erosive arthritis is seen in all except:

  • (A) Gout
  • (B) Osteo arthritis
  • (C) SLE
  • (D) Hyper parathyroidism

32. In Gout the crystals are:

  • (A) Calcium phyrophosphate.
  • (B) Mono sodium urate.
  • (C) Mono potassium urate.
  • (D) Double phosphate.

33. Angular Kyphosis is most commonly produced by:

  • (A) Rickets
  • (B) Senile osteoporosis
  • (C) T1 of spine
  • (D) Hyperparathyroidism

34. Commonest site of prolapsed intervertebral disc is in between:

  • (A) C5-C6
  • (B) C7-Ti
  • (C) T12 – Li
  • (D) L4-L5&L5—Si

35. Plaster of paris chemically is:

  • (A) Calcium Sulphate.
  • (B) Calcium Phosphate.
  • (C) Hydrated Calcium Sulphate.
  • (D) Hemi hydrated Calcium Sulphate.

36. Tetanus neonatorum is best prevented by giving injection Tetanus Toxide to:

  • (A) Foetus after birth.
  • (B) Mother in 1st trimester.
  • (C) Mother in 2 & 3 trimester.
  • (D) Foetus at 3  month of age.

37. Which of the following is true about Iron deficiency anaemia?

              Total Iron Binding                    Serum Iron

  • Capacity (TIBC)
  • (A) Decreased                       Decreased
  • (B) Increased                         Increased
  • (C) Increased                         Decreased
  • (D) Decreased                        Increased

38. The most common complication of mumps in children:

  • (A) Appendicitis
  • (B) Pancreatitis
  • (C) Aseptic Meningitis
  • (D) Orchitis

39. In a newborn, liver is 1 cm. enlarged. The child has:

  • (A) Hemolytic disease
  • (B) Malaria
  • (C) Nutritional cirrhosis
  • (D) Normal development

40. Hemolytic disease in new born is seen if  Rh factor in:
MOTHER         FOETUS

  • (A)   Positive         Negative
  • (B)   Negative        Positive
  • (C)   Positive         Positive
  • (D)   Negative        Negative

41. Poor prognostic feature in schizophrenia:

  • (A) Family history of schizophrenia
  • (B) Late onset
  • (C) Affective symptoms
  • (D) Severe precipitating cause

42. False perception without stimulus is:

  • (A) Illusion
  • (B) Delusion
  • (C) Hallucination
  • (D) Dela Vj

43. Alcohol dependence is best indicated by:

  • (A) Early morning drinking.
  • (B) Physical con complications
  • (D) Withdrawal symptoms.

44. The characteristic symptom of organic psychosis is:

  • (A) Anxiety
  • (B) Depression
  • (C) Hallucination
  • (D) Transient delusion

45. In Lithium toxicity, following organs are affected except:

  • (A) Kidney
  • (B) Liver
  • (C) Brain
  • (D) Heart

46. Acrodermatitis is seen due to the deficiency of:

  • (A) Zinc
  • (B) Copper
  • (C) Iron
  • (D) Pyridoxine

47. Pityriasis versicolor is caused by:

  • (A) Epidermophyton
  • (B) Malezzia furfur
  • (C) Fungus
  • (D) Trichophyton

48. Incubation period of syphilis is:

  • (A) 2-7days
  • (B) 15 – 20 days
  • (C) 9 – 90 days
  • (D) 2-6 weeks

49. Umbilicated white pearly papule is seen in:

  • (A) Chicken pox
  • (B) Small pox
  • (C) Herpes Zoster
  • (D) Molluscum contagiosunt

50. A patient with single hypopigmented anaesthetic patch with satellite lesions on fore arm. Most likely diagnosis is:

  • (A) Tuberculoid leprosy
  • (B) Indeterminate leprosy
  • (C) Neuritic leprosy
  • (D) Lepromatous leprosy

51. Carcinoma cervix may be caused by:

  • (A) Herpes simplex
  • (B) Papilloma virus
  • (C) Syphilis
  • (D) Trichomones

52. The least common complication of fibroid is:

  • (A) Calcification
  • (B) Red-degeneration
  • (C) Hyaline change
  • (D) Malignancy

53. The commonest cause of post partum Haemorrhage is:

  • (A) Vaginal laceration
  • (B) Coagulapathy
  • (C) Cervical t
  • (D) Uterine atony

54. Best sign of Toxaemia of pregnancy:

  • (A) Diastolic blood pressure> 100 mm / Hg
  • (B) Urine outpl4t 400 cc
  • (C) Albuminuria 1 grm per 24 hours
  • (D) Oedema

55. Commonest site of ectopic pregnancy is:

  • (A) Uterus
  • (B) Cervix
  • (C) Tubes
  • (D) Abdomen

56. The dose of iron prophylaxis in a pregnant female is:

  • (A) 20 mg.
  • (B) 60mg.
  • (C) 120mg.
  • (D) 180mg.

57. Iron prophylaxis in a pregnant female is started at:

  • (A) 6 weeks
  • (B) 10 weeks
  • (C) 16 weeks
  • (D) 18 weeks

58. Rachety pelvis is characterised by all of the following except:

  • (A) Wide outlet
  • (B) Wide interspinous diameter
  • (C) Leniform brim
  • (D) False premontory

59. The commonest cause of vulvovaginitis in children is:

  • (A) Gonococcus
  • (B) Trichomoniasis
  • (C) Oxyuriasis
  • (D) Candida

60. Pregnancy can be first diagnosed by ultra sound at:

  • (A) 2weeks
  • (B) 5 weeks
  • (C) 12 weeks
  • (D) 16 weeks

61. Tuberculosis of genital tract is commonest in:

  • (A) Uterus
  • (B) Cervix
  • (C) Vulva
  • (D) Tubes

62. The commonest congenital anamoly of uterus is:

  • (A) Bicomuate Bicollis
  • (B) Bicornuate Unicollis
  • (C) Unicomuate Bicollis
  • (D) Unicomuate Unicollis

63. The commonest ovarian tumour in a lady aged 20-30 years is:

  • (A) Mucinous cystadenoma
  • (B) Thecoma
  • (C) Dysge
  • (D) Serous cystadenoma

64. In pregnant woman at 6 weeks have an ovarian mass 5 x 5 cms and, at 15 weeks have an ovarian mass 2 x 2 cms. The diagnosis is:

  • (A) Graffian follicle cyst
  • (B) Corpus luteum cyst
  • (C) Dermoid cyst
  • (D) Luteum of pregnancy

65. Longest part of fallopian tube:

  • (A) Interstitial
  • (B) Isthmal
  • (C) Ampullary
  • (D) Infundibulum

66. Which of the following disease does not transmit through placenta?

  • (A) Tuberculosis
  • (B) Measles
  • (C) Syphilis
  • (D) Gonorrhoea

67. Common cause of habitual abortion:

  • (A) Hormone deficiency
  • (B) Fault on ovum
  • (C) Sexual transmitted disease
  • (D) Uterine abnormalities

68. Metrorrhagia in fibroid indicates:

  • (A) Ulceration of sub-mucus fibroid
  • (B) Ovarian tumour
  • (C) Twisting
  • (D) Pregnancy

69. With severe pain and bleeding of 28 weeks of pregnancy, diagnosis is:

  • (A) Premature labour
  • (B) Placenta previa
  • (C) Accidental haemorrhage
  • (D) Threatened abortion

70. Vaccine contra-indicated in pregnancy is:

  • (A) Tuberculin
  • (B) Influenza
  • (C) Typhoid
  • (D) Hepatitis-B

71. To differentiate the cause of splenomegaly – best is:

  • (A) Bone marrow
  • (B) Splenic pulp smear
  • (C) Spleno portography
  • (D) Peripheral smear

72. Commonest site of peptic ulcer:

  • (A) Antrum of stomach
  • (B) Pylorus
  • (C) Anterior part of duodenum
  • (D) Posterior part of duodenum

73. Sub-dural haemorrhage is commonly because of rupture of

  • (A) Anterior cerebral artery
  • (B) Middle cerebral artery
  • (C) Posterior cerebral artery
  • (D) Dural sinuses

74. Cleft lip is ideally repaired at:

  • (A) 4weeks
  • (B) 6 week
  • (C) 9 months
  • (D) 1 year

75. Commonest site for ectopic salivary gland tumours is:

  • (A) Tongue
  • (B) Cheek
  • (C) Palate
  • (D) Neck

76.The commonest lumbar epidural tumour in children is:

  • (A ) DERMOID
  • (B) FIBROMA
  • (C) Neuroblostoma
  • (D) Chardoma

77. Useful test for diagnosis of primary hypothyroidism:

  • (A) T.S.H.
  • (B) T3 T4
  • (C) Biopsy
  • (D) Scan

78. The root cause for pyogenic liver abscess is:

  • (A) Biliary sepsis
  • (B) Stone
  • (C) Appendicitis
  • (D) Ulcerative colitis

79. 21 years unmarried female has pre-mensfrual fullness of breast is due to:

  • (A) Fibro adenoma
  • (B) Fibro adinosis
  • (C) Galactococle
  • (D) Abscess

80. Best artery for coronary angiography:

  • (A) Brachial
  • (B) Femoral
  • (C) Carotid
  • (D) Axillary

81. Painless swelling below hyoid bone – most common diagnosis is:

  • (A) Thyroglossal cyst
  • (B) Ectopic thyroid
  • (C) Lymphnode
  • (D) Brachial cyst

82. Not seen in undescended testis:

  • (A) Hernia
  • (B) Teratoma
  • (C) Hydrocele
  • (D) Seminoma

83. Most common site of metastasis from cancer kidney is:

  • (A) Bone
  • (B) Liver
  • (C) Brain
  • (D) Lungs

84. Most common symptom of cancer bladder:

  • (A) Haematuria
  • (B) Urinary incontinence
  • (C) Pain
  • (D) Fever

85. Commonest cause of cerebral infarction:

  • (A) Thrombosis
  • (B) Emboli
  • (C) Arteritis
  • (D) Cysticercosis

86. Commonest cause of adrenal insufficiency in India is:

  • (A) T. B.
  • (B) Auto immune
  • (C) Steroid withdrawal
  • (D) Surgery

87. In post-burn patient, following is seen:

  • (A) Hypo Kalemic Acidosis
  • (B) Hypo Kalemic Alkalosis
  • (C) Hyper Kalemic Alkalosis
  • D) Hyper Kalemic Acidosis

88. Bleeding per rectum is present in following except:

  • (A) Ulcerative colitis
  • (B) Meckelis diverticulurn
  • (C) Rectal Carcinoma
  • (D) Sigmoid Valvulus

89. Which Hernia is least likely to strangulate?

  • (A) Direct Inguinal Hernia
  • (B) Indirect Inguinal Hernia
  • (C) Femoral Hernia
  • (D) Umbilical Hernia

90. Surgery in Varicose Vein is contra indicated:

  • (A) Varicose vein with leg ulcer.
  • (B) Deep vein thrombosis.
  • (C) Multiple incompetent perforators.
  • (D) All of the above.

91. Diarrhoea is caused by following except:

  • (A) Reo virus
  • (B) Calci virus
  • (C) Entero virus
  • (D) Adeno virus

92. False about filaria is:

  • (A) Man is intermediate host.
  • (B) Adult worms are found in lymphatics of man.
  • (C) Culex is a vector.
  • (D) Life span of microfilaria is not exactly known.

93. Cholera true is:

  • (A) Cholera Toxin acts on GM, receptor.
  • (B) Mortality is more with eltor.
  • (C) Activates cycle AMP.
  • (D) Is neurotoxic.

94. Gonococcus does not cause involvement of:

  • (A) Epidydimis
  • (B) Testis
  • (C) Prostate
  • (D) Ant-urethra

95. True about lepra bacilli are:

  • (A) Anti leprosy vaccine gives life long protection.
  • (B) I.N.H. inhibits their growth.
  • (C) Incubation period is 3-4 months.
  • (D) Microbacterium leprae can be grown in foot pad of mice.

96. Most common cause of Acute Coryza:

  • (A) Influenza virus
  • (B) R.S.V.
  • (C) Corona virus
  • (D) Rhino virus

97. Immunoglobulin which crosses placental barrier is:

  • (A )lgG
  • (B) 1gM
  • (C) IgD
  • (D) IgE

98. For HTLV-III infection (AIDS) – the most specific test is:

  • (A) ELISA test
  • (B) Manospot test
  • (C) Weston blot test
  • (D) Virus culture

99. Negri bodies are most often found in:

  • (A) Midbrain
  • (B) Hippo campus
  • (C) Basal ganglia
  • (D) Frontal cortex

100. Epidemiologic study of Hepatitis-B:

  • (A) HBs AG is used
  • (B) IgG and HBC
  • (C) HBcAg
  • (D) HBeAg

101. The Homeopathic law of nature and a provisional explanation of it:

  • (A) Sec. 26 – 35
  • (B) Sec. 36 – 40
  • (C) Sec. 99 -104
  • (D) Sec. 52 – 55

102. Clinical varieties of Acute Diseases ,

  • (A) Sec. 73
  • (B) Sec. 153
  • (C) Sec. 118
  • (D) Sec 150

103.Where the aggravation is quick, short and strong with rapid improvement of the patient

  • (A) 1st observation of Kent
  • (B) 5th observation of Kent
  • (C) 3rd observation of Kent
  • (D) 12th observation of Kent

104. At the present day advanced thinkers are speaking of the fault state of matter which is immaterial substance:

  • (A) Boger
  • (B) Robert
  • (C) Dunham
  • (D) J.T.Kent

105. “The removal of the totality of symptoms means removal of the cause”, is the statement of:

  • (A) Hahnemann
  • (B) Close
  • (C) Dedgeon
  • (D) J.T.Kent

106. The “Friend of Health” was written by:

  • (A) Hahnemann
  • (B) Kent
  • (C) J E Park
  • (D) Socrates

107. “Whenjni,tealth she could not live without her daily dram consequently could not recover without it “ is the statement of:

  • (A) Dunham
  • (B) Close
  • (C) Boenninghausen
  • (D) Hahnemann

108. “Psora – It is the mother of all true chronic diseases except the syphilitic and sycotic” Aphorism:

  • (A) Sec. 70 – 71
  • (B) Sec. 120 121
  • (C) Sec. 81-82
  • (D) Sec. 76-77

109. Inappropriately called chronic diseases:

  • (A) Sec. 69 – 70
  • (B) Sec. 40 – 42
  • (C) Sec. 74 – 75
  • (D) Sec. 77

110. “Scurvy is produced by a system of diet opposite to this, therefore it may be cured by ‘ a dietetic course. The reverse of that which produced it” is said by:

  • (A) Dunham
  • (B) Close
  • (C) Halinemann
  • (D) Kent

111. “The Friend of Health” was published at Frankjoet in the year:

  • (A) 1792
  • (B) 1790
  • (C) 1796
  • (D) 1810

112. “The Medicine of experience’ was written by:

  • (A) Jahr
  • (B) Boenninghausen
  • (C) Kent
  • (D) Hahnemann

113. “The cell lives for itself” says:

  • (A) Hahnemarin
  • (B) Huges
  • (C) Burnet
  • (D) Carpenter

114. “The subjects of Anatomy, Physiology are not life, but only results of life” is said by:

  • (A) Dunham
  • (B) Close
  • (C) Kent
  • (D) Hahnemann

115. 6th edition of organon consists of Aphorism:

  • (A) 291
  • (B) 294
  • (C) 292
  • (D) 293

116. Animal magnetism, mesmarism in Aphorism in 6th Edition:

  • (A) 288, 289
  • (B) 278, 279
  • (C) 281, 282
  • (D) 286, 287

117.Massage in aphorism

  • (A) 280
  • (B) 270
  • (C) 260
  • (D) 290

118. Diet in acute diseases — Aphorism:

  • (A) 259 – 261
  • (B) 267 – 268
  • (C) 142 – 143
  • (D) 262 – 263

119. The manuscript of 6th Edition was left ready by our master ‘Hahnemann in the year’:

  • (A) 1846
  • (B) 1842
  • (C) 1921
  • (D) 1890

120. Thus Homeopathy like a candle stick of the Hebrew Tabernacle has been shaped by Hammering not by casting as was aptly remarked by:

  • (A) C.Dunham
  • (B) Dudgeen .
  • (C) Hughes
  • (D) Hahnemann

121. Necrosis of bones are found in Kent Repertory in chapter:

  •  A) Generalities
  • (B) Extremities
  • (C) In (A)&(B)
  • (D) Not given

122. I Repertory in English language was published by:

  • (A) J.T.Kent
  • (B) Dr. Lippe
  • (C) Dr.C.Hering
  • (D) Dr. P. Schmidth

123. He is the father of Homeopathic repertory:

  • (A) Boenninghausen
  • (B) Jahr
  • (C) Lippe
  • (D) Hahnemann

124. In Kent Repertory where do we find Milk Absent?

  • (A) Generalities
  • (B) Glands
  • (C) Chest
  • (D) Not given

125. He was the first person to evaluate remedies:

  • (A) Boenninghausen
  • (B) Kent
  • (C) Hahnemann
  • (D) Jahr

126. Blue Leucorrhoea — in Kent Repertory:

  • (A) Ambragracia
  • (B) Sepia
  • (C) Hydrastis
  • (D) Alumina

127. First Card Repertory available to profession in the year:

  • (A) 1892 4
  • (B) 1982
  • (C) 1888
  • (D) 1891

128. Synthetic repertory in the year:

  • (A) 1982
  • (B) 1892
  • (C) 1897
  • (D) 1981

129. In Kent Repertory – cross-reference given for HUMOROUS is:

  • (A) Mood
  • (B) Jesting
  • (C) Joy
  • (D) Joyous

130. Awkwardness is found in B. B. C. R.:

  • (A) Extremities
  • (B) Mind
  • (C) Sensorium
  • (D) Sensation

131. If vertigo and headache be very persistent or prostration be prolonged after Nat Mur , will relieve:

  • (A) Gels
  • (B) Apis
  • (C) Glonoine
  • (D) Nux-vom

132. Believes that she is going to die soon that she cannot be helped:

  • (A) Aconite
  • (B) Hydrastis
  • (C) Agnus-C
  • (D) Hell

133. Irritable pains are accompanied by excitement:

  • (A) Aconite
  • (B) Chain
  • (C) Coffea
  • (D) Causticum

134. Convulsions of single muscle:

  • (A) Ignitia
  • (B) Cup-Met
  • (C) Mag-phos
  • (D) Bufo

135. Tension is the key-note of:

  • (A) Aconite
  • (B) Arg-Nit
  • (C) Gels
  • (D) Ox-Acid

136. 4-8 P.M. aggravation in Bowel nosodes:

  • (A) Morgon gartner
  • (B) Morgon pure
  • (C) Proteus
  • (D) Bacillus-7

137. Morning diarrhoea in evening constipation:

  • (A) Alles
  • (B) Sulph
  • (C) Bryonia
  • (D) Nat-Mur

138. Suppressed menses leads to cardiac complaints:

  • (A) Abrotinum
  • (B) Bryonia
  • (C) Kalmia
  • (D) Phos.

139. Aversion to mother:

  • (A) Raphanus
  • (B) Silicia
  • (C) Caust
  • (D) Thuja

140. Back-ache is relieved by lying on abdomen. One drug is Acitic Acid; another is:

  • (A) Nat-Mur
  • (B) Medo
  • (C) Kalicarb
  • (D) Tubercilinum

141. Slow in learning to walk and talk due to sluggish development of mind:

  • (A) Agaricus
  • (B) CaI-carb
  • (C) Aethusa
  • (D) Bar-carb

142. Marasmus with retracted abdomen:

  • (A) Abrotinum
  • (B) Nat-Mur
  • (C) Cal-carb
  • (D) Cal-phos

143. Angry at trifles and perfectly harmless things, but is soon sorry for it:

  • (A) Nat-Mur
  • (B) Ignitia
  • (C) Cham
  • (D) Meze

144. Asthama worse in foggy weather as per Boereik:

  • (A) Nat-Suip
  • (B) Duic.
  • (C) Rhus-Tox
  • (D) Hypericum

145. Complaints from eating melons and drinking impure water as per Boereik:

  • (A) Zingeber
  • (B) Pyrogen
  • (C) Duic.
  • (D) Nat-Sulp

146. Cal-carb and bar-carp – Drug relation:

  • (A) Concordant
  • (B) Incompatable
  • (C) Antidote
  • (D) Complementary

147. All Acid drugs are thirstless except:

  • (A) Acid-pic
  • (B) Lac-Acid
  • (C) Oxalic Acid
  • (D) Acitic Acid

148. 3 P.M. and 3 A.M. aggravation – Drug is:

  • (A) Puls
  • (B) Apis
  • (C) Kali-carb
  • (D) Thuja

149. Cough is better by lying down and aggravated in day time:

  • (A) Hyos
  • (B) Medo
  • (C) Pulse
  • (D) Manganum

150. The pains are tearing and aching – the seat of the disease is:

  • (A) Serous membranes
  • (B) Mucus membrane
  • (C) Tendons
  • (D) Muscles

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Govt of Kerala Homeopathy MD Entrance 2001 Paper I

Questions : 150        Marks : 600         Time : 120 Minutes

1.Please read the instructions given in the OMR Answer Sheet for marking answers. Candidates are advised to strictly follow the instructions contained in the OMR Answer Sheet.

2.For each question there are four suggested answers, given against (A), (B), (C) and (D) of which only one will be MOST APPROPRIATE answer. Indicate it in the OMR Answer Sheet.

3. Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to penalization formula based on the number of right answers actually marked and the number of wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded FOUR marks. ONE mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a question will be deemed as an incorrect response and will be negatively marked.

1. Nerve Supply of Larynx except:

  • (A) Superior laryngeal nerve.
  • (B) Recurrent laryngeal nerve.
  • (C) Ext. branch of superior laryngeal nerve. 
  • (D) Ansa cervicalis nerve. 

2. Primary Motor area of the Brain:

  • (A) Superior temporal gyri.
  • (B) Post central gyri
  • (C) Pre central gyri.
  • (D) Inferior frontal gyri.

3. Aductor polics muscle supplied by nerve:

  • (A) Radial nerve.
  • (B) Median nerve.
  • (C) deep branch of peroneal nerve
  • (D) Superficial branch of ulnar nerv

4. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery is a branch of:

  • (A) Vertebral artery.
  • (B) Posterior cerebellar artery.
  • (C) Basilary artery.
  • (D) Internal carotid artery.

5. One of the boundary of Inguinal triangle:

  • (A) Conjoint tendon.
  • (B) Pectineal line.
  • (C) Linea semilunaris.
  • (D) Inferior epigastria artery.

6. Structures pass through cavernous sinus except

  • (A) Internal carotid artery.
  • (B) Occulomotor nerve.
  • (C) Abducent nerve.
  • (D) Mandibular branch of Trigeminal nerve.

7.Gluteus maximus muscle is inserted into:

  • (A) Greater tronchanter.
  • (B) Shaft of femur.
  • (C) Glutial tubersity + ilio tibial tract.
  • (D) Ilio tibial tract.

8.Inferior epigastric artery is branch of:

  • (A) Femoral artery.
  • (B) Ext. iliac artery.
  • (C) Internal iliac artery.
  • (D) Lateral circumflex artery

9.Muscle attached to Ulnar tuberosity

  • (A) Supinator.
  • (B) Biceps brachi.
  • (C) Brachialis.
  • (D) Flexorcarpi ulnaris.

10.Anterior fold of axilla is formed by:

  • (A) Pectoralis major + minor.
  • (B) Pectoralis major + serratus anterior.
  • (C) Pectoralis major + clavi pectrol fascia.
  • (D) Pectoralis major + subscapularies.

11. Attachment of semi membranous include:

  • (A) Ischial tubersity + medial tibial condyle.
  • (B) Ischial tubersity + tibial shaft.
  • (C) Ischial tubersity + fibular head.
  • (D) Ischial tubersity + lateral condyle of tibia.

12. Uterain artery is a branch of:

  • (A) Common iliac artery.
  • (B) Internal iliac artery.
  • (C) External iliac artery.
  • (D) Lateral sacral artery.

13. Duodenal ulcer bleeds from:

  • (A) Left gastric artery.
  • (B) Gastro duodenal artery.
  • (C) gastric artey-
  • (D) Superior pancreatico duodenal artery.

14. Neck pulsation felt inferiorly at medial border of sternocleidomastoid muscle is:

  • (A) Vertebral.
  • (B) Bracheal.
  • (C) Subclavian.
  • (D) Internal jugular.

15. Mandibular nerve lesion at origin involves following:

  • (A) Buccinator.
  • (B) Masseter.
  • (C) Lateral pterigoid.
  • (D)) Tensor tympani.

16. Following have lymphatics except:

  • (A) Brain.
  • (B) Dermis.
  • (C) Eye.
  • (D) Internal ear.

17. Trachea bifurcates at the level of (during deep inspiration):

  • (A) T6-7
  • (B) T3-4
  • (C) T 5-6
  • (D) T4-5

18. Oesophagus and Duodenum share:

  • (A) Submucus glands.
  • (B) Mucus cells.
  • (C) Pseudo stratified column epithelium.
  • (D) All of the above.

19. Ovarian artery is a branch of:

  • (A) Internal iliac.
  • (B) External iliac artery.
  • (C) Common iliac artery.
  • (D) Aorta.

20. Phrenic nerve branch from the roots of:

  • (A) C2,3.
  • (B) C1,2,3.
  • (C) C3,4,5.
  • (D) C4,5,6.

21. Deep peroneal nerve supplies to:

  • (A) Lateral group of muscles of leg.
  • (B) Peronous longus + Extensor digitorium braves.
  • (C) Lateral group of muscles of leg – extensor digitorium braves.
  • (D) Posterior muscles of leg.

22. Thoracic duct ends at

  • (A) Junction of left sub clavian and internal jugular veins.
  • (B) Left jugular vein.
  • (C) Left sub clavian vein.
  • (D) Right jugular vein.

23. Chorda tympani nerve is a branch of:

  • (A) Trigeminal.
  • (B) Facial nerve.
  • Spinal accessory
  • (D) Glossopharyngeal.

24. Ansa cervicalis nerve supplies to:

  • (A) Sterno hyoid.
  • (B) Thyro hyoid.
  • (C) Omo hyoid + Sterno thyroid.
  • (D) All of the above.

25. Nerve supply of Extraocular muscles:

  • (A) Occulomotor.
  • (B) Abducent.
  • (C) Trochlear.
  • (D) All of the above.

26. Woiffian duct gives rise to:

  • (A) Tunica vaginalies.
  • (B) Testis.
  • (C) Epididymis and vas deferéns.
  • (D) Uterus.

27. The sphennoid air sinus opens into:

  • (A) Middle meatus.
  • (B) Spheno ethmoidl recess.
  • (C) Inferior meatus.
  • (D) Bulla ethmoid.

28. Medial side of great toe is supplied by nerve:

  • (A) Saphenous.
  • (B) Tibial posterior.
  • (C) Anterior tibial.
  • (D) Deep peroneal.

29. Pisiform bone gives attachment to:

  • (A) Pisohamate ligament.
  • (B) Abductor pollicus.
  • (C) Extensor carpi ulnaris.
  • (D) Flexor pollicus.

30. Internal pudendal artery is a branch of:

  • (A) Superior iliac.
  • (B) Common peroneal.
  • (C) Internal iliac.
  • (D) Abdominal aorta.

31. Narrowest part of male urethra is at:

  • (A) Fossa navicularies.
  • (B) Bulbar urethra.
  • (C) External meatus.
  • (D) Prostatic urethra.

32. Double nerve supply is received by:

  • (A) Abductor magnus.
  • (B) Abductor longus.
  • (C) Abductor bravis.
  • (D) Gracilus.

33. Superior rectal vein drains into:

  • (A) Portal vein.
  • (B) Internal lilac vein.
  • (C) Hepatic vein
  • (D) Renal vein.

34. Dentate nucleus is a part of:

  • (A) Mid brain.
  • (B) Pons.
  • (C) Medulla.
  • (D) Cerebellum.

35. Duct of wirsung opens at:

  • (A) Minor papilla.
  • (B) Major papilla.
  • (C) Upper 2nd Molar.
  • (D) Side of the frenulum of tongue.

36. Skeletal muscle is deficient in:

  • (A) Glucose-6-phosphatase.
  • (B) Phospho fructokinase.
  • (C) Hexo kinase.
  • (D) Isomerase.

37. The urine Urobilinogen is tested with:

  • (A) Benedicts test.
  • (B) Rotherrs test.
  • (C) Tri-iodine test.
  • (D) Ehrlichs aldehyde test.

38. Tn Nephrotic syndrome with hyperlipidemia, correct is:
Volume               Serum Sodium

  • (A) Hyper Volemia          Low
  • (B) Hypo Volemia           Low
  • (C) Hyper Volemia          High
  • (D) Hyper Volemia          Normal

39. Adult Haemoglobin consists of chains:

  • (A) 2a+2B
  • (B) 2B+2Y
  • (C) 2a+2Z
  • (D) 2a+2Y

40. In which of the following Haemoglobin is abnormal?

  • (A) Sickle cell anaemia.
  • (B) Pernicious anaemia.
  • (C) G-6 P-D Deficiency.
  • (D) Hereditary spherocytosis.

41. Liver does not synthesize:

  • (A) Gamma globulin.
  • (B) Albumin.
  • (C) Prothrombin.
  • (D) Fibrinogen.

42. High dose of glucose causes all except:

  • (A)   Pancreatic Amylose.
  • (B)   Glucose 6 Phosphatosoe.
  • (C)   Acetyl Carboxylosoe.
  • (D)   G-6 PD levels.

43. Atherosclerosis occurs in following except

  • (A) Biliary cirrhosis.
  • (B) Hypercholestreuria.
  • (C) Hyperalimentation.
  • (D) Clofibrate Theary.

44. Membrane integrity of R.B.C. is due to:

  • (A) P. Protein.
  • (B) Spectrin.
  • (C) Ankyrin.
  • (D) Glycophorin.

45. Which is metabolised like xenobiotics?

  • (A) Myoglobulin
  • (B) Biliverdin
  • (C) Hemoglobin
  • (D) Bilirubin

46. Gastrin is secreted from:

  • (A) Duodenum.
  • (B) Pyloric Antrum.
  • (C) Lesser curvature.
  • (D) Cardiac.

47. Human body can store oxygen for:

  • (A) 4-10 minutes.
  • (B) 15-20 minutes.
  • (C) 25 minutes.
  • (C)) 30 minutes.

48. The following are required for calcium absorption except:

  • (A) Bile salts.
  • (B) Calcitonin.
  • (C) Vitamin D.
  • (D) Para Thyroid Hormone.

49. Flow during last stage of expiration decreases because of:

  • (A) Collapse of Alveoli.
  • (B) Dynamic compression of air ways.
  • (C) Breaking by inspiratory muscles.
  • (D) All of the above.

50. Pulse pressure varies as blood flows to the extremities due to:

  • (A) Change in velocity.
  • (B) Change in viscosity.
  • (C) Cross sectional area.
  • (D) Change in vessel wall.

51. Platue phase of action potential is seen in:

  • (A) A. V. Node.
  • (B) S. A. Node.
  • (C) Atrial fibres.
  • (D) Ventricular fibres.

52. Which gas is not responsible for green house effect?

  • (A) Ozone
  • (B) Nitrogen
  • (C) Nitrus oxide
  • (D) Carbon-dioxide

53. Sperm motility is caused by:

  • (A) Epididymis.
  • (B) Testis.
  • (C) Vas-deferens.
  • (D) Prostatic secretion.

54. Order of  activation after  of Purkinje Fibers is

  • (A) Epiendo septum.
  • (B) Endo epi septum.
  • (C) Endo cardium septum epicardium.
  • (D) Episeptum endocardium.

55. Normal mitral valve area in adults is:

  • (A) 0.5-2cm
  • (B) 1-4 cm
  • (C) 4-6 cm
  • (D) 6-8 cm

56. Daily loss of water from skin in absence of visible sweating is:

  • (A) 1. 5 litres.
  • (B) 1 litre.
  • (C) 500 – 700 ml.
  • (D) 200 – 300 ml.

57. Iron absorption is increased by:

  • (A) Fiber diet.
  • (B) Vit-C.
  • (C) Phosphates.
  • (D) Phytic Acid.

58. Pulse blood pressure is:

  • (A) diastolic + 1/3 systolic.
  • (B) Diastolic + – systolic.
  • (C) 1/3 diastolic ÷ systolic.
  • (D) Systolic – Diastolic B. P.

59.F.S.H. & I.C.S.H. are produced by:

  • (A) Ovarian follicles.
  • (B) Corpus luteum.
  • (C) Endometrium. –
  • (D) Adeno hypophysis.

60. Renal artery constriction is associated with:

  • (A) Heart disease.
  • (B) Carotid artery stenosis.
  • (C) Azyotemia.
  • (D) Hyper tension.

61. Sodium is maximum in:

  • (A) Extra cellular spaces.
  • (B) Intra cellular spaces.
  • (C) Interstitial spaces.
  • (D) Bone.

62. Normal glucose level present in C.S.F. is

  • (A) 5omgto8Omg.
  • (B) 8omgtol20mg.
  • (C) 120 mg to 180 mg.
  • (D) not present.

63. Normal daily secretion of gastric intestinal tract is:

  • (A) 2000 cc.
  • (B) 3000 cc.
  • (C) 5500 cc.
  • (D) 8000 cc.

64. Beta-Endorphins are released from:

  • (A) Adrenal cortex.
  • (B) Anterior and intermediate lobe of pituitary.
  • (C) Posterior lobe of pituitary.
  • (D) Thyroid.

65. Hemoglobin to appear first in fetus is:

  • (A) HbA
  • (B) Hb A2
  • (C)HbF
  • (D) HbGowers

66.Glomerular filtration is most dependent on:

  • (A) Renal blood flow.
  • (B) Pressure in bowman’s capsule.
  • (C) Glomerular capillary pressure.
  • (D) Plasma membrane pressure.

67. During action potential permeability of following increases:

  • (A) Chlorine-
  • (B) Sodium+
  • (C) Potassium +
  • (D) HCO

68. Auditory impulses relay to:

  • (A) Sup calliculus.
  • (B) Medial leminiscus.
  • (C) Inferior geniculate.
  • (D) Medial geniculate body.

69. Iron (Fe) Absorption decreases by following except:

  • (A) Phytates.
  • (B) Phosphate.
  • (C) Vit-C.
  • (D) Taurine.

70. Thirst center is situated in:

  • (A) Hypo thalamus.
  • (B) Cerebellum.
  • (C) Medulla Oblongeta.
  • (D) Cerebrum.

71. Cantharis is prepared from:

  • (A) Spanish fly.
  • (B) Cockroach.
  • (C) Home fly.
  • (D) Honeybee.

72. Stapf process is used in the purification of:

  • (A) Alcohol.
  • (B) Water.
  • (C) Sugar of milk.
  • (D) Glycerine.

73. 2nd volume of H.P.I. published in the year:

  • (A) 1892.
  • (B) 1971.
  • (C) 1974.
  • (D) 1992.

74. The branch of pharmacy which deals with the action of drugs:

  • (A) Pharmacology.
  • (B) Pharmacopaedia.
  • (C) Pharmacopia.
  • (D) Pharmacography.

75. Which is the Hahnemann compound?

  • (A) Kali-carb.
  • (B) Nat-sulp.
  • Lachesis muta
  • (D) Cal-sulp.

76. Symbol for if necessary:

  • (A) Q.I.D.
  • (B) P.C.
  • (C) S.O.S.
  • (D) HS.

77. Juice of the fresh plant is mixed with alcohol in:

  • (A) Class IX.
  • (B) Class 1.
  • (C) New Method.
  • (D) Potentisation.

78. Vehicle for a linament is:

  • (A) Paraffin.
  • (B) Spermeceti.
  • (C) Glycerine.
  • (D) Vegetable oil.

79. Polarimeter is used for determining:

  • (A) Specific gravity.
  • (B) P.H.
  • (C) Optical rotation.
  • (D) Boiling point.

80. One tea-spoon is equal to:

  • (A) 15 ml.
  • (B) 10 ml.
  • (C) 5m1.
  • (D) 2m1.

81. The encephalopathy commonly seen in chronic alcoholics is:

  • (A) Reyes Syndrome.
  • (B) Multicystic encephalopa thy.
  • (C) Werneike’s encephalopathy.
  • (D) Spongiform encephalopathy.

82. The hepatocytes formed only in the carriers of chronic Hepatitis B are:

  • (A) Tombstone cells.
  • (B) Councilman bodies.
  • (C) Ground Glass cells.
  • (D) Kupffer cells.

83. The eggs of Schistosoma mansoni are characterised by:

  • (A) Lateral spine.
  • (B) Terminal spine.
  • (C) Lateral knob.
  • (D) None of the above.

84. The only nematode having a free living life cycle along with parasitic life cycle is:

  • (A) Necator Americanus.
  • (B) Strongyloides stercoralis.
  • (C) Dracunculus medinensis.
  • (1)) Trichinella spirates.

85. The eggs are golden brown in colour in:

  • (A) Ascaris.
  • (B) Enterobius vermicularis.
  • (C) Ancylostoma deodenale
  • (D) Trichiuris trichiuria.

86. Pernicious malaria is caused by:

  • (A) Plasmodium Ovale.
  • (B) Plasmodium falciparum.
  • (C) Plasmodium malariae.
  • (D) Plasmodium Vivax.

87. 50% of the gastric carcinomas arise from:

  • (A) Cardiac end of the stomach.
  • (B) Lesser curvature.
  • (C) Antrum.
  • (D) Greater curvature.

88. The intradermal test diagnostic of Echinococcus Granulosis is:

  • (A) Casinos test.
  • (B) Leishmanin test.
  • (C) Sabinfeidman dye test.
  • (D) Bentonite test.

89. Meleyney’s ulcer is caused by:

  • (A) Wet gangrene.
  • (B) Dry gangrene.
  • (C) Synergistic gangrene.
  • (D) Gas gangrene.

90. The purple discolouration which develops in the dependent parts of a dead body is called:

  • (A) Postmortem clotting.
  • (B) Livor mortis.
  • (C) Algar mortis.
  • (D) Riger moths.

91. Lines of zahnare seen in:

  • (A) Ischeniia.
  • (B) Thrombolis.
  • (C) Embolism.
  • (D) Fibroids.

92. Wilson’s disease is caused by accumulation in the body of:

  • (A) Iron.
  • (B) Magnesium.
  • (C) Calcium.
  • (D) Copper.

93. Inhalation of dust,dander, pollen molds initiates the formation of:

  • (A) 1gM.
  • (B) IgA.
  • (C) IgE.
  • (D) IgG.

94. Post-pneumonic fibrosis is called:

  • (A) Carnification.
  • (B) Hepatization.
  • (C) Consolidation.
  • (D) Legionnaires disease.

95. Chronic bacterial pneumonia can occur as a result of:

  • (A) A sequele to acute pneumonia.
  • (B) Prolonged smoking.
  • (C) In apart of lung caused by bronchogenic carcinoma
  • (D) All of the above.

96. The disease occurring in cotton workers is:

  • (A) Berryliosis.
  • (B) Pneumoconiosis.
  • (C) Byssinosis.
  • (D) Brucellosis.

97. The following dietary factors are responsible for carcinoma stomach except:

  • (A) Nitrates.
  • (B) Nitrites.
  • (C) Nitro carbons.
  • (D) Poly cyclic hydrocarbons.

98. A malignant tumour arising from extreme apex of a lung:

  • (A) Pancoast tumour.
  • (B) Wilm’s tumour.
  • (C) Salivary tumour.
  • (D) Blastoma.

99. River blindness is caused by:

  • (A) Brugia timori.
  • (B) Loa ba.
  • (C) Onchocerca valvulus.
  • (D) Mansonella Ozzardi.

100. A brisk, acute inflammatory reaction which develops within few minutes after an injection of antigen into the skin of an animal is:

  • (A) Tuberculin reaction.
  • (B) Arthus reaction.
  • (C) Contact sensitivi
  • (D) Cytotoxic reaction.

101. Down’s syndrome is associated with:

  • (A) Trisomy 21.
  • (B) Mother aged 30-45 years.
  • (C) Mangoloid face.
  • (D) Allof the above.

102. The cells in the most of chronic lymphogenous leukemia are:

  • (A) Lymphoblasts.
  • (B) Lymphocytes.
  • (C) Palger-Huet Phenomenon.
  • (D) T-cells.

103. Humoral immunity is mediated by:

  • (A) T. Lymphocytes.
  • (B) B. Lymphocytes.
  • (C) Kupffer cells.
  • (D) Monocytes.

104. The malignant pustule with vesiculation, white cell infiltration and necrosis is usually produced by:

  • (A) Adeno virus.
  • (B) Leishmania donovani.
  • (C) Anthrax bacillus.
  • (D) Pasterella tulerensis.

105. Which of the following may be found in a patient with pulmonary infarction?

  • (A) Dyspnoea
  • (B) Pain in breathing
  • (C) Haemoptysis
  • (D) All of the above.

106. Gastrin is produced primarily in:

  • (A) Antrum.
  • (B) Pylorus.
  • (C) Pancreas.
  • (D) Liver.

107. The following may be common manifestation of mumps e

  • (A) Orchitis.
  • (B) Pancreatitis.
  • (C) Parotitis.
  • (D) All of the above.

108. Pulmonary emboli most commonly originate from:

  • (A) The right heart.
  • (B) Superficial veins of the lower extremity.
  • (C) Deep leg veins of the lower extremity.
  • (D) Pelvic veins.

109. The most common cause of death in cirrhosis is:

  • (A) Hemorrhage.
  • (B) Renal failure.
  • (C) Liver failure.
  • (D) Septicemia.

110. The excretion of uric acid is impaired by:

  • (A) Morphin.
  • (B) Nicotine.
  • (C) Alcohol.
  • (D) None of the above

111. The most common organism in burn sepsis is:

  • (A) Streptococcus.
  • (B) Staphylococcus.
  • (C) Proteins.
  • (D) Pseudomonas.

112. Organisms that may cause cripitant cellulitis include all except:

  • (A) Clostridia.
  • (B) Bacteroids.
  • (C) Staphylococcus.
  • (D) Anaerobic streptococcus.

113. Amoebic ulceration is most commonly noted in:

  • (A) Ileum.
  • (B) Caecum.
  • (C) Appendix.
  • (D) Ascending colon.

114. A commonly observed complication of botulism is:

  • (A) Massive hematemesis.
  • (B) Respiratory failure.
  • (C) Convulsions.
  • (D) Tetany.

115. The most important factor in preventing tetanus is:

  • (A) Tetanus antitoxin.
  • (B) Tetanus toxoid.
  • (C) Previous immunization.
  • (D) Proper initial wound care.

116. Cyclodevelopmental parasite

  • (A) Micro filaria.
  • (B) Flavi virus.
  • (C) P. vivax.
  • (D) S.japonicum.

117. Food poisoning is caused by:

  • (A) V. Cholerae type 139.
  • (B) S. para typhi. A.
  • (C) Cl. perfringens.
  • (D) Staph epidermis.

118. Vitamin-D is not present in:

  • (A) Cod liver oil.
  • (B) Fish fat.
  • (C) Milk.
  • (D) Egg.

119. Normal iron requirement during pregnancy:

  • (A) 2mg.
  • (B) 40mg.
  • (C) 80mg.
  • (D) 100 mg.

120.Additional calories required during lactation:

  • (A) 450.
  • (B) 550
  • (C)650.
  • (D)750.

121.M.T.P. is done up to weeks:

  • (A) 28
  • (B) 7
  • (C) 14
  • (D) 10

122.Most common source of Lenolic Acid:

  • (A) Mustard oil.
  • (B) Sunflower oil.
  • (C) Groundnut oil.
  • (D) Safflower oil.

123. Following are good sources f Vitamin-B12 except:

  • (A) Soyabean.
  • (B) Liver.
  • (C) Fish.
  • (D) Meat.

124. In Japanese encephalitis following are true except:

  • (A) Mortality 10%.
  • (B) C. TRITAENEORHYRICHUS most important vector in South India.
  • (C) I.P. 5-15 days.
  • (D) Vaccination of population at risk recommended.

125. Immunity develops — after Japanese Encephalitis vaccination:

  • (A) 7 days.
  • (B) 15 days.
  • (C) 30 days.
  • (D) 60 days.

126. Which of the following vaccines is not to be given to a patient with AIDS?

  • (A) B.C.G.
  • (B) D.P.T.
  • (C) O.P.V.
  • (D) Measles.

127. Vaccine CONTRAINDICATED IN PREGNANCY

  • (A) Tuberculin.
  • (B) Polio.
  • (C) Hepatitis-B.
  • (D) Typhoid.

128. Depression is best measured by:

  • (A) Arithmetic mean.
  • (B) Geometric mean.
  • (C) Immunization.
  • (D) Chemo therapy.

129. In a suspected case of Polio following are done except:

  • (A) Isolation.
  • (B) Notification.
  • (C) Immunization.
  • (D) Chemo therapy.

130. Epidemiologic study of Hepatitis-B:

  • (A) HBS Ag is used.
  • (B) Ig G anti HBC.
  • (C) HBC Ag.
  • (D) HB&Ag.

131. Disease to be eradicated by 2000 AD:

  • (A) Filaria.
  • (B) Malaria.
  • (C) Tetanus
  • (D) Typhoid.

132. Daily requirement of calcium in pregnancy is:

  • (A) 50mg.
  • (B) 100mg.
  • (C) 500mg.
  • (D) 1000 mg.

133. A child develops food poisoning 16-18 hours after consuming ice-cream, the most probable causative organism in this case is

  • (A) Staphylococcus aureus.
  • (B) Salmonella Typhimurium.
  • (C) Clastridium Perfringes.
  • (D) Clastridium Botulium.

134. Fluoride level in drinking water should be:

  • (A) 0.5 PPM.
  • (B) 1.0 PPM;
  • (C) 0.3 PPM.
  • (D) 2.0 PPM.

135. Jaggery is rich in:

  • (A) Vitamin-B2.
  • (B)  Iron.
  • (C) Niacin.
  • (D) Vitamin-C.

136. For a patient with burns more than 40%, average energy requirement is:

  • (A) 4000 Calories
  • (B) 4500 Calories
  • (C) 6000 Calories
  • (D) 7000 Calories

137. Man is intermediate host for:

  • (A) Enterobiasis
  • (B) Schislosomiasis Harmotobiurn
  • (C) Echinococcus
  • (D) Tarnia Saginata.

138. Breast feeding is contra indicated, if mother receiving:

  • (A) Saline.
  • (B) Broad Spectrum antibiotics.
  • (C) Anti thyroid drugs
  • (D) Streptoinycine

139. Noise induced hearing loss affects frequency of:

  • (A) 1000 Hz.
  • (B) 2000 Hz.
  • (C) 3000 Hz.
  • (D) 4000 Hz.

140. Ringer Lactate Solution contains following electrolytes:

  • (A) Na+and Cl
  • (B) Na+;K+  and  Cl
  • (C) Na + ; K + Cl and Ca
  • (D) Na +; K + and HCO

141. BARBERIOUS test is used to detect:

  • (A) Animal blood.
  • (B) Human blood.
  • (C) Vaginal fluid.
  • (D) Semen.

142. Generalised convulsions are seen in poisoning with

  • (A) Nux-vom.
  • (B) Mercury.
  • (C) Lead.
  • (D) Arsenic.

143. ABRASION collaris is seen with:

  • (A) Rifle bullet.
  • (B) Dum-Dum bullet.
  • (C) Richochetto wound.
  • (D) None of the above.

144. Inquest which is not carried out in India is:

  • (A) Coroner’s Inquest.
  • (B) Police Inquest.
  • (C) Magistrate Inquest.
  • (D) Medical examiner’s Inquest.

145. Rigor Mortis simulate:

  • (A) Cadaveric spasm.
  • (B) Livor Mortis.
  • (C) Algur Mortis.
  • (D) Mummification.

146. Test for detection of old blood stain is:

  • (A) Precipitin test.
  • (B) Benzidine test.
  • (C) Gel diffusion.
  • (D) Absorption elution.

147. Medical negligence falls under following except:

  • (A) Sec. 304 A.
  • (B) Indian Contract Act.
  • (C) IPC 312.
  • (D) IPC 351.

148. Aseptic Autolysis is seen in:

  • (A) Maceration.
  • (B) Mummification.
  • (C) Rigor mortis
  • (D) Putrefaction.

149. Widmark formula is used in:

  • (A) Alcohol.
  • (B) Barbiturates.
  • (C) Cannabis.
  • (D) Opium.

150. Golden hair is seen in poisoning with:

  • (A) Arsenic.
  • (B) Mercury.
  • (C) Lead.
  • (D) Copper.

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Model MD Homeopathy Entrance 2005 Paper II

Questions : 150 Marks : 600 Time : 120 Minutes

1. Please read the instructions given in the OMR Answer Sheet for marking answers. Candidates are advised to strictly follow the instructions contained in the OMR Answer Sheet.

2. For each question there are four suggested answers, given against (A), (B), (C) and (D) of which only one will be MOST APPROPRIATE answer. Indicate it in the OMR Answer Sheet.

3. Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to penalization formula based on the number of right answers actually marked and the number of wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded FOUR marks. ONE mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a question will be deemed as an incorrect response and will be negatively marked.                                                           

1)The mechanism of fatty changes in the liver in malnutrition is:

  • a) Inhibition of fatty acid oxidation          b) Decrease in synthesis of lipid acceptor proteins
  • c) Increase in synthesis of triglycerides d) Alteration of mitochondrial function

2) One of the following is a neoplastic giant cell:

  • a) Langhans giant cell  b) Warthin Finkledy giant cell
  • c) Reed Stemberg cell d) Osteoclast

3)Essential features of nephritic syndrome includes all except:

  • a) Increased Urinary excretion b) Hypoalbuminemia
  • c) Peripheral edema                       d) Decreased serum cholesterol

4)Immune complexes located within the basement membrane would most likely be found in a patient with:

  • a) Acute Glomerulonephritis                                     b) Membranous GN
  • c) Type 1 Membranoproliferative GN {MPGN}   d) Type-2 MPGN

5)In AML Chromosomal anomaly is:

  • a) 9 & 22      b) 21 & 9
  • c) 20 & 10    d) 8 & 14

6) Highly selective proteinuria contains:

  • a) fibrinogen and albumin       b) transferin
  • c) transferrin and fibrinogen d) fibrinogen

7) Edward syndrome is due to:

  • a) Chromosome 18 anomaly b) Chromosome 13 anomaly
  • c)Chromosome 11 anomaly d) Chromosome & anomaly

8) Turner’s syndrome is:

  • a) XO       b) XXY
  • c) XXX    d) XXO

9) Ulcerative colitis is characterized by all except:

  • a) Crypt abscess b) Sub mucosal inflammation
  • c) Pseudo polyps seen d) Fistula formation

10) M4 stage of AML is called as:

  • a) Acute myelomonoblastic leukemia b) Acute monoblastic leukemia
  • c) Myelomonocytic leukemia                 d) Monocytic leukemia

11)A patient is performing the movement of flexion of the hip Joint when she:

  • a) Moves the limb away from the midline in the coronal plane
  • b) Moves the limb posteriorly in the paramedian plane :
  • c) Moves the limb anteriorly in the paramedian plane
  • d) Moves the limb towards the median sagittal plane

12) Inversion of the foot is a movement when the sole faces :

  • a) Downwards & Posteriorly b) Medially
  • c) Laterally                                  d) Downwards & Laterally

13) The lines of cleavage or Langer’s lines are:

  • a) Finger Prints
  • b) Skin creases over joints
  • c) The direction of the rows of elastic fibers in the dermis
  • d) The direction of the rows of collagen fibers in the dermis

14) Which of the following statements are true regarding root of right lung…

  • a) The right phrenic nerve passes anterior to the lung root
  • b) The azygos vein arches forward over the superior margin of the lung root.
  • c) The right pulmonary artery lies anterior to the principal bronchus in the lung root
  • d) The right Vagus nerve passes posterior to the lung root

15) The strenocostal surface [anterior] of the heart is formed by the:

  • a) Right atrium b) Right ventricle
  • c) Left ventricle d) Left atrium

16) The following statements concerning the abdominal part of the sympathetic trunk are not true except:

  • a) It enters the abdomen behind the lateral arcuate ligament.
  • b) All the ganglia receive white rami communicantes
  • c) Gray Rami Communicantes are given off to the lumbar spinal nerves
  • d) The trunk passes 6 segmentally arranged ganglia

17) Which of the following are correct?

  • a) The pre aortic lymph nodes drain lymph from the kidneys & supra renals.
  • b) The branches of the superior mesenteric artery serving the jejunum form more arcades than those serving the ileum
  • c) The coronary ligament of the liver lies anterior to the abdominal portion of the esophagus.
  • d) The attachment of the hepatic veins to the inferior vena cava is one of the most important supports to the liver

18)The hilus of the right kidney contains the following important structures

  • a) Branches of the renal artery b) Renal pelvis
  • c) Sympathetic nerve plexus     d) Tributaries of renal veins

19) Which of the following muscles elevate the palate during swallowing?

  • a) Tensor veli palatini b) Levator veli palatini
  • c) Palatopharygeus     d) Palatoglossus

20) A patient is unable to taste a piece of sugar cube placed on the anterior part of his tongue, Which cranial nerve is affected?

  • a)Facial   b) Glossopharyngeal
  • c) Vagus d) Hypoglossal

21) AII the following statements regarding “Protein choline acetyl tiansferase {ChAT} are true except:

  • a) ChAT is an enzyme that is synthesized on ribosome’s located in the nerve terminal of presynaptic neuron.
  • b) ChAT synthesizes ACh from the substrates acetyl coenzyme A {Acetyl COA } & choline.
  • c) ChAT exists on nerve terminals of both central & peripheral nervous system.
  • d) ChAT is responsible for the synthesis of the neurotransmitter acetyl choline before vestibular storage.

22) If a person has a genetic defect in the enzyme that produces N-acetyl glutamate, the most likely clinical finding would be Hyperammonemia with:

  • a) No detectable citrulline b) Elevated levels of arginine
  • c) Elevated levels of urea d) No detectable omithine

23) All the following statements correctly pair a metabolic pathway with its appropriate subcellular location except

  • a) Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in mitochondria
  • b) Fatty acid synthesis occurs in mitochondria
  • c) Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondria
  • d) Ganglioside degeneration occurs in lysosomes

24) All the following statements regarding CARN1T1NE DEFICIENCY is true except:

  • a) Some patients of this autosomal recessive disorder respond to oral camitine therapy.
  • b) A diet restricted to short & medium chain fatty acids will prove useful
  • c) Pathological fatty deposition in muscles are frequently seen
  • d) A deletion mutation in the gene for “camitine palmitoyl transferase “would result in an entirely different phenotype.

25) All the following are cyclic dependent kinase inhibitors EXCEPT:

  • a)p21   b)p27Kip1
  • c)p53  d)p16

26) Which of the following congenital immunodeficiencies involves only a T- cell deficiency?

  • a)Di George’s syndrome                             b) Ataxia- telangiectasia
  •  c) X-linked hypogamma globulimia   d) none of the above

27) Which of the following is true about the enzyme it describes ?

  • a) Aldolase cleaves a carbon – carbon bond to create a carboxyl group.
  • b) Hydroiase adds water to break a bond
  • c) Isomerase hydrolyzes ester linkages to form an acid & an alcohol
  • d) Dehydrogenases adds water to a carbon-carbon bond without breaking the bond, or conversely,removing water to create a double bond.

28) A 80 year old lady with 35 year h/o NIDDM is admitted to a hospital for mental status changes .An arterial blood gas revels a pH of 7.26 & her anion gap is 12.Wnich of the following statements correctly describes her metabolic acidosis due to renal failure ?

  • a) A large anion gap is indicative of better compensation.
  • b) The metabolic acidosis is caused by an excess production of ammonia in the tubular cells
  • c) The large anion gap indicates that her plasma bicarbonate level is elevated.
  • d) This patient has already passed the hyperchloremic phase of her acidosis

29) The cost in high energy phosphate bonds for the formation of 1 mole of glucose from pyruvate is:

  • a) 8moles of ATP    b) 6 moles of ATP
  • c) 4 moles of ATP   d) 2 moles of ATP

30) Which of the statements best charecterize glucose ?

  • a) It usually exits in furanose form                   b) Its a ketose
  • c) It forms part of the disaccharide sucrose d) It is oxidized to form sorbitol

31)ln Wallarian degeneration of a peripheral nerve:

  • a) The axons regenerate at a rate of 1 cm / day.
  • b) Occurs in the distal portion of the broken axon leaving an empty tubule
  • c) Is a feature of neuropraxia
  • d) All the above

32) Surfactant is a substance that:

  • a) Is produced in the liver of new borns
  • b) Is important in the new borns but is of little importance in adults
  • c) Is produced in the basement membrane of lungs
  • d) Helps in prevention of collapse of the alveoli

33) Calcium enters the cardiac cell during:

  • a) Rapid upstroke of the action potential
  • b) Down slope of the action potential
  • c) Plateau phase of the action potential
  • d) Slow diastolic depolarization {phase 4} of the action potential. ;

34) The functional residual capacity of lung is defined as:

  • a) Tidal volume & residual Volume
  • b) Tidal Volume & expiratory reserve volume
  • c) Inspiratory reserve volume & tidal volume
  • d) Residual volume & expiratory reserve volume

35) The metabolic function of parathormone includes all these except:

  • a) Mobilizes calcium from bone
  • b) Decreases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
  • c) Promotes renal production of 1,25 hydroxy cholecalciferol
  • d) Lowers serum phosphate level

36) The need to vitamin B12 & folic acid in the formation of RBC’s is primarily to effect on :

  • a) Synthesis & release of erythropoietin from the kidneys
  • b) Absorption of Iron from GUT •
  • c) DNA synthesis in the bone marrow
  • d) Hemoglobin formation in the RBC’s.

37) Intra pulmonary shunting refers to:

  • a) anatomical dead space b) alveolar dead space
  • c) Wasted ventilation, d) Perfusion in excess of ventilation

38) During regeneration after axonotmesis, the usual delay before the start of growth of axons in the distal direction is about:

  • a) 2 days b) 10days
  • c) 3 weeks d) 2 months

39) Absorption of H2O in PCT is characteristic by all except:

  • a) Vasopressin dependent b) 60% of water is absorbed
  • c) Depends on solutes         d) Vasopressin independent

40) Cerebellar Ataxia is characterized by all except:

  • a) Resting tremor b) Dysdiadochokinesis
  • c) Ataxia                 d) Hypotonia

41) The mosquito, which transmits classical dengue fever

  • (a) Anophelus (b) Culex
  • (c) Stephansi (d) aedes aegypticus

42) The MTP Act was passed in the year

  • (a) 1971 (b) 1973 (c) 1974 (d) 1976

43) Low birth weight baby means weight below

  • (a) 2kg (b) 2.3kg
  • (c) 2.5 kg (d) 2.8 kg

44) The percentage of available chlorine in bleaching powder

  • (a) 30% (b) 33%
  • (c) 43% (d) 45%

45) In drinking water admissible amount of E Coli is

  • (a)nil             (b)10
  • (c)100        (d)20

46) Unit of absorbed dose of radiation is

  • (a) rad    (b) rem
  • (c)rot     (d) roentgen

47) Minimum airspace for each worker as per Indian factories act is

  • (a) 200 cft    (b) 300cft
  • (c) 500 cft     (d) 700 cft

48) Dry weather flow is

  • (a) amount of humidity
  • (b) Velocity of dry air
  • (c) Velocity of humid air
  • (d) Average amount of sewage through the system

49) BMR value of Indian male is

  • (a) 30 Kcal /sqm/hr (b) 28.3kcal/sqm/hr
  • (c) 38.3Kcal /sqm/hr (d) 32kcal/sqm/hr

50) Small pox was eradicated in the year

  • (a)1978    (b)1977
  • (c)1980    (d)1989

51) Adapted to persons of light complexion,blue eyes,blonde in preference to brunettes;tall thin narrow chest;active and precocious mentally weak physically

  • (a) phos    (b) tub
  • (c) brom    (d) calc

52) Adapted to persons with light hair and skin irritable quarrelsome disposition;easily offended at trifles vexed at everything

  • (a)nux v (b)petr
  •  (c) anac (d) plat

53)Easily adapted to diseases of women spasmodic and hysterical complaints complicated with uterine diseases who have suffered for years from attack of indigestion or biliosness

  • (a) sep (b) sab (c) mag carb (d) mag mur

54) For torpid lymphatic constitutions;persons with light hair and complexion slow to act,muscles soft and flabby

  • (a) hep sulph (b) alumina (c)alumen (d)hell

55)For anaemic and dark complexioned dark hair and eyes;thin spare subjects instead of fat

  • (a)sil (b) calc phos (c) lod (d)apis

56) chemical analogue of dulcamara

  • (a)barcarb (b)kali sulph (c) Mag cart) (d) mere

57)lf vertigo and headache be very persistent after natrum …. will relieve

  • (a) bell (b) Glon (c) Bry (d) nux

58) After arnica it hastens the curative process in the joints

  • (a) rhus tox (b) ruta (c) calc phos(d) hep sulph

59) After overaction from repeated doses of bell in whooping cough

  • (a) dros (b) cor rub (c) stram (d) sulph

60)When carefully selected remedies fail to produce a favourable effect in acute diseases it frequently rouse the reactive powers of the system clears the case

  • (a) Op (b) Psor (c)sulph (d) tub

61)’…….. an invaluable gift of god .What does Hahnemann refers to here

  • (a) honest physician (b) Boenninghausen (c) sugar of milk (d) homoeopathic medicine

62) While in a treatment for chronic disease skin was burnt .what is the treatment advised by Hahnemann in ‘chronic diseases’

  • a) do nothing ,wait for the original remedy to act (b) apply a compress of water mixed with Ars in potency
  • (c) apply cold water and cantharis ointment (d) urtica urens

63)When can a cure of pure chronic case of twenty years duration be called cito according to Hahnemann

  • (a)if done in 1-2 years (b) if done by 1st month
  • (c) if done in 1 week (d) no such period can be said

64)which medicine should be smelled by females during menses suffering from too profuse,long lasting menses before she takes the selected similimum

  • (a) no medicine needed,similimum is enough(b) sulphur
  • (c) nux v                      (d) sepia

65 ‘Only journey men,half homoeopaths still,I am sorry to say use such a contradiction in adjecto”.What is being refered to

  • (a) use of mixtures (b) use of low potency medicines
  • (c) frequent repetition (d) blood letting

66) In the daily report of a patient taking antipsoric medicine ,living at a distance the symptom which is underscored once indicates

  • (a) new symptom (b) return of old symptom
  • (c) aggravation of existing symptom
  • d) amelioration of existing symptom

67) Dose of sac lac advised by Hahnemann in chronic diseases

  • (a)1 grain (b) 2 grain (c) 3 grain (d)4 grain

68) In course of a treatment with a medicine of 30th potency ,the amelioration appears stand still but the medicine is still indicated .what is the advice of Hahnemann in ‘chronic disease’

  • (a) give an intercurrent (b)switch to 200th potency
  • (c) switch to 24 th potency (d) switch to 18th potency

(69) What is the medicine to be given first in pseudo syphilis ?

  • (a) mercury (b) sulphur
  • (c) hepar sulph (d) nitric acid

70) The size of the poppy seed globule proposed by Hahnemann in chronic diseases

  • (a)1000th of a grain (b) 300th of grain
  • (c) 200th of grain (d) 100th of grain

71) Infants born to mother of advanced age have a greater risk of

  • a)Downs Syndrome       b)Trisomy18
  • c)Marfan’s Syndrome    d)ASD

72) Defect most commonly occurring in Congenital rubella

  • a)Deafness b)Cataract
  • c)Microcephaly d)All the Above

73) Pleomorphic Rash is a feature of

  • a)Smallpox b)Chickenpox
  • c)Erythyma infectiosum d) Erythyma Subitium

74) Most Virulent form of Shigellosis is caused by

  • a)S.Shigella     b)S.Sonnei
  • c)S.Flexneri    D)S.Boydii

75) Endomyocardial fibrosis is due to

  • a)Tapioca    b)Aflatoxin
  • c)Gluten      d)Fish

76) Bitot’s Spots seen in deficiency of

  • a)Thiamine b)Niacin
  • C)Pyridoxine d)Riboflavin

77) Earliest change in Diabetic retinopathy is

  • a)hard exudate             b)soft exudate
  • c)dot haemorrhage    d)Microaneurism

78) Blue sclera is seen in

  • a)Alkaptonuria                       b)0steogenesis Imperfecta
  • c)Ehler-Danlos syndrome d)Kawasaki Syndrome

79) Smoking most commonly causes

  • a)CA Lung
  • b)TAO
  • c)C/c bronchitis
  • d)Myocardial Ischaemia

80) Commonest site of Multiple Myeloma is

  • a)Long Bone b)Skull c)Rib d)vertebrae

81) Fish head appearance of the vertebral bodies is seen in

  • a)paget’s disease b)Rickets c)osteomalacia d)0steoporosis

82) Commonest recurrent dislocation is seen with

  • a)shoulder b)Patella c)Elbow d)Hip

83) Delusion is not seen in

  • a)Depression b)delirium c)Schizophrenia d)Mania

84) Which hallucination is characteristic of alcoholism?

  • a)visual b)Tactile c)Auditory d) Gustatory

85) Most characteristic of Korsakoffs psychosis is

  • a)visual hallucination b)Peripheral neuropathy c)Long-term memory loss d)Confusion

86) Dementia is produced by vitamin

  • a)A b)D    c)Pyridoxine    d)Niacin

87) Absolute contraindication for ECT is

  • a)Convulsion b)Pregnancy c))CSOL  d)Bleeding disorder

88) Neurotransmitter which is found in increased quantities in schizophrenia is

  • a)Noradrenalin b)Serotonin c)Dopamine d) GABA

89) Nasal allergy is most often due to

  • a)dust b)Pollen grain c)animal dandies d)smoke

90) Commonest cause of suppurative otitis media is

  • a) Streptococcus b)Pneumococcus c)Staphylococcus d)Pseudomonas

91) Commonest symptom of laryngeal CA

  • a)Hoarseness of voice b)Cough c)Dyspnoea d)Hemoptysis

92) Rhinosporidosis is due to

  • a)protozoa b)Bacteria c)Fungus d)Virus

93) Sub mucous resection is done in

  • a)tonsillitis b)nasal polyp c)DNS d)Adenoid

94) The presence of Keyser-Fleischer ring is pathognomonic of

  • a)HTN b)Lew’s syndrome c)Wilson’s/disease d)Hemochromatosis

95) Roth’s spot’s are seen in

  • a)Diabetes b)Chonoretinitis c)Bacterial endocarditis d)HTN

96) Deficiency of which vitamin is not seen in newborn

  • a)E    b)D    c)C   d)K

97) A wide and fixed split second heart sound occurs in

  • a)mitral stenosis   b)ASD
  • c)VSD                        d)Coarctation of aorta

98) Delayed dentition is most characteristic of

  • a)Cretinism      b)Mongolism
  • c)Acromegaly d)Malnutrition

99) In an infant with ASOM, the infecting organism is likely to be

  • a)Pneumococcus b)H.Influenza
  • c)Streptococcus d)Staphylococcus

100) Most common complication of measles in children is

  • a)ASOM     b)Broncho pneumonia
  • c)0rchitis d)Meningitis

101) In bronchial asthma, there is constriction of

  • a)large airway                 b)medium airway
  • c)terminal bronchiole d)respiratory bronchioles

102) Chancroid is caused by

  • a)H.Ducreyi                        b)H.Vaginalis
  • c)Treponema pallidum d)Treponema pertinuae

103) Pitting of nails is seen in

  • a)Lichen ptannus b)psoriasis
  • c)pemphigus        d)leprosy

104) Fir – tree appearance is seen in

  • a)Pityriasis rosea b)Psoriasis
  • c)measles                d)Secondary syphilis

105) Necrobiosis lipoidica is most marked on

  • a)Forearms       b)Face
  • c)Front of legs d)back of legs

106) A flat discolouration in skin of 1cm is called

  • a)plaque b)macule
  • c)papule d)wheal

107) Hang up reflex is seen in

  • a)Thyrotoxicosis               b)Hypothyroidism
  • c) Hypoparathyroidism d)Cushing’s syndrome

108) Torre’s inclusion body is found in

  • a)yellow fever b)Dengue
  • c)KFD                 d)Wiel’s disease

109) Sonogyi phenomena is

  • a)Hypoglycemia followed by hyperglycemia
  • b)Hyperglycaemia followed by hypoglycaemia
  • c)Glycosuria with normal blood sugar
  • d)Reactive hyperglycaemia

110) Satellite lesions is seen in

  • a)Borderiine leprosy       b)Tuberculoid leprosy
  • c)Lepromatous leprosy d) Intermediate leprosy

111) Icterus is most marked in sclera because

  • a)High content of collagen  b)High content of elastin
  • c)it is white                                d)lt is exposed to sunlight

112) Which vitamin prevents development of pernicious anaemia, but doesn’t protect against CNS manifestation

  • a)Pyridoxine    b)B12
  • c)Biotin              d)Folic acid

113) Enzyme raised within hours of Ml and lasting 2-3 days is

  • a)LDH   b)CPK
  • c)AST   d)ALT

114) Most common cardiac involvement in RA

  • a)Pancarditis b)Pericarditis
  • c)Myocarditis d)Endocarditis

115) Parkinsonism may occur due to chronic exposure to

  • a)Chromium b)Manganese
  • c)Molybdenum d)Nickel

116) The most common symptom of primary biliary cirrhosis is

  • a)Pain abdomen b)Fever
  • c)Weakness         d)Pruritis

117) Kimmelstein-Wilson lesions are specific for

  • a)Type I DM b)Type II DM
  • c)MODY         d)DIDMOAD

118) Most common cranial nerve involved in ophthatmoplegic migraine

  • a)ll nerve b)111 nerve
  • c)V nerve d)1V nerve

119) Ochronosis is seen in poisoning with

  • a)Nitric acid b)0xalic acid
  • c)carbolic acid d)acetic acid

120) Whip fash injury refers to that involving

  • a)spine      b)long bones
  • c)skull      d)ribcage

121) section 191 IPC deals with

  • a)Rape                          b)Giving false evidence
  • c) Grievous hurt      d)Assault

122) In typical hanging , the position of Knot on the neck is

  • a)at the nape                                                        b)under the chin
  • c)anywhere other than the back of neck d)just beneath the angle of jaw

123) Avulsion is a type of

  • a)Chop wound b)lncise wound
  • c)Laceration d)None of the above

124) Homicidal hanging is known as

  • a)mugging b)garroting
  • c)burking d)lynching

125) March test is the diagnostic of poisoning with

  • a)Arsenic b}Copper
  • c)Lead      d)Mercury

126) About neutrophils all are incorrect except:-

  • a) 10-20% of all leucocytes, b) Phagocytosis
  • c) Antibody formation d) Increase in chronic infections

127) In leprosy nerve involved is:

  • a) Ulnar Nerve b) Median
  • c) Radial d) Axillary

128) Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is due to:

  • a) oat cell carcinoma b) squamous cell carinoma
  • c) Adenocarcinoma  d} sdenosqumous

129) OIC is caused by all except:

  • a) IUD
  • b) septic abortion
  • c) extramniotic instillation of ethacridine lactate
  • d) Ammiotic fluid embolism

130) Giant cell tumor source of cells is ;

  • a) Osteoclast b) Osteoblasts
  • c)Osteoid c) Unknown

131) Cells in M4AML are:

  • a) Monoblasts & myeloblasts b) Myeloblasts only
  • c) Monocytes & myelocytes d) erythroid cells

132) Most common tumor of appendix is:

  • a) Carcinoid                b) Squamous cell
  • c) Adenocarcinoma d) Argentaffin type

133) Stricture of gut is caused by:

  • a) Typhoid                b) tuberculosis
  • c) Crohn’s disease d) Ulcerative colitis

134) Exchange of genetic material takes place in:

  • a) Prophase -I b) Prophase II
  • c) Metaphase d) Telophase

135) Commonest type of basal cell carcinoma:

  • a)Ulcerated     b)Cystic
  • c) Morphoeic d)Pigmented

136) Parasympathetic stimulation of tissues in walls of bronchioles caus-is:

  • a) Bronchoconstriction b) Bronchodilation
  • c) Increased blood flow d) Dilatation of alveoli.

137) A healthy man is flying in a plane that has been pressurized to 10.0CO feet (523 HG).Which of the following statements regarding effects of this barometric pressure is true ?

  • a) It will cause a modest reduction in arterial Po2 .
  • b) It will not affect alveolar Po2 because inspired 02 remains at 0.21
  • c) Will be associated with significant desaturation of arterial Hemoglobin
  • d) None of the above

138) Of the following cell types, which would contain many mitochondria in the apical portion of the cell?

  • a) Smooth muscle cells   b) Ciliated epithelium cells
  • c) Steroid secreting cell d) Skeletal muscle cells

139) Which of the following statements most accurately describes features of neuromuscular transmission?

  • a) Each muscle fiber contains multiple axon terminals
  • b) The end plate is highly enriched in electrically excitable gates
  • c) Enzymatic degradation of the transmitter can terminate transmission
  • d) Acetyl choline causes chloride channels to open as a result of membrane depolarization.

140) Which of the following statements regarding expiration is correct ?

  • a) At lung volumes close to vital capacity [VC] .expiratory air flow is independent of expiratory effect
  • b)At lung volumes close to VC ,airway resistance is at its peak
  • c) At lung volumes close to VC , expiratory air flow increases with pleural pressures.
  • d) None of the above

141) RNA processing can be best described by which of the following statements?

  • a) It occurs in the cytoplasm
  • b) It includes the methytation of nucleotides in RNA
  • c) It results in the formation of new covalent bonds between RNA & DNA
  • d) It includes the addition of a tail of polyadenylic acid at the 5^end

142) The upstroke of ventricular action potential is primarily due to which one of the following actions?

  • a) An inward flux of Ca2     b) An inward K + current
  • c) An outward K+ current d) inward Na+ Current

143) Which of the statements about acetyt choline release & deactivation i’> true?

  • a) ACH release is blocked by toxin associated with Clostridium tetanae
  • b) Uptake of Ach into the presynaptic receptor is the most important mechanism in terminating the Ach signal
  • c) Inhibitors of the enzyme MAO are important in the treatment of depression because they inhibit the breakdown of ach into its constituents.
  • d) The influx of Ca2+ into the depolarized axon terminal is a prerequisite for the release of stored Ach

144) All the following thalamic nuclei are connected to the basal ganglia except

  • a) Ventrolateral b) medial central
  • c) Pulvinar           d) Ventro anterior

145) All the statements concerning mammalian chromosomes are true except:

  • a) DNase 1 can be used to treat chromosomes to determine inactive regions of DNA.
  • b) Approximately 7% of the sequences contained in the eukaryotic genome are copied into RNA.
  • c) Heterochromatin is a term used for inactive DNA & euchromatin is a term used for these regions of the DNA that are transcriptionally active .
  • d) Both C & D are false,

146) Chromosomal nomenclature is based on :

  • a) Position of the Centre mere
  • b) Staining properties
  • c) Number of chromosones
  • d) Length of the arms

147) Posterior boundary of foramen of Winslow is formed by:

  • a) Aorta             b) Inferior vena cava
  • c) Portal vein  d) Liver

148) Demarcation of duodenum from jejunum is shown by:

  • a) Ligament of Treitz    b) Superior mesenteric artery
  •  c) Falciform ligament d) Tail of pancreas

149) External ear is developed from:

  • a) 1st brachial arch b) 2nd brachial cleft
  • c) 1st brachial cleft d) 2nd brachial arch.

150) Joint at Knee is:

  • a) Synartnrosis         b) Symphysis
  • c) Amphiarthrosis. d) Diarthrosis

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IHMA Model MD Homeopathy Entrance 2005 Paper.I

Questions : 150        Marks : 600           Time : 120 Minutes

1. Please read the instructions given in the OMR Answer Sheet for marking answers. Candidates are advised to strictly follow the instructions contained in the OMR Answer Sheet.

2. For each question there are four suggested answers, given against (A), (B), (C) and (D) of which only one will be MOST APPROPRIATE answer. Indicate it in the OMR Answer Sheet.

3. Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to penalization formula based on the number of right answers actually marked and the number of wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded FOUR marks. ONE mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a question will be deemed as an incorrect response and will be negatively marked.                                                           

1. The doctor who helped Hahnemann in Vienna.

  • A. Dr. Muller
  • B. Dr. Von Quarin
  • C. Dr. J.K. Bischoff
  • D. Von Bruckenthal E. Dr. Dzondi

2. Hahnemann got his masters degree on,

  • A. April 10J755
  • B. November 17, 1782
  • C. August 10, 1779
  • D.July2, 1843
  • E. September 29, 1812

3. When was the cure and prevention of scarlet fever published,

  • A. 1790    B. 1805   C. 1801
  • D.1803      E. 1810

4. Number of medicines proved by Hahnemann.

  • A. 99    B. 100
  • C. 29    D. 145

5. Life period of. Kent.

  • A. 1853-1931     B. 1849-1916     C. 1785-1864
  • D. 1800-1880    E. 1828-1877

6. Name the doctor who treated Lucy the 2nd wife of Dr. Kent.

  • A. Dr. Robbi      B. Dr. August Weihe     C. Dr. Kummer
  • D. Dr. Dunham E. Dr.’ Richard Phelan

7. Which is the work of Dr. C. Hering.

  • A. Domestic physician
  • B. Therapeutics of fever
  • C. Encyclopedia of pure materia medica
  • D. A birds eye view of Hahnemann’
  • E. Science of therapeutics

8. Name the medicine which was prescribed to Dunham by Dr. Hering which help him recover his illness. ”

  • A. Ars.alb   B. Puls
  • C. Lach        D. Lith.

9. Dr. Hahnemann wrote preface to one book of Dr. Boennenghausen. Which was it.

  • A. Repertory of medicines which are not antipsoric
  • B. Attempt at showing relative kinship of Homoeopathic medicines
  • C Repertory of antipsoric medicines
  • D Homoeopathic and complete image of disease

10). The homoeopathic physician who treated Maharaja Ranjith Singh of Punjab.

  • (A) M.L Sircar (B) J.M. Honingberger
  • (C) L.C. Dutta

11. Aphorism 153 is regarding.

  • (A) Indisposition (B) Characteristic Symptom (C) Mental Symptom
  • (D) Alternating Action (E) Dr. Dzondi

12. The word used by Trinks in his Annals to describe the provings of person, ‘whom Hahnemann calls as “symptom manufacturer’ is

  • (A) Hg (B) Lg (C) Ng
  • (D)gN (E)Bg

13. Aphorism which describes about routes of administration in 5th edition is.

  • (A) 274 (B) 290
  • (C) 293 (D)288 (E) 292

14. Aphorism which describes natural law of cure.

  • (A) 26 (B) 29
  • (C) 144 (D)272

15. Diet & regimen is described in.

  • (A) § 158-162 (B) § 245-249
  • (C) § 259-263 (D) § 264-268

16. When do homoeopathic aggravation occurs in a psoric chronic diseases (psoric origin) when treated with antipsoric medicines (According to Ve).

  • (A) 1st few hours (B) Varying periods till cure results
  • (C) At the end of the cure (D) Varying hours for first eight to ten days
  • (E) Dr. Dzondi

17. What is the appropriate management when accessory symptoms develop while beating acute diseases.

  • (A) Antidote the remedy
  • (B) Wait till symptom picture become clear
  • (C) Retake the case and add new symptoms to original symptoms and prescribe
  • (D) Take coffee

18. Local maladies are described in which aphorism.

  • (A) 210 (B) 231
  • (C)174   (D)1l7 (E) 56

19. Tinea worm) infection occurs in an epileptic person. What can be the result.

  • (A) Epilepsy get cured
  • (B) Epilepsy and Tinea combines together and exist together
  • (C) Epilepsy get suppressed
  • (D) Tinea is repelled

20. What can happens when small pox occurs in a person with violent opthalmic causing blindness. —-——-

  • (A) Small pox repelled
  • (B) Small pox suppress opthalmia ;
  • (C) Small pox cures opthalmia and blindness
  • (D) Both exist in their own parts

21. The most difficult cases to cures the incurables.

  • (A) Psoric miasmatic cases
  • (B) Trimiasmatic
  • (C) Drug diseases
  • (D) Syphilitic cases

22. In proving medicines are given to healthy persons in.

  • (A) Large doses    (B) Moderate doses
  • (C) Minute doses  (D) Single minute dose

23.The person who preceded Hahnemann in testing medicines for their pure action in healthy person.

  • (A) Brousseou (B) Nening
  • (C) Autentrith (D) Albrecht Von Haller

24. Best Prover.

  • (A) Medical students           (B) Physician
  • (C) Oversensitive patient   (D) Children

25. How to manage a case of acute mania.

  • (A) The indicated antipsoric medicine
  • (B) Non antipsoric medicines like Aeon, Bell etc.
  • (C) Physical remedies
  • (D) Use of non antipsoric medicines like Acon,Bell followed by antipsoric medicine

26.The most efficacious time to administer medicine in case of intermittent fever.

  • (A) Anytime                   (B) At the height of heat paroxysm
  • (C) During chill stage (D) Very soon after the termination of paroxysm

27.The chief guide in selection of most appropriate diseases.

  • (A) Medicine similar to the most prominent stage
  • (B) Medicine similar to all the stages
  • (C) Symptoms of patient health during intervals when he is free from disease
  • (D) Medicine suitable to his past do fever

28. After administering a remedy the patient became better mentally with few new symptoms. What is your inference. ‘ “

  • (A) Indicated medicine good response
  • (B) Wrong medicine
  • (C) Partially indicated remedy
  • (D) Response in a terminal stage of disease – prognosis unfavorable

29. The most suitable degree of minuteness for sure and gentle effect can be found out by.

  • (A) experience and experiment
  • (B) experiment and research
  • (C) Accurate experience and careful observation of sensitiveness of each patient
  • (D) proper case taking and miasmatic diagnosis

30. Olfaction is described in foot note of which aphorism.

  • (A) 275 (B) 272
  • (C) 285 (D)285 (E) 288

31. Which of the parts of body can be used as a route for administration of medicine.

  • (A) bloodvessel      (B) Skin
  • (C) Wounded skin  (D) Nerves

32. In 50 millesmal potency 1 part of 3rd tricturation should be dissolved in …………. part of alcohol water mixture.

  • (A) 100 (B) 300
  • (C) 500 (D) 1000

33. Dynamisation theory was introduced in which edition of organon .

  • (A) I (B) II (C) 111
  • (D) IV           (E) V

34. 3rd edition of organon is known as.

  • (A) improved                                 (B) augmented
  • (C) improved and augmented (D) original

35. No- of Aphorisms in 4th edition of organon.

  • (A) 292                (B) 291
  • (C) 294                (D)315       (E) 271

36. Chronic disease was published after…………… years of research study.

  • (A) 10 (B) 11
  •  (C) 12 (D) 14

37. Which is the observation which details the action of medicine on provers.

  • (A) 8 (B) 9
  • (C) 11 (D)10.

38. Two advices were taken back by Hahnemann mentioned in the preface of 5th edition. One was the use of mild electric shocks the other was.

  • (A) Using 2 successions instead of 10
  • (B) Using 10 successions instead of 2
  • (C) Use of pitch plaster on back to produce it during
  • (E) Use of tea in diet

39. What are called ‘morbi intercurrentes’.

  • (A) Intercurrent remedies (B) Antimiasmatic remedies
  • (C) Nosodes                              (D) Intermediate diseases

40.Meaning of “Cito”.

  • (A) Safety (B) Quickly
  • (C) With least amount of medicine
  • (D) Pleasantly

41.In a three fold complication of three chronic misaim which miasm is to be treated first.

  • (A) Psora     (B) Syphilis
  • (C) Sycosis (D) Tubercular

42.Greek word for Psora.

  • (A) Garab(B) Psora agria
  • (C) Scabies jugis (D) Yalephed

43.What is schein symptome.

  • (A) Mental symptom(B) Local symptoms
  • (C) Subjective symptom
  • (D) Symptoms produced as a result of excess homoeopathic medicine

44.Who gave the name ’50 millesmal to the new method of dynamisation.

  • (A) Horace (B) Gellert (C) Boenninghausen
  • (D) P. Schmidt (E) William Boericke

45.”What influence can it exert whether a homoeopath adopt the theoretical opinion of Hahnemann on not, so long as the holds the principal tool of master and the materia media of our schools. Whose words are they

  • (A) William Boericke (B) C.Hering
  • (C) Richard Hughes   (D) Stuart Close

46.Craving for Potato is a ——– symptom.

  • (A) Psoric (B) Sycotic
  • (C) Tubercular (D) Syhilitic

47. Craving sweets is…………….. symptoms.

  • (A) Psoric (B) Sycotic
  • (C) Tubercular (D) Syphilitic

48. Aversion meat is…………. symptom.

  • (A) Psoric (B) Sycotic
  • (C) Tubercular (D) Syphilitic

49. Amelioration by natural discharge is……………. symptom.

  • (A) Psoric (B) Sycotic
  • (C) Tubercular (D) Syphilitic

50. Ist part of materia medica was published in the year 1811. It contained………medicines.

  • (A) 8 (B) 11
  • (C) 12 (D) 10

51. The dose of cinchona bark used be for proving by Dr. Hahnemann.

  • (A) 4 drachms (B) 1 drachms
  •  (C) 2 drachms (D) 3 drachms

52.The term guiding symptoms was coined by…..

  • (A) Guernesy (B)Kent
  • (C)Hering (D)Boennighausen

53. Number of medicines in fragmenta de viribus….. posilivus.

  • (A) 9S (B) 99
  •  (C) 27 (D)67

53. Cyclopedia of drug pathogenecy was written by.

  •  (A) Hering                   (B) Boenninghausen
  •  (C) Richard Hughes (D) Stuart close

54. Allens encyclopedia contains – volumes

  • (A) 8 (B) 9
  • (C) 10 (D)12

55. Vegetable analogue of Kali lod.

  • (A) Pulsatilla (B) Phytolacca
  •  (C) Mezerium (D) Belladona

56. Acoustic of renal system / digitalis of kidney.

  • (A) Cantharis (B) Sarsaparilla
  • (C) Lycopodium (D) Solidago

57. Lack of vital heat in chronic diseases.

  • (A) Alumina (B) Led Pal
  • (C) Psorinum (D) Sepia

58. ………….. is followed by Kalibi in nasal catairah.

  • (A) AurMet (B) Pulsatilla
  • (C) Silica (D) Calccarb

59. Acrid exhausting leucorrhoea in little girls with moth spots an forehead.

  • (A) Sepia     (B) Copaiva .
  • (C) Cubeba (D) Caulophylhem

60.Has cured Aphonia when Aeon, Phos and Spongia had failed.

  • (A) Brans                      (B) Caust
  • (C) Arun Triphyllus (D) Cina

61. Often cures dropy after Apis and Ars fails.

  • (A) Apocy   (B) Dig
  • (C) Bry          (D) Colch

62.Unsteady walking and easy falling of little children.

  • (A) Calcphos (B) Caust
  •  (C) Sel            (D) Baryta carb

63.Is often useful after bad effects from spoiled fish and decayed vegetables.

  • (A) Ass alb  (B) Carboveg .
  • (C) Carboan (D) Pyrogen

64. Opium belongs to the family.

  • (A) Ericacea (B) Melanthacea
  • (C) Loganacea (D) Papavaracea

65. Hydrastis belong to the family of.

  • (A) Rubiacea           (B) Solanacea
  • (C) Ranunculacea (D) Umbilifera

66.Breath smells like urine

  • (A) Petroleum(B) Graph
  • (C) Carboveg (D) Mercurius

67.Remedy for worms, nephritis and purpura.

  • (A) Terebinth (B) Phos
  • (C) Crotalushor (D) Hamamelis

68. Daily colic in infants at 5 a.m.

  • (A) Nalsulph (B) Nux vom
  • (C) Kalibrom (D) Mag phos

69. “Whenever….. is chosen you must above all observe the moral symptoms, and be careful that it closely resembles them. The anguish of mind and body, the restlessness, the disquiet not to be allayed.” Which is the medicine referred to.

  • (A) Chamomilla (B) Sepia
  • (C) Arsalb             (D) Aconite

70. Idiocy in children in capacity to think confused.

  • (A) Baryta carb (B) Picric acid
  • (C) Aethusa        (D) Agaricus

71. Late to walk and talk.

  • (A) Barycarb (B) Natm
  • (C) Calccarb (D) Agaricus

72. Complaints of imaginary odour before the nose, as of herring or musk.

  • (A) Agnus castus (B) Calc
  • (C) Nax.v (D) Sulph

73. Adapted to indolent weary persons averse lo either mental or physical labour mental labour fatigues.

  • (A) Alumina (B) Psomium
  • (C) Acid Phos (D) Aloes

74. Time passes too slowly, an hour seems half a day-

  • (A) Arg.n (B) Cocc
  • (C) Gcon (D) 1 & 3 (E) All

75. Adopted to those who are fat and sluggish on body large and fat, but legs too then.

  • (A) Calc Carb (B) Graph
  • (C) Capsicum (D) Ammo mur

76. Old people with morning diarrhoea, suddenly become constipated on alternate diarrhoea and constipation.

  • (A) Con . (B) Baryta Carb
  • (C) Ambra Grisea (D) Antim Crud .

77. For bad effects of vaccination when thuja fails and silica is not indicated

  • (A) Sarsaparilla (B) Malandrinun
  • (C) Antimtart (D) Sulph

78. After Baryta carb will often eradicate the constitutional tendency to quinsy.

  • (A) CalcCarb(B) Mere sol
  • (C) Psor         (D) Sil

79.Lung disease of tall slender, rapidly growin^youthupper third of righthmg.

  • (A) Phos(B Tub
  • (C) Ars (D) CalcCarb

80.In Euphrasia menses is, .

  • (A) Late (B) Profuse
  • (C) Early (D) Late and Scanty

81. Women inclined to obesity, who suffer from habitual constipation, with a history of delayed menstruation.

  • (A) Puls (B) Capsicum
  • (C) Calc.ars (D) Graphics

82.Pulse irregular in force regular in rhythm.

  • (A) Dig     (B) Naja
  • (C) Lil.tig (D) Cactus

83.At every menstrual nisus mouth throat and tongue became intolerably dry,especially when sleeping.

  • (A) Bry(B) Sep
  • (C) NuxMoschata (D) Sulphur

84.Poke root is the common name of.

  • (A) Sang(B) Phytolacca(C) Collinsonia
  • (D) Asclepius                    (E) Spigelia

85. Bitter cucumber is the common name of.

  • (A) Amygdalus (B) Dulcamara
  • (C) Coloc             (D) Parthenium

86.Kali Bi is the inimical of.

  • (A) Phos (B) Puls
  • (C) Sil (D) Calc Carb

87.Complementary to Baryta Carb.

  • (A) Mag Carb (B) CalcCarb
  • (C) Dulcamara (D) Ammo Carb

88. Antidote of Aesculus H.

  • (A) Op (B) Nux
  • (C) Aloes (D) Collinsonia

89. Can only void urine while sitting bent backwards.

  • (A). Sars (B) Med
  • (C) Zinc.met (D) Chimaphila

90. Vertigo on opening eyes.

  • (A) Theridion (B) Sep
  • (C) Tab (D) Am

91. Convulsions with consciousness.

  • (A) Stram (B) Op
  • (C) Hyos (D)Nux (E) 1&4

92. Children are obstinate, headstrong, cry when spoken kindly to.

  • (A) Sil (B) Lyco
  • (C) Puls (D) Stann

93.Pain in places where the bones are least covered, as tibia, back of hands.

  • (A) Acid.Phos (B) Ruta
  • (C) Symphytom (D) Sang

94.The word pharmacy is derived from pharmakon wirch is………….. word.

  • (A) Latin (B) Greek
  • (C) Arabian (D) Roman

95. 1st Homoeopathic pharmacopoeia was published in the year.

  • (A) 1882 (B)1870
  • (C) 1825 (D) 1897

96. 1st Indian Pharmacopoeia was published in.

  • (A) 1974(B) 1978
  • (C) 1982 (D)1971

97.—–is included Radiata.

  • (A) Sepia                      (B) Murx
  • (C) Asterias ruberis(D) Spongia

98….. is taken from grease of horse.

  • (A) AmbraGrisea (B) Anthracinum
  • (C) Malandrinum(D) Variolinum

99.Example of plant nosode,

  • (A) Ustilago   (B) Secale.Cor
  • (C) None         (D) 1&2

100. Magnetis Polics Australia is.

  • (A) Whole Magnet (B) North Pole
  • (C) South Pole (D) None

101. Sugar of milk is prepared by.

  • (A) Hahnes Method (B) Stapf Process*

102. Belladona Q is prepared by,

  • (A) Class I (B) Class II
  • (C) Class III (D) Class IV

103. Carcinocin is prepared by.

  • (A) Class.1 (B) Class II
  • (C) Class 4 (D) Class IV

104. Abbreviation of Send

  • (A) Mitt (B) M
  •  (C)m (D) MDu

105. Part used for homoeopathic preparation in Belladonna.

  • (A) Root (B) Flower
  • (C) Whole plant (D) Fruit

106. How many minutes of triturating is done to convert 1 c to 2 c

  • (A) 20(B) 60
  • (C) 120 (D) 40 minutes

107. Carbolic acid is prepared under.

  • (A) IV     (B) Va
  • (C) VI b (D)VIa

108. Drug power in Class V(b) preparation is.

  • (A) 1/100 (B) 1/10
  • (C) 1/6 (D) 1/1000

109. Drug and magic remedies act was passed in.

  • (A) 1954 (B) 1930
  • (C) 1957 (D)1934

110. Rectified spirit contains………… % of water.

  • (A) 26*/2% (B) 37%
  • (C) 471/2 % (D) 16 % (E) 58%

111. Repetition of medicine is called.

  • (A) Posology             (B) Pharmacononay
  • (C) Phannacognosy(D) Pharmacopallaxy

112. Main object of Homoeopathic case to kind is.

  • (A) Prognosis                (B) Diagnosis
  • (C) Individualisation (D)All

113. A well taken case is half cured – According to:

  • (A) Kent                         (B) Stuart Close
  • (C) Elizabeth Wright (D) Hahnemenn

114. Boenning Bausen’s Reporting of the Anti psorics was prefaced by.

  • (A) Hahnemann (B) Boeninghausen
  • (C) H.A. Robert (D) Hering

115. 1s1 Indian repertory the ‘Manual of Homoeopathy’ was published by.

  • (A) Fr Augustus Mullar (B) Augustine Mullcr
  • (C) Dr. S.K. Tiwari (D) C. Hering

116. Repertory of the more characteristic symptoms of the Materia Medica – Published by.

  • (A) A. Lippe (B) C. Hering
  • (C) C. Lippe (D) Jabr.

117. Which among the following is not a puritan repertory.

  • (A) Knerr’sRep.                                      (B) Jahr’sRep.
  • (C) Hering’s Analytical Repertory (D) Murphy’s Repertory

118. The chapter mind in Kent’s repertory was made by.

  • (A) Kent Alone (B) Lee and Kent
  • (C) Lee Alone (D) Clar a Loui.se Kent

119. BBCR is mainly based on.

  • (A) TPB
  • (B) Boenning Bausen’s Repertory ofAntipsoric
  • (C) B.H’s Repertory of Medicines which are not antipsoric
  • (D) All the above

120. Repertory of sensations as if made by..

  • (A) H.A. Robert (B) Honi Comb
  • (C) None               (D) Both

121. Ist Card Repertory was available to the profession in which year.

  • (A) 1888 (B) 1892
  • (C) 1896 (D)1893

122. Size of the card in Jugal Kishore’s Card Repertory is.

  • (A) 9″x3″”(B) 9″x2
  • (C) ll”x3″ (D)iix2″

123. 1st Indian edition of Murphy’s Repertory is in the year.

  • (A) 1973 (B) 1974
  • (C) 1994 (D) 1993

124. Concise Repertory of Homoeopathic medicine published by.

  • (A) Murphy (B) Phathak
  • (C) Boericke (D)Clarke

125. Total number of chapters in Knerr’s Repertory is.

  • (A) 38 (B) 48
  • (C) 47 (D)37

126. Eliminating symptoms are first coined by.

  • (A) MLDhawale (B) MLTyler
  • (C) Hering (D) Hahnemann

127. Reportorium synthaticum homoeopathicum published by.

  • (A) Barthel and Will Klunker (B) JostKunzli
  • (C) Boger                                        (D) Frederik Schroyens

128. Kent says: “The greatest of all comparers of the materia medica was Boenningbausen. The concordances of Boenning baussn’s book are wonderful. These are the most important part of the book and they would not fail.” The chapter concordance of Boenning bausen’s reporting contains.

  • (A) 124 Med (B) 141 Med
  • (C) 125 Med (D) 144 Med

129. The 3rd volume of synthetic reporting contains.

  • (A) Mental Symptoms (B) Physical Generals
  • (C) Sleep, Dream & Sex

130. Integrated approach for repertory section was put forward by.

  • (A) MLDhawale (B) HA Robert
  • (C) Boger (D) Boeiming Haucen

131. Three mark medicine for abuse of sulphur in Kent’s Repertory is.

  • (A) Calc(B) Mere
  • (C) Ars. (D)Puls

132. In Kent’s Repertory septicemia belongs to the chapter.

  • (A) Extremities (B) Generalities
  • (C) Skin                 (D) None

13o. Medicines for Anthrax in Kent’s Repertory .

  • (A) Anthracinum only (B) Ars.
  • (C) Sec (D) All the above

134. Bums belong to ……………. chapter inBoenninghaucen’s repertory,

  • (A) Aggravation                                           (B) Sensations
  • (C) Both sensations and aggravations (D) Skin

135. Cross reference given for Humorous in Kent’s repertory is.

  • (A) Mood (B) Justing
  •  (C) Joy (D) Joyous

136.Match list I (symptoms) with list II (Medicines) and select the correct answer using cods.

  • (A) Speaks continually in questions – Vertrum Alb.
  • (B) Repeats the questions first – Aurum
  • (C) Precocity – Mere. sol
  • (D) Swallows his feces – Zincum Met

137. The chapter relationship of remedies was worked out by.

  • (A) Boenninghaucen(B) Gibson Miller
  • (C) Dr. J.T.Kent          (D) Dr. William Boericke

138. Aggravation from seashore. Medicines are,

  • (A) Ars. (B) Mag.mur,
  • (C) Sep.(D) All.

139.Menopause is included in Kent’s repertory under.

  • (A) Generalities         (B) Gentalia female
  • (C) Genitalia – male  (D)All

140. Boenninghaucen makes four divisions of the back. In this TPB – Steiss means.

  • (A) Sacral region   (B) Region of coccyx
  • (C) Lumbar region (D) Back in general ‘

141. Rubric scurvy belong to which chapter in TPB.

  • (A) Mouth                (B) Sensations
  • (C) Aggravations  (D) Ameliorations

142. Rubric for loathing of life in BBCR is.

  • (A) Depression (B) Tedium
  • (C) Listlessness (D) Desire death

143 Non union of bones is found in the chapter in kents repertory

  • (A)extremities (B)generalities
  • (C)head               (D) back

144 Photophobia is found in the chapter in kents repertory

  • (A) vision (B) generalities
  • (C) eye      (D) mind

145 A patient desires to die due to his severe pains .which is the rubric for him

  • (A)desire death (B) Pain
  • (C) suicidal (D)Kill

146 Cannot look at knife or blood

  • (A)Phos        (B) Alumen
  • (C)Alumina (D)sulph

147 Women with aversion to her own sex

  • (A)Plat   (B) graph
  • (C) lyco (D) raph

148 Exostosis of lower jaw

  • (A) Sil               (B) Thuja
  • (C) Calc flour (D)Phos

149. Rubric worms is found in …. Chapter in kent’s repertory

  • (A) generalities (B)rectum
  • (C) abdomen      (D) stomach

150. Hoarseness is found in the chapter

  • (A) Respiration                  (B) Cough
  • (C) larynx and trachea (D) Nose

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IHMA Model MD Homeopathy Entrance 2006 Paper II

Questions : 150    Marks : 600     Time : 120 Minutes

1. Please read the instructions given in the OMR Answer Sheet for marking answers. Candidates are advised to strictly follow the instructions contained in the OMR Answer Sheet.

2. For each question there are four suggested answers, given against (A), (B), (C) and (D) of which only one will be MOST APPROPRIATE answer. Indicate it in the OMR Answer Sheet.

3. Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to penalization formula based on the number of right answers actually marked and the number of wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded FOUR marks. ONE mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a question will be deemed as an incorrect response and will be negatively marked.                                                           

1.A 15 year old girl complains of acne on face, which started after she tried out some cosmetics. Ever since the complaint started, she is also getting urticarial rashes, < after bathing, and any emotional excitement. She feels very uncomfortable with tight clothing around her waist. The remedy is

  • A) Ant-c              B) Lycopodium
  • C) Urtica urens D) Bovista

2.A 50 year old patient with peptic ulcer developed persistent vomiting since 5 days. He has not been taking any solid food since complaint started. He has thirst for very cold drinks, but on drinking is immediately vomited. His wife said that he has become very anxious and restless, and wants her to be near him always. On examination his tongue was found to be coated thick white. Initial treatment consisted of IV Saline and Ars alb 30, but without relief. The most suitable remedy is

  • A) Phoshorus B) Bismuth
  • C) Antim crud D) Cadmium sulph

3.Remedy with elective affinity on the spleen.

  • A) Ceanothus only                                    B) Ceanothus and Thlaspi Bursa
  • C) Ceanothus & Fraxinus americana D) None

4.Dimercuros ammonium nitrate is better known as

  • A) Merc cor       B) Merc sol
  • C) Merc dulcis  D) Nitri spiritus dulcis.

5.Calc-p has a complementary relation with

  • A) Ruta only                                  B) Ruta & Hammamelis
  • C) Ruta & Trillium Pendulum D) Hammamelis & Trillium Pendulum

6.Kali-c is followed by this remedy in hip disease

  • A) Rhus-t B)Calc-p
  • C) Ledum D) Flouric acid

7.Dr. EB Nash has said, “there are no two remedies that are oftener indicated after each other, and work as well when so indicated, than these two” – Which are these two remedies ?

  • A) Sulph & Calc B) Sulph & Caust
  • C) Bry & Rhus-t D) Nux-v & Sepia

8.Match symptoms in List-I with Remedies in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I                             List II
(Symptoms)                   (Medicines)

  • A. Aversion to children  1. Coffea
  • B. Loves power             2.Platina.
  • C. Benevolence             3. Helleborus.
  • D. Everything seems new 4. Lycopodium

(a) A B C D
2 4 1 3
(b) A B C D
4 2 3 1
(c) A B C D
3 4 1 2
(d) A B C D
4 2 1 3
9.According to Boericke, this remedy has a specific action in panaritium

  • A)Myristica      B) Dioscorea
  • C) Gun powder D) Graphites

10.Scanty sweat is found in

  • A) Camphor & Squilla B) Camphor & opium
  • C) Opium & Squilla       D) None

11.Hemorrhage forming into long black strings hanging from bleeding surface is found in.

  • A) Crocus sativus only                         B) Crocus sativus & Ferrum met
  • C) Crocus sativus & Sulphuric acid D) Crocus sativus & Elaps cor

12.“Throbbing pain in neck of bladder, as if a straw was being thrust back and forth” is found in

  • A) Sarasaparilla B) Sabal ser
  • C) Conium           D) Digitalis.

13.A person feels that he has been singled out for God’s vengence. He may require

  • A) Hyoscyamus B) Kali brom
  • C) Lyssin              D) Anacardium

14.According to HC Allen, the burning feet of Sulphur and restless fidgety feet of Zincum are both found at the same time in

  • A) Lachesis            B)Tarentula
  • C) Medorrhinum D) Kali brom

15.“Involuntary stool while urinating” is found in

  • A) Muriatic acid, Alumina & Aloe                  B) Muriatic acid, Causticum & Aloe
  • C) Muriatic acid, Gelsimium & Causticum  D)Muriatic acid only

16. Which among the following medicines is suitable for “ prickly heat”

  • (a)Cephalandra indica
  • (b)Syzygium jambolanum
  • (c)Abroma augusta
  • (d)Gymnema sylvestre

17. Aversion to sweets is seen in

  • (a)Thyroidinum
  • (b)Sabadilla
  • (c)Radium bromide
  • (d)Kali carb

18. One of the following medicines was proved by S.Lilienthal, Name the medicine?

  • (a)Sticta pulmonale
  • (b)Picric acid
  • (c)Natrum phosphoricum
  • (d)Moschus

19. Which part of the lung is affected by Sanguinaria canadensis?

  • (a)Right upper lobe
  • (b)Right middle lobe
  • (c)Right lower lobe
  • (d)Whole right lung

20. Medicine for “Acute idiocy” is

  • (a)Aethusa cynapium (b)Baryta carb
  • (c)Brahmi                        (d)Helleborus Niger

21. “Headache and diarrhoea from jarring of cars” is seen in

  • (a)Syphilinum
  • (b)Tuberculinum
  • (c)Psorinum
  • (d)Medorrhinum

22. “Coryza ending in diarrhoea” – indicated medicine is

  • (a)Selenium
  • (b)Theridion
  • (c)Lac can
  • (d)Allium cepa

23. Find out the medicine from the following symptoms
Great emaciation, debility and tendency to ascites and general dropsy
Gastric and duodenal ulcers
Abdomen bloated, gas, second only to Lycopodium
Causes glycosuria

  • (a)Helonius
  • (b)Phosphoric acid
  • (c)Uranium nitricum
  • (d)Abroma augusta

24. “Tongue flabby, resembling a layer of dried clay” is the symptom of

  • (a)Calcarea sulph
  • (b)Hydrastis
  • (c)Merc dulsis
  • (d)Podophyllum

25. Medicine for hypermetropia is

  • (a)Jaborandi
  • (b)Arnica
  • (c)Alfalfa
  • (d)Avena sativa

26. According to Gurnsey “Sanicula is the chronic of which medicine”

  • (a)Belladonna
  • (b)Magnesia carb
  • (c)Chamomilla
  • (d)Zinc met

27. “Child looks old, dried up like a mummy” is the symptom of

  • (a)Carcinocin
  • (b)Arg nit
  • (c)Rad bromide
  • (d)Sanicula

28. Indicated medicine for “Railway spine” is

  • (a)Symphytum
  • (b)Plumb met
  • (c)Picric acid
  • (d)Bellis per

29. “Chill at 2 p.m begins internally in stomach region” is the characteristic symptom of

  • (a)Pulsatilla
  • (b)Cocculus
  • (c)Calc carb
  • (d)Nux vom

30. “Head symptoms are relieved by emission of flatus” is seen in

  • (a)Cicuta virosa
  • (b)Sang can
  • (c)Nat sulph
  • (d)Bufo rana

31.Repertory of eczema was written by

  • a. mills paugh b. morgan
  • c. clake             d. Guernsey

32.First French repertory is

  • a. fragmenta de viribus
  • b. Allentown manual
  • c. a homoeopathic repertory of symptomatology
  • d. symptom repertory

33.How many gradations are there in synthetic repertory

  • a. three b. four
  • c. five d. two

34. First card repertory

  • a. Guernsey b. boger’s
  • c. kishore’s d. sharma’s

35. Showing respect for elders

  • a. reveries      b. presumptuous
  • c. reverence d. estranged

36. Rubric having most no of nosodes

  • a. generalities abscess recurrent b. eye conical cornea
  • c. eyes styes recurrent                    d. teeth serrated

37. Rubric delicate children is given in which chapter of boger’s repertory

  • a. aggravation & amelioration b. sensations and complaints
  • c. mind                                              d. generalities

38. Remedy for syphilitic vertigo in Kents repertory

  • a. aurum b. cocc
  • c. Spig     d. Sep

39. Rubric epulis is seen in which chapter in Kent’s repertory

  • a. teeth b. mouth
  • c. eyes d. urine

40. In which chapter rubric pneumatocele is given in boger’s repertory

  • a. stomach        b. pubic and inguinal region
  • c. generalities d. chest

41. Fever without chill is given in which chapter of Kent’s repertory

  • a. fever                  b. chill
  • c. perspiration  d. generalities

42. Confusion muddled etc is given in which chapter of the boger’s repertory

  • a. mind      b. Sensations and complaints
  • c. vertigo d. sensorium

43. Haemorrhoids is given in which chapter of the boenninghausens repertory

  • a. rectum b. anus
  • c. stool     d. sensations and complaints

44. Remedy for puts things to mouth in boger’s repertory

  • a. stramonium b. hyocyamus
  • c. belladonna  d. Mercurius

45. Rubric perspiration gives no relief is given in which chapter of Kent’s repertory

  • a. chill b. perspiration
  • c. fever d. generalities

46. Asphyxia neonatorum is given in which chapter of boger’s repertory

  • a. respiration                  b. chest
  • c. larynx and trachea d. sensations and complaints

47. Remedy for cough amelioarated by eructations in kents repertory

  • a. sang   b. nux v
  • c. sep    d. Sulph

48. Rubric falling to the ground with consiousness is given in boger’s repertory

  • a. mind             b. vertigo
  • c. sensorium d. sensations and complaints

49.Rubric cracks in the corners of mouth is given in which chapter of kents repertory

  • a. mouth   b. face
  • c. skin       d. generalities

50.Remedy for well says he is when very sick in kents repertory

  • a. arn       b. lyco
  • c. nat-m d. opium

51.What is quis

  • a. personality                b. cause of the disease
  • c. nature of disease    d. modifying factors

52.What is doctrine of analogy

  • a. grand generalization b. concordance
  • c. cross reference           d. relations

53.Hot and cold remedies is written by

  • a. kent                      b. M.L.tyler
  • c. gibbson miller d. John weir

54.Latest repertory

  • a. kents repertories generale b. reperotrium universalice
  • c. complete repertory              d. synthesis repertory

55. which one of the following is not a computer repertory

  • a. CIRH           b. RADAR
  • c. KENMBO   d. RCNP

56.Cito tuto et jecunde means

  • a) Quickly ,safely,pleasantly
  • b)safely ,quickly ,pleasantly
  • c) pleasantly, safely ,quickly
  • d)quickly ,pleasantly,safely

57.The sign of complete cure in Syphilis is disappearance of

  • a) Bubo                                            b)Chancre
  • c) Scar leaving healthy skin   d) None

58.Antpsoric is most useful during

  • a. menses    b. fasting
  • c. lactation d. pregnancy

59. If true chronic miasm are present in a patient what is to be treated first

  • a. psora      b. sycosis.
  • C. syphilis d. secondary syphilis

60. If menses be profuse, Hahnemann advices

  • a. sepia       b. Nux vom
  • c. Sulphur d. Carb veg

61. Aversion to meat is seen in

  • a. psora b. tubercular
  • c. sycosis d. Syphilis

62. Best time for taking antipsoric is

  • a. after food                                      b. before food
  • c. early morning while fasting d. at bed time

63. Simple food causes colic in

  • a. psora b. tubercular
  • c. sycosis d. Syphilis

64. Sequele is a manifestation of

  • a. acute disease b. epidemic
  • c. latent psora   d. latent sycosis

65. Complaints relieved by haemorrhage is a manifestation of

  • a) Psora      b) Pseudopsora
  • c) Syphilis  d) Psora

66. Basilar headache is a feature of

  • a) Pseudopsora b)sycosis c) syphilis d) psora

67. Desire for salt and potato is seen in

  • a) Pseudopsora b)sycosis c) syphilis d) psora

68. Of the below which is 6th observation

  • a. action of medicine upon provers
  • b. a full time amelioration of the symptoms yet no relief of the patient
  • c. too short relief of symptoms
  • d. amelioration comes first and the aggravation comes after wards

69. According to Kent the physician must know himself and that the patient is on the road to recovery – when?

  • a. 9th observation
  • b. 10th observation
  • c. 11th observation
  • d. 12th observation

70. After the administration of the medicine, when a new group of symptoms appears some where in the body relative to the patient, such as the patient as never had, then according to Kent the second prescription

  • a. repetition                 b. antidote
  • c. change of remedy d. complementary

71.According to kent menstruation belongs to

  • a)general     b)particular
  • c)common d)Basic

72.Of the below who said “A rational knowledge of anatomy is important .No homoeopath ever discouraged the true study of anatomy and physiology

  • a) Stuart close b) J T Kent
  • c) H A Roberts d) Hering

73.What is genius of homoeopathy according to Stuart close

  • a) Similia similibus curenter
  • b) materia medica
  • c) Individualization
  • d) dynamisation

74. Hering advised selecting at least—- characteristic symptom as the basis of prescribing.

  • a) One b) three
  • c) four d) ten

75.Word symptom is derived from

  • a. Greek b. Latin
  • c. Arabic d.None

76. Homoeopathy is a therapeutic method – not a doctrine or a system

  • a. Hering b. Garth boericke
  • c. Hughes d. J.H. Allen

77. The following severe as an obstacle to cure by deflecting the current of symptomatology

  • a. unhappy domestic conditions
  • b. increase use of sedatives
  • c. pathological conditions of the patient
  • d. all of the above

78. Medicine in too smaller doses when repeated for a long time produces which symptoms

  • a. generic b. central
  • c. peripheral d. none

79. Symptoms which are clinically verified, not confirmed by reproving – belongs to which grade?

  • a. first b. second
  • c. third d. fourth

80. LORD BACON is known as

  • a. master clinician                b. prince of physician
  • c. the Luther of medicine   d. none

81. Contributions of Aristotle to medicine

  • a. book known as “the pathway to the surgeons chest”
  • b. laid the foundation of comparative anatomy and embryology
  • c. both A and B
  • d. book HISTORIA PLANTARUM

82. The first president of central council of homoeopathy was

  • a. Jugal kishore b. Saxena
  • c. A.K. Kisku      d. P.C. Majumdar

83. Show me the examination of sick person, and I will tell you if the man knows anything about our material medica. Who told this?

  • a. Hahnemann b. Kent.
  • C. Boger             d. Adolph lippe

84. With children, lunatics and liars, you have to use your own observations

  • a. Kent       b. M.L. Tyler
  • c. Burnett d. Boger

85. The silent , heartfelt thankfulness that hahnemann was born and lived his life and left us the results of his discoveries in the ORGANON, chronic disease and MATERIA MEDICA PURA is the best way to celebrate this wonderful mans birthday- whose words is this?

  • a. Kent           b. Boenninghausen
  • c. H.C.Allen d. T.F.Allen

86. Which of the following is the best choice to evaluate radiologically a posterior fossa tumor?

  • a.CT                       b.MRI
  • c.Angiography d.Myelography

87. High resolution computed tomography of the chest is the ideal modality in

  • a.Pleural effusion b.Intrestitial lung disease
  • c.Lung mass          d.Mediastinal; adenopathy

88. Bracket calcification in skull x-ray is seen in

  • a)Tuberous scelorosis      b)Menigioma
  • c)Corpus callosu lipoma d)Sturge weber syndrome

89. Marble bone appearance is characteristics of

  • a)Flurosis                                   b)Osteopetrosis
  • c)Osteogenesis imperfecta d)Achondroplasis

90.Pavor nocturnes is

  • a)Somnambulism b)Sleep terror
  • c)Sleep bruxism d)Sleep apnea

91.La bella indifference is seen in

  • a)Mania       b) Dissociative disorder
  • c)Delirium d)Depression

92.Intrepretation of dream by Freud

  • a)1919 b)1900
  • c)1987 d)1956

93.Pseudocommunity is seen in

  • a)Schizotypal personality dosorder
  • b)Drug dependance
  • c)Dementia
  • d)Paranod state

94.’Folie a deux’ was first described by

  • a)Jules b)Asher
  • c)Janet d)Lasegue & Falert

95.Schizophrenia is a disorder of

  • a)Perception b) Memory
  • c)Belief            d)Tought

96. Condyloma lata is present in ———— syphillis

  • a)Primary     b) Secondary
  • c) Tertiaray d) Latent

97.Fox fordyce

  • a)Bullous lesions are common b)Common in adult women
  • c)Common in areola & axilla  d)Associated with other malignancies

98.Myrmecia warts are

  • a)Palmar warts    b)Plantar warts
  • c)Inguinal warts d)Veruccous warts

99.Coomonest site of atopic dermatitis is

  • a)Elbow b) Trunk
  • c)Scalp d) Ant cubital fossa

100.Herpes zoster is commonly seen in

  • a)Geniculate ganglion b)Lumbar region
  • c)Thoracic region        d)Cervical region

101. Postspinal headache is due to

  • a)Menigioma b)Injury to spinal cord
  • c)Menigitis    d)CSF leak from dura

102.Most common complication of acute otitis media in children

  • a)Facial nerve palsy      b)Deafness
  • c) Chornic mastoiditis  d)Cholesteatoma

103.Schwartze operation is done in

  • a)CSOM               b) Acute mastoiditis
  • c)Otosclerosis d)Serous otitis media

104.Otosclerois affects

  • a)Tympanic membrane b)Round window
  • c) Oval window                 d)Ossicle

105. Percentage of newborn with deviation of nasal septum

  • a)50 b) 20
  • c) 10 d) 2

106.Tears are produced in newborn after

  • a)1 week b) 2 week
  • c) 3 week d) 4 week

107. Rosette catract is due to

  • a) Hyperparathyroidism b) Trauma
  • c)Diabetes                              c) Hypoparathyroidism

108. D shaped pupil is seen in

  • a)Iridocyclitis                b)Glaucoma
  • c)Dislocation of lense e)Iridodialysis

109.The presence of immunoreactive trypsinogen in blood spots in newborn suggestive of

  • a)Cystic fibrois      b)Trypsinogen deficiency
  • c)Coeliac disease d)Inborn error in tryptophan metabolism

110. Transient myeloproliferative disorder of newborn is seen in association with

  • a)Turner syndrome    b)Ataxia telengectasia
  • c)Neurofibromatosis d)Don syndrome

111. water content in infant is

  • a) 60-70 % b) 75-80%
  • c)80-90% d) 90-100%

112. Breat milk at room temperature is stored for

  • a)24 hr b) 12 hr
  • c) 8 hr d)4 hr

113. Fever stops and rash begins is diagnostic of

  • a)Chikungunya            b) Measels
  • c) Roseola infantum d)Toxic shock syndrome

114. What is the normal effect of progestrone on ureters in Pregnancy :

  • (A) There is more dilation of the left ureter than of the right.
  • (B) There is more dilation of the ureter.
  • (C) Both ureters dilate equally.
  • (D) Both ureters constrict equally.

115. The common cause of foetal tachy cardia :

  • (A) Foetal anaemia                   (B) Maternal anaemia.
  • (C) Maternal’hyperthermia. (D) Maternal Hypothermia.

116. The clinical features of Rokitansky syndrome are the following except:

  • (A) Primary amenorrhoea.       (B) Well developed Secondary Sexual Characters.
  • (C) Absent vagina and uterus. (D) Present vagina and uterus.

117. The septate uterus is formed as a result of:

  • (A) Fusion of Mullerian ducts,       (B) Incomplete fusion of the ducts.
  • (C) Noncanalisationof the ducts. (D) Nonresorption of the median septum.

118. Older gravidas have an increased incidence of:

  • (A) Ut. inertia.        (B) Mal prsentation.
  • (C) Hypertension. (D) Allot the above.

119. Meconium aspiration syndrome is associated with :

  • (A) Prolonged labour. (B) Post dated pregnancy.
  • (C) I.U.G.R.                      (D) All of the above.

120.Immediately following delivery height of uterus corresponds to—- weeks

  • a)12 b) 25
  • c) 20 d) 32

121. To obtain a true conjugate the following factor should be subtracted from the diagonal conjugate

  • a)3 cm b) 2.5 cm
  •  c)2 cm d)1 cm

122. Maximum function of corpus leteum occurs

  • a) At ovulation          b) 3 days After ovulation
  • c) Before ovulation d) 9 days after ovulation

123.Ovarian function after hystrecomy

  • a) Remain the same b)Increase
  • c) Decrease d) Decrease after 5 years

124. The correct line of management in a child who has swallowed a coin

  • (a) Wait and watch     (b) Fibro optic endoscopy
  • (C) Rigid endoscopy (d) Laparotomy

125.Primary feature of small intestinal obstruction

  • (a) Abdominal distention            (b) Fever
  • (C) High peristalisis with colic  (d) Vomiting

126.A patient undergoing TURP under bupivacane anesthesia suddenly developed pain after 30 minutes of surgery. May be due to

  • (a) Mesentric ischemia               (b) DIC
  • (C) Anaphylaxis of anesthesia (d) Bladder rupture

127) Match list I (diseases) and list II (operation procedure) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:
List I                                 List II

  • A. Hirschsprung’s disease    1. Abdominal perineal resection
  • B. Rectal carcinoma             2. Lumbar sympathectomy
  • C. Buerger’s disease           3. Whipple’s procedure
  • D. Periampullary carcino     4.Duhamel procedure

Codes:
A) A:3, B:1, C:2, D:4 B) A:3, B:2, C:1, D:4
C) A:4, B:2, C:1, D:3 D) A:4, B:1, C:2, D:3

128. Which one of the following is the complication of “Meckel’s Diverticulum” ?

  • (a) Retinal detachment
  • (b) Haemorrhoids
  • (c) Peptic ulcer
  • (d) Corneal ulcer

129. Marked tenderness with severe pain at Mqburney’s point is a diagnostic feature of:

  • (a) Salpingitis
  • (b) Appendicitis
  • (c) Ovaritis
  • (d) Cystitis

130.Reparative granuloma of jaw is treated by

  • a)Curettage                                      b) Wedge resection
  • c) Resection & bone grafting   d)Antibiotics

131. In ‘hernia en glissade’ the most common content is

  • a) Uterus        b) Urinary bladder
  • c) Omentum d) Sigmoid colon

132. Subcutaneous calcifications are seen in

  • a)Hyperparathyroidism b)Gout
  • c) Onchrosis                        d) Malignancies

133. Renal tuberculosis originates in the

  • a)Renal medulla       b) Renal papilla
  • c) Afferent tubules d) Efferent tubules

134) Which one of the following indices of obesity can be calculated by the formula “Height (in cms.)- 100”?

  • a) Broca index
  • b) Body mass index
  • c) Corpulence index
  • d) Ponderal index

135) The bodies seen on microscopic examination of liver in viral hepatitis are

  • a) Aschoff bodies
  • b) Councilman’s bodies
  • c) L. D. bodies
  • d) Mallory`s bodies

136) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I                        List-II
(Disease)                ( HLA allele)

  • A. Ankylosing spondylitis     1. DR3
  • B. Rheumatoid arthritis       2. B27
  • C. Haemochromatosis          3. BW47
  • D. Chronic active hepatitis  4. A3

                                                                  5.DR4
Codes:  A B C D

  • (a) 3 4 2 1
  • (b) 2 5 4 1
  • (c) 2 1 4 3
  • (d) 3 5 2 4

137) Nikolysky’s sign is diagnostic of

  • a)Lichen planus
  • b)Pemphigus
  • c)Psoriasis
  • d)Tuberous sclerosis

138) A child develops acute renal failure following an episode of diarrhoea. Blood examination shows thrombocytopenia. Possible diagnosis:

  • a)Dengue shock syndrome
  • b)I.T.P
  • c)H.S.Purpura
  • d)Hemolytic uraemic syndrome

139) Match the following:
List-I                            List-II
A. U wave                       1. Hypothermia
B.Peaked T wave         2. Hypocalcaemia
C. Increased QT wave  3. Hyperkalemia
D. J wave                       4. Hypokalemia

  • (a) A-4,B-2,C-1,D-3
  • (b) A-4,B-3,C-1,D-2
  • (c) A-4,B-3,C-2,D-1
  • (d) A-1,B-3,C-2,D-4

140) Osteochondritis of tibial tubercle is called

  • a)Osgood schlatters diseases
  • b)Severs diseases
  • c)Kohlers diseases
  • d)Kienbocks diseases

141) The type of pneumonia appeared to be transmitted by water droplets in air conditioners& coolers is

  • a)Klebsiella pneumonia
  • b) Pneumocystic carini pneumonia
  • c)Legionella pneumonia
  • d)Mycoplasma pneumonia

142. The commonest form of MND is :

  • (A) Amyotrophic Lateral sclerosis. (B) Western Pacific form.
  • (C) Progressive Bulbar palsy.              (D) Primary Lateral Sclerosis

143. Common psycho somatic respiratory disorder is :

  • (A) Bronchitis.                  (B) Emphysema.
  • (C) Bronchial Asthma.   (D) Pneumonia.

144. Bell’s Palsy is a :

  • (A) UMN type of facial palsy.  (B) LMN type of facial palsy.
  • (C) Both UMN and LMN type. (D) None of above.

145. In respiratory distress syndrome of new born (RDS):

  • (A) Cilia is devoid.                                    (B) Hucus is collected.
  • (C) Surfactant in Alveoli is Reduced (D) None of above.

146. Chronic Corpulmonale means :

  • (A) Heart failure.
  • (B) Respiratory Failure.
  • (C) Heart Disease secondary to lung Disease.
  • (D) Primary heart disease.

147. In athlets bradycardia is because ‘

  • (A) Becreased sympathetic tone. (B) Increased vagal tone.
  • (C) ‘Decreased vagal tone                (D) Increased sympathetic ton

148. Fat embolism can be caused by :

  • (A) Subclavian vein catheterisation. (B) Caesarean section. ,—–
  • (C) Fracture of long bones.                     (D) incised wounds of lower cervical region.

149)Match the following

  • A)Sabin fieldman dye test (1) Echinocoocus.garanulosus
  • B)Casoni`s test                (2)Toxoplasmosis
  • C)Aldehyde test                (3)Infectious mononucleosis
  • D)Paulbunneltest              (4)Leishmaniasis

(a)A-4,B-1,C-3,D-2 (b)A-2,B1,C-3,D-4
(c)A-2,B-1,C-4,D-3 (d)A-1,B-4,C-2,D-3

150) A child from a Sindhi family presented with severe anaemia,pereipheral smear shows microcytic hypochromic type,serum ferritin is normal,TIBC reduced next investigation of choice

  • (a)Hemoglobin electrophoresis (b)Seruum iron examination
  • (c)Kidney function test                 (d)Stool examination


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IHMA Model MD Homeopathy Entrance 2006 Paper 1

Questions : 150         Marks : 600     Time : 120 Minutes

1.Please read the instructions given in the OMR Answer Sheet for marking answers. Candidates are advised to strictly follow the instructions contained in the OMR Answer Sheet.

2. For each question there are four suggested answers, given against (A), (B), (C) and (D) of which only one will be MOST APPROPRIATE answer. Indicate it in the OMR Answer Sheet.

3. Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to penalization formula based on the number of right answers actually marked and the number of wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded FOUR marks. ONE mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a question will be deemed as an incorrect response and will be negatively marked.                             

1) A 50 year old lady presented with severe anxiety with inability to keep still. She would constantly move about her house, and had strange impulses to kill others especially when at rest. She said she frequently had the feeling that she had forgotten something, but could not tell what it was. She has recently become averse to company, and doesn’t like people talking to her. The remedy is

  • A) Hepar sulph    B) Tarentula Hispanica
  • C) Iodum                D) Argentum Nit

2)Match remedies in List-I with those in List-II according to complementary relationship and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I                    List II
(Symptoms)          (Medicines)

  • A. Graph                 1. Calc carb.
  • B. Kalmia                 2. Benz-ac.
  • C. Secale                3. Caust.
  • D. Cupr                   4. Ars.

(a) A B C D
3 2 4 1
(b) A B C D
2 3 4 1
(c) A B C D
1 2 4 3
(d) A B C D
2 3 1 4

3)A 38 year old patient with Chronic Hepatitis presented with pain liver region < pressure & lying on right. Since last few months he found that he could not lie on the left side as well, because of a dragging feeling in liver region. He was constipated, had loss of appetite and was nauseous occasionally. He also said that he had a peculiar feeling of nervousness at night in bed, especially on closing the eyes. The remedy is

  • A) Mag mur               B) Cinchona
  • C) Cardus mar         D) Digitalis

4)Remedy for cough only in daytime.

  • A) Nux-v                     B) Coccus cacti
  • C) Staphysagria        D) Kali sulph

5)“Sensation as if a thread were hanging down throat”. The remedy is

  • A) Ign         B) Valer
  • C) Puls        D) Moschus

6)Tenesmus after stool is found in

  • A) Merc sol only B) Merc sol & Aloe C) Merc sol & Agaricus
  • D) Merc sol & Colocynth

7)Remedy which is a cross between Bry & Rhus-t in pleurisy

  • A) Ran-b              B) Kali-c
  • C) Oxalic acid    D) Senega

8)Remedy which has “Complains return at the same hour”

  • A) Cedron & Chinninum sulph only B) Cedron, Chinninum sulph & Lachesis
  • C) Cedron, Chinninum sulph & Naja D) Cedron, Chinninumsulph & Ignatia

9)“Abstraction of mind” – Remedies are

  • A) Cicuta                                  B) Cicuta & Nux moschata
  • C) Cicuta & Cuprum met    D) Cicuta & Anacardium

10)Hot patients, with coryza < open air may require

  • A) Kali iod only                   B) Kali sulph only
  •  C) Kali iod & kali sulph    D) Kali iod, Kali sulph & Iodum

11)Which among the following is the cognate of Baryta carb in tonsillitis according to Dr. Kent ?

  • A) Phytolacca      B) Alumen
  • C) Conium              D) Merc sol

12)Match common names of remedies List-I with their families in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I                        List II
(Symptoms)                 (Medicines)

  • A. Black spruce        1. Beriberidacea
  • B. Indian Pennywort  2. Gentianacea
  • C. Buck bean           3. Ranunculacea.
  • D. May apple           4. Coniferae

(a) A B C D
2 3 4 1
(b) A B C D
2 3 1 4
(c) A B C D
2 1 4 3
(d) A B C D
4 3 2 1

13)Which among the following authors have written the book “A Manual of Homoeopathic Therapeutics”?

  • A) E Neatby & TG Stonham                           B) Richard Hughes & JP Dake
  • C) EA Farrington & Harvey Farrington   D) HA Roberts & TF Allen

14)Which remedy according to Boericke is efficacious in clearing the remnants of cancerous deposits ?

  • A) Malandrinum     B) Hydrastis
  • C) Ars Alb                 D) Calendula

15)Which among the following symptoms are characteristic of Natrum carb ?

  • 1)Sadness < eating
  • 2)Anxiety < music
  • 3)Headache > eating
  • 4)Desire Milk

A) 1, 2, 3   B) 2 & 3    C) 2 only   D) 1 & 2

16)Which of the following symptoms are not covered by Phosphoric acid ?

  • 1)Homesickness
  • 2)Weakness from grief
  • 3)Burning vertex from grief
  • 4)Craving fruits

A) 1, 2, 3, 4    B) 3 only   C) 3 & 4    D) None

17)Which of the following are characteristic of Lilium Tig

  • 1)< consolation
  • 2)Undertakes many things, persists in nothing
  • 3)Nymphomania
  • 4)Cowardice

A) 1 & 3    B) 1, 3, 4     C) 1, 2, 3    D) All of the above

18)In “Materia medica pura”, symptoms with no name or symbol attached signifies

  • A) Doubtful symptoms  B) Symptoms from Hahnemann
  • C) Clinical symptoms     D) Toxicological symptoms

19)The notation ☞ ( “pointing finger”) in Hering’s “Guiding Symptoms” signify

  • A) Approved characteristic        B) Toxicological symptom
  • C) Clinically verified symptom  D) Observations only on sick persons

20)Match symptoms in List-I with Remedies in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I                                              List II
(Symptoms)                                    (Medicines)

  • A. Vertex headache > hard pressure  1. Secale cor
  • B. First stages of a cold with chilliness & Sneezing 2.Cuprum met.
  • C. Asthma < 3 AM                             3. Verat alb.
  • D. Ravenous appetite with diarrhoea  4. Camphor

(a) A B C D
4 3 2 1
(b) A B C D
2 3 4 1
(c) A B C D
3 4 1 2
(d) A B C D
3 4 2 1

21)Cactus was proved by

  • A) Nunez B) Rubini C) Burnett D) Drysdale

22)Which remedy is prepared from the meconium deposit out of the amniotic fluid of the mare or the cow ?

  • A) Malandrinum B) Hippozaeninum C) Hippomanes D) Lac vaccininum

23)Remedy prepared from secretion of preputial sac of Beaver

  • A) Moschus B) Cajaputum C) Castoreum D) Pulmo vulpes

24)Inimical remedy of Carbo veg

  • A) Cinchona B) Kreosote C) Carbo animalis D) Cuprum met

25)Remedy with a pronounced action on the inferior maxillary branch of the fifth pair of the cranial nerves

  • A) Chinninum sulph B) Physostigma C) Causticum D) Verbascum

26)According to Boericke, this remedy should be though of in cases with continued high temperature

  • A)Millefolium
  • B)Pyrogen
  • C)Baptisia
  • D)Aconite

27)A Child with asthma has 2 – 3episodes of breathlessness occurring in the same night. The episodes occurred mostly after midnight, and on a few days had severe episodes around 3 am. The child is frightened easily, and asthmatic attacks follow such instances. The parents said that the child was fat earlier, but was now losing weight.

  • A) Thuja B) Kali carb C) Opium D) Sambucus

28)Which among these remedies have dryness of mouth with thirstlessness ?

  • A) Puls, Nux moschata & Rhus tox          B) Puls, Nux moschata &Lachesis
  • C) Puls , Nux moschata & Bryonia           D) Puls, Nux moschata & Chelidonium

29)Match the food desires, aversions and modalities in List-I with Remedies in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I                            List II
(Symptoms)                   (Medicines)

  • A. Fruit >                   1. Ferrum met
  • B. Desire tomatoes     2. Gelsemium.
  • C. Aversion Garlic      3. Lachesis
  • D. Alcoholic drinks >   4. Sabadilla

(a) A B C D
3 1 4 2
(b) A B C D
2 3 4 1
(c) A B C D
2 1 4 3
(d) A B C D
4 3 2 1

30)According to Nash, this remedy is the nearest specific to cholera morbus

  • A) Antim tart B) Secale cor
  • C) Camphor   D) Podophyllum

31)Repertory of fever was written by

  • a. H.C allen b. W.A. allen
  • c. W.J. guernsey d. Lutze

32)Who told “best repertory is that which one makes oneself”

  • a. J.H.Clark b. J.T.kent
  • c. P. schmidt c. Hahnemann

33) In kneer’s repertory hand sign represents what

  • a. toxicological extract             b.cross reference
  • c. pathologiacal condition      d.remedies confirmed

34)Which of the repertory is written by T.F. Allen

  • a. analytical repertory b. symptom repertory
  • c. symptom register    d. an alphabetical repertory

35)Remedy for convulsions when small pox fails to break out

  • a. ant c     b. rhus t
  • c. stram   d. nux v

36)Remedy for pyromania in Boger’s repertory

  • a. ars alb               B. lachesis
  • c. hep sulph        d. belladonna

37) Gluttony is

  • a. hopelessness                                   b. boldness
  • c. insatiable desire for wealth     d. compulsive desire to eat

38) Anaemia is found in which chapter in Kent’s repertory

  • a. eyes                     b. skin
  • c. generalities    d. extremities

39) Remedy for coryza during stool in Kents repertory

  • a. thuja                          b. sulphur
  • c. medorrhinum       d. Tuberculinum

40)Rubric smegma increased is seen in which chapter of Kent’s repertory

  • a. genitalia       b. skin
  • c. urine             d. cough

41)Sit inclination to is seen in which chapter in kents repertory

  • a. generalities     b. mind
  • c. extremities    d. sensations

42) Showing feelings that are not real

  • a. affectionate     b. happiness
  • c. affectation      d. envy

43)Remedy for abortion from excitement in kents repertory

  • a. Sabina     b. caulophyllum
  • c. ignatia    d. Gelsemium

44)Remedy not given in boger’s repertory for nasal polyp

  • a. calc           b. phos
  • c. sang         d. teucrium

45) Rremedy for corrugated nails in kents repertory

  • a. silicea            b. sulphur
  • c. graphitis     d. nat-m

46)Anthrax is seen in which chapter of Kent’s repertory

  • a. skin              b. extremities
  • c. fever           d. generalities

47)Re echoing his own sound is seen in chapter

  • a. ear                         b. hearing
  • c. generalities      d. mind

48) S.T.M.E arrangement in Kent’s repertory is combined by

  • a. Lee                      b. Minerva green
  • c. Gladwin           d. M.L. Tyler

49)No single symptom, no matter how rare and peculiar can strong without the support of well taken case and likeness of whole patient of the remedy. who told this?

  • a. Stuart close        b. Kent
  • c. H.A. Roberts     d. Hahnemann

50)Word rubric comes from which language

  • a. Greeck           b.Ltin
  • c. English         d.German

51)Editorship of aphorisms of Hippocrates is written by

  • a. Boger           b. Boenninghausens
  • c. Kent            d. Hahnemann

52)Rubric children especially remedies for is given in which chapter of boenninghausen’s repertory

  • a. sensations and complaints     b. amelioration
  • c. generalities                                   d. aggravations

53)Abortion is seen in which chapter of boenninghausen’s repertory

  • a. menstruation   b. genitalia female
  • c. sexual organs  d. generalities

54)Rubric childbed is given in which chapter of boger’s repertory

  • a. genitalia female organs  b. sensations and complaints
  • c. aggravation                         d.fever

55)Remedy for nettle rash in boger’s repertory is

  • a. rhus t      b. ars alb
  • c. apis          d. Sepia

56)What is steiss

  • a. fatty stool          b. region of coccyx
  • c. aggravation     d. sensations

57)Remedy for flies from her own children in Kent’s repertory

  • a. lyc         b. sepia
  • c. plat      d. raph

58)Cold breath is seen which chapter of kents repertory

  • a. respiration   b. mouth
  • c. nose               d. face

59)Brittle bones is given in which chapter of kents repertory

  • a. extremities           b. back
  • c. generalities          d. fever

60)Remedy not included under the rubric lean people in kents repertory

  • a. nat-m           b. calc-p
  • c. sulph           d. ambr

61)The median cubital vein is the vein of choice for I V for withdrawing blood from donors and for catheterization because

  • a) It is a long vein                b) doesn’t slip during perceiving
  • c) It is an accessory vein d) It is a deep vein.

62. The arch of aorta lies behind the

  • a) Lower half of manubrium sterni      b) xiphoid process of sternum
  • c) Middle 1/3 rd manubrium sterni    d) Jugular notch

63. The right coronary artery supplies all except

  • a) SA node                                    b) Interatrial septum
  • c) Interventricular septum  d) Apex of heart

64. Diseases of hip may produce referred pain in knee because of

  • a) Femoral & sciatic nerve      b) femoral &obturator nerve
  • c) obturator & sciatic nerve  d) only sciatic nerve.

65) Which nerve is “Musician‘s nerve”?

  • a) Radial nerve        b) ulnar nerve
  • c) median nerve     d) Sciatic nerve

66) Primary motor area of the brain

  • a) Superior temporal gyri  b) Post central gyri
  • c) Pre central gyri                 d) Inferior frontal gyri

67) Pressure sensation is received by

  • a) Krause’s bulb                      b) Pacinian corpuscles
  • c) Meissener’s corpuscles d) Ruffini’s end organs

68) Tissue macrophage in brain are

  • a) Reticulum cells b) neruoglia
  • c) Microglia            d) histiocytes

69) Normal dead space air volume

  • a) 150ml b) 300ml c) 1200ml d) 500ml

70) Stein leventhal syndrome is characterized by

  • a) ↑ LH, ↑Androgen  b) ↑ LH , ↓ Androgen
  • c) ↑ LH, ↓ Androgen d) None of above

71) Spike and dome pattern EEG is seen in

  • a) Petit mal epilepsy b) Grand mal epilepsy
  • c) Akinetic attacks    d) Absence seizures

72) Third heart sound is due to

  • a) closure of mitral and tricuspid valves b) first rapid ventricular filling
  • c) rapid rush of blood into ventricles       d) closure of semilunar valves

73) Starting material for synthesis of cholesterol is

  • a) Acetyl CoA    b) α keto glutaric acid
  • c) Pyruvic acid d) Succinyl CoA

74).Aminoacid excreted in urine in pregnancy

  • a) Cystein b) Methionine
  • c) Histidine d) Ornithine

75)Pain & temperature is carried by

  • a) Anterior spinothalamic b) Lateral spinothalamic
  • c) Rubrospinal                       d) Corticospinal

76) Theca cells secrete

  • a) Testosterone b) Androstenidione
  • c) Progestrone d) Both a&b

77)Retention of Na +, Cl & H2o is due to the hormone

  • a) Corticosterone b) Aldosterone
  • c) Insulin                d) ADH

78) Which is not affected in chronic obstructive lung diseases

  • a) FVC b) RV c) TLC d) ERV

79) Travellers diarrhea is most commonly associated with

  • a) E coli b) Shigella c) Cocci   d) Entamoeba

80) Vibrio cholera are

  • a) Gram –ve rods      b) Gram + rods
  • c) Gram + flagellate d) none of above

81)Oroya fever is caused by

  • a) Bartonella bacilloformis b) Entamoeba histolytica
  • c) Borelia burgdoferi             d) Pneumococcus

82) The most common cause of congenital viral infection

  • a) Cytomegalovirus b) Toxoplasma
  • c) EB virus d) Gonococci

83) Allergic phenomenon due to schistosomiasis is known as

  • a) Katayama syndrome b) Waterhouse-frierdrichson syndrome
  • c) Caplan’s syndrome d) None of above

84) Frei’s test is used in diagnosis of

  • a) Lymphogranuloma venerum
  • b) Tertiary syphilis
  • c) Trichomonas vaginalis
  • d) Chancroid

85) IP of diphtheria is

  • a) 8-14 days b)2-6 days c) 1-6 hours d) 3-6 weeks

86 .Marker for CA breast is

  • a) HCG           b) CA 125
  • c) CA 15-3  d) CEA

87. “Father of Modern pathology” is

  • a) Joseph Lister b) Virchow
  • c) Louis Pasteur d) Herophilus

88. Most sensitive indicator of primary hypothyroidism is

  • a) serum T 3     b)serum T4
  • c) TSH                d) Thyroid scan

89. Onion skin appearance of spleen in

  • a) Amyloidosis    b) SLE
  • c) PSS                      d) Porphyria

90. The most usual site of involvement of polyarteritis nodosa

  • a) Kidney         b) spleen
  • c)liver              d) joints

91. Cobble stone appearance of mucosa is seen in

  • a) Ulcerative colitis               b) Crohn’s disease
  • c) Chronic pancreatitis         d)chronic appendicitis .

92. The most common site for intestinal amoebiasis is

  • a) Ileum                         b) Caecum
  • c) Transverse colon d) Duodenum

93. ‘School of fish’ type of arrangement is seen in

  • a) V.parahaemolyticus b)Pseudomonas mallei
  • c) H.ducreyi                     d) Bordetella parapertussis

94. Framboesia is another name for

  • a) Pinta b) Endemic syphilis
  • c) Yaws d) Any of above

95. Toxic epidermal necrolysis is caused by

  • a) Staphylococci b) Pneumococci
  • c) E.coli                  d) Pseudomonas

96. The commest form of anthrax is

  • a) Ailmentary b) Cutaneous
  • c) Pulmonary d)Hepatic

97. Joule burn is seen in

  • a) Drowning                 b) Electocution
  • c) Datura poisoning d) None of above

98. Rigor mortis first starts in

  • a)Jaw b) upper eyelids c) fingers d)neck

99. Cyanide poisoning produces

  • a) brick red colour b) cherry red colour
  • c) green colour d) black colour

100. Lucid interval is seen in which of the following

  • a) Extra dural haemorrhage b) subdural haemorrhage
  • c) Anxiety neurosis                 d) none of above

101. Marquis test is used to identify

  • a) CO poisoning    b) lead poisoning
  • c) H2S poisoning D) Opium poisoning

102. Lynching is a form of

  • a) suicidal hanging b) homicidal hanging
  • c) throttling              d) none of above

103.Berberin is found in

  • a) berberis vulgaris b)Argemone mexicana
  • c) both of above      d) none of above

104.The method used for separating volatile solid from non-volatile solid is called

  • a) Evaporation b) Sublimation
  • c) Decantation d) Crystallisation

105. Class v of old class deals with

  • a) mother tinctures     b) Alcoholic solutions
  • c) Aqueous solutions d) mother solutions

106. 1 grain powder is equal to

  • a)65 mg b) 80mg c) 90 mg d) 100 mg

107. First pharmacopoeia was published in year

  • a) 1790 b) 1796 c) 1805 d)1825

108. Cephalandra and bryonia belongs to family

  • a) Compositae b) Cucurbitaceae
  • c) Solanaceae d) rubiaceae

109. Digitalis belong to the family

  • a)Compositae b) Scrophluraceae
  • c) solanaceae d) Ranunculaeae

110. Route of administration of drugs is dealt in

  • a)Pharmacognosy  b)pharmacology
  • c) pharmaconomy d) Pharmacoproxy

111.On the —— Dr Hahnemann has got his M D(doctrate of medicine)

  • a)10 th august 1779
  • b) 10 th august 1780
  • c) 10 th august 1781
  • d) 10 th august 1782

112. Dr Samuel Hahnemann has started his practice in

  • a)Hettstedt
  • b) Meissen
  • c)Leipsic
  • d) Earlangen

113)In the year 1816 Hahnemann has written

  • a)Aesculapius in the Balance
  • b)Essay on the effect of coffee
  • c)Essay on treatment of Burns
  • d)Essay on direction for curing old scars and forensic detection

114) Number of medicines described in fragmenta de viribis by dr hahnemann

  • a)23 b)25 c) 27 d) 29

115. Hahnemann has written the book Materia medica Pura during the year

  • a) 1805-1810
  • b)1810-1811
  • c)1811-1821
  • d)1821-1828

116. Which one of following is a contribution by J H Clarke

  • a)Domestic Physician
  • b)A dictionary of domestic medicine
  • c)Homoeopathic Domestic Physician in brief therapeutic Diagnosis
  • d)none

117.Who filled the chair of Materia Medica in the homoeopathic college of Pennsylvania from 1863 -1868.

  • a)Hering        b)Burnett
  • c)von Lippe d) H C allen

118. The book ‘what the doctor needs in order to make a successful prescription’ written by

  • a) Boger     b) Tyler
  • c)Schmidt d) Kent

119. Magic cure of his disease gangrene of forefinger by —– medicine converted the father of American homoeopathy to homoeopathy

  • a)Ars alb     b) Lachesis
  • c) Nit-acid d)None

120. In 1850 Caroll Dunham received the degree of MD from

  • a) Western homoeopathic college at Cleveland
  • b) College of Physicians and surgeons at New York
  • c) New york homoeopathic medical college
  • d) Glasgow university

121. ‘Table of contents’ included in the book Organon for the first time in

  • a) First edition b)Second edn
  • c)Third edn      d) Fifth edn

122. Of the below in which period the manuscript of the 6 th edn of organon was in danger of being lost

  • a) 1870-1871 and 1914-1918
  • b) 1872-1873 and 1919-1923
  • c) 1874-1875 and 1924-1928
  • d) 1876-1877 and 1929-1933

123. The morbid symptoms of the patient suffering from tape worm are generally of such a kind that they are rapidly relieved (Homoeopathically) by the smallest dose of tincture of —-

  • a) Male motherwort b) Male mugwort
  • c) Male musk root     d)male fern root

124. A small globule of the decillionth fold dilution of ——- gives , with abstinence from vegetable acids,so that the most violent pleuritic fever with all its alarming concomitants is changed into health and cured without the least abstraction of blood and without any phlogistic remedy,in a few –at the most in 24 hours.

  • a) Acetic acid b) Bryonia
  • c) Aconite      d) Lachesis

125.Who translated the section first of organon of medicine as follows  ‘The physician’s highest and ONLY calling is to restore health to the sick ,which is called healing’

  • a)Dudgeon b) Von brunnow
  • c) Weihe     d)Wesselhoft

126.Where will u see the term ‘one sided procedure’ in the 5thedn of Organon of medicine

  • a) FN §58
  • b) FN §7
  • C) FN §181
  • D)FN § 102

127. 50 years expeience of this sort is like 50 years of looking into a kaleidoscope filled with unknown coloured objects and perpetually turning round ;thousands of everchanging figures and no accounting for them!

  • a) FN §25
  • b)FN § 80
  • c)FN § 109
  • d)FN § 246

128. No physician ever effected a permanent cure of diseases of considerable or of longstanding unless some homoepathic medicinal agent was accidently a chief ingredient in his prescription.

  • a) § 54
  • b) §61
  • c) §128
  • d) §159

129.In FN of sec 67 Hahnemann recommends coffee, camphor , ipecac for poisoning by

  • a) Mineral acids b) Metallic poison
  • c) Opium              d) None

130. By criminal treason against divine homoeopathy ,Hahnemann means

  • a) Relying on previous experience for treatment
  • b) Alternating 2 medicines
  • c) Local treatment without curing internal miasmatic disease
  • d) Practice at one time homeopathically at another allopathically ,according to the pleasure of patient

131. Hahnemann himself saw the mumps (angina parotidae)immediately disappear when the cow pox inoculation had taken effect .This is an eg for

  • a)Two dissimilar disease meeting together in the human being be of equal strength
  • b)Two dissimilar disease meeting together in the human being the new one is stronger
  • c)Formation of complex disease
  • d)Two similar disease meeting together

132.Where did Hahnemann recommended to note the the state of menstrual discharge in chronic disease of female in 5th edn of organon

  • a) §89 b) FN § 89 c) § 94 d) FN §94

133. Placebo has been pointed out as something of an unmedicinal nature by Hahnemann in

  • a. § 91 b. § 140 c. § 260 d. § 281

134. The medicine must be tested on both males and females in order also to reveal the alterations of the health they produce in the sexual sphere

  • a. § 122 b. § 124 c. § 127 d § 132

135. Most deplorable, most incurable of all chronic disease according to Hahnemann is

  • a. pseudo chronic disease    b. artificial chronic disease
  • c. true chronic disease          d. indisposition

136 the word used by Hahnemann for totality in § 153

  • a. portrait of disease b. totality of symptoms
  • c. complete picture d. collective symptoms

137. Where will you find VERSUCH EINER HOMOOPATHISCHEN TERAPIE DER WECHSELFIERBER

  • a. § 109 b. §153 c. § 183 d. § 235

138.In case of acute disease ,when symptoms are very indistinct hahnemann recommends administration of

  • a) Sulphur b) Aconite c)Opium d) Nux vom

139.In chronic local maladies that are not obviously veneral ——- treatment is more over alone requisite

  • a)Antipsoric external                                     b) Antipsoric internal
  • c)Antipsoric followed by antisyphilitic d) Antisyphilitic followed by antipsoric

140 .In section 201 hahnemann tells that old ulcers in the legs get worse as long as internal—– is uncured.

  • a) psora   b) Syphilis
  • c)Sycosis d) Pseudopsora

141.Even in such as are acutes, observe, along with other symptoms , those relating to the changes in the state of mind and disposition

  • a) 88 b) 90 c) 208 d)213

142. In case of intermittent fever where pyrexia stage is very short, medicine should be administered during

  • a. soon after the termination of paroxysm b. sweat stage
  • c. declining period of paroxysm                     d. heat stage

143. A true homoeopathic physician never gambles with the life of the sick entrusted to him. Here gambling belongs to

  • a. antipathy  b. mineral bath
  • c. magnetism d. galvanism

144. Too violent action produced by employment of the power of magnet for healing may be antidoted by a plate of polished

  • a. tin b. gold c. zinc d. copper

145. A marvelous, priceless, gift of God to mankind according to Hahnemann

  • a. animal magnetism                 b. mineral magnetism
  • c. electricity and galvanism  d. homoeopathy

146.Section §289- §292 of 5th edition of Organon deals with

  • a. pharmacopraxy         b. pharmaconomy
  • c. pharmacodynamics d. pharmacognosy

147. Seven eighth of all chronic disease arise from

  • a. sycosis b. syphilis
  • c. psora    d. pseudopsora

148. The chronic disease that is most easily cured is

  • a. psora     b. syphilis
  • c. sycosis  d. pseudopsora

149. For the other common Gonorrhoea, Hahnemann advices

  • a) Parsley b) Copaiva
  • c) Both     d) Thuja

150. Infectious form of Psora

  • a) vesicular eruption b) Herpes with peculiar itching
  • c) tinea capitis             d) All

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Delhi University MD Homeopathy Entrance 2010 Question Paper

Please do not open this booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator
Time : 2 hours
Maximum marks : 120
Name of the candidate :
Roll number :
Centre of Examination :
Date of examination :
Candidates signature :
Signature of invigilator :

Instructions

  1. Total 120 questions in 28 pages. All questions carry equal marks. There is no negative marking.
  2. Use blue or black ball point pen only for darkening the appropriate circle completely
  3. Rough work is to be done only on the test booklet and not on answer sheet
  4. Make sure that you do not posses any pages ( Blank or Printed) of anu un authorized material. If such material is found in your possession during examination, you will be disqualified for admission
  5. If you are found copying/helping others, you will be disqualified for admission
  6. Candidates found in possession of Cellular phone/Mobile phone/Cordless phone/Communication device/Pager/Scanner whether using or not will be liable to be debarred for taking examinations either permanently or for a specified period and dealt with as per law and ordinance of the university according to the nature of offence, or/and she/he may be proceeded against and shall be liable for prosecution under the relevant provisions of the Indian Penal Code.
  7. At the end of the examination handover the answer sheet to the invigilator
  8. Do not leave the examination hall until you are asked to do so

1) In deltoid paralysis which nerve is involved?

  • a) Circumflex nerve
  • b) Musculocutanoeus nerve
  • c) Axillary nerve
  • d) Radial nerve

2) Ca prostate commonly occurs in the……. lobe

  • a)  Anterior
  • b)  Posterior
  • c)  Lateral
  • d)  Medial

3) Length of male adult urethra is

  • a)   20 cm
  • b)   10 cm
  • c)   4 cm
  • d)   15 cm

4) Horner syndrome is produced due to  pressure on

  • a) Stellate ganglion
  • b) Spinal cord
  • c) Parasympathetic ganglion
  • d) Celiac ganglion

5) Rupture of supraspinatus manifest as

  • a) Painful movements
  • b) Difficulty in initiation of abduction
  • c) Difficult abduction after 90 degree
  • d) Flat shoulder

6) Function of thalamus is

  • a) Relay centre
  • b) Arousal
  • c) Pain perception
  • d) Pain localization

7) The receptors of pain is

  • a) Ruffini organs
  • b) Meckel bodies
  • c) Golgi bodies
  • d) Free nerve endings

8) Which structure in the eye is pain sensitive

  • a) Iris
  • b) Choroid
  • c) Ciliary body
  • d) All

9) One of the following is function of hypothalamus-

  • a) Swallowing
  • b) Vomiting
  • c) Respiration
  • d) Homoeostasis of temp

10) The fourth heart sound is caused by

  • a) Closure of aortic and pulmonary orifices
  • b) Vibrations of ventricular valve during systole
  • c) Biventricular filling
  • d) Closure of mitral and tricuspid orifices

11) Each kidney contains about _____ nephrons

  • a) 1 million’
  • b) 2 million
  • c) 4 million
  • d) Half million

12) Brain fingerprinting

  • a)  Used as lie detector
  • b)  Used by EEG on lead
  • c)  Used for quantitative measurement for sulci and gyri
  • d)  Used by DNA

13) Highest concentration of vitamin c in the body is found in the

  • a)  Liver
  • b)  Kidney
  • c)  Adrenal cortex
  • d)  Spleen

14) Normal value of BUN

  • a) 20-40 mg/dl
  • b) 40-60 mg/dl
  • c) 8-16 mg/dl
  • d) 10-20 mg/dl

15) The activities of all the following enzymes are increased in starvation except

  • a) Pyruvate kinase
  • b) Pyruvate carboxylase
  • c) Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
  • d) Glucose 6 phosphatase

16) Hidraadenitis suppurativa is found in

  • a) Sebaceous glands
  • b) Hair follicles
  • c) Eccrine glands
  • d) Apocrine glands

17) Alkaline phosphatase levels are elevated in all the following except

  • a) Brain tumors
  • b) Obstructive jaundice
  • c) Bone tumors
  • d) Placental tumors

18) Rickets is due to

  • a) Loss of calcium in urine
  • b) Increased mobilization of calcium from bone
  • c) Decreased absorption of calcium
  • d) Loss of phosphate in urine

19) Complications of bronchiectasis are all except

  • a) Septicemia
  • b) Ca bronchus
  • c) Lung abscess
  • d) Cerebral abscess

20) The endocrinal disorders associated with generalized lymphadenopathy is

  • a) Hyperthyroidism
  • b) Addison disease
  • c) Cushing syndrome
  • d) Carcinoid syndrome

21) Skin cancer which occur due to exposure of light is

  • a) Melanoma
  • b) Squamous cell carcinoma
  • c) Kaposis sarcoma
  • d) None

Q22) Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS in india

  • a) Toxoplasmosis
  • b) Cryptococcosis
  • c) Cryptosporidiosis
  • d) Tuberculosis

23) Culture media for fungus is

  • a) Tellurite medium
  • b) NNN medium
  • c) Chocolate agar medium
  • d) Sabourads medium

24) All are seen in cyst of entamoeba histloytica except

  • a)  Glycogen mass
  • b)  Cromidial bars
  • c)  Eccentric nucleus
  • d)  Refractile nucleus

25) Winterbottoms sign in sleeping sickness refres to

  • a) Unilateral conjunctivitis
  • b) Posterior cervical lymphadenopathy
  • c) Narcolepsy
  • d) Transient erythema

26) The cycle of malarial parasite is the sequence of

  • 1)   Exoerythrocytic stage
  • 2)   Gametocytic stage
  • 3)   Erythrocytic stage
  • 4)   Sporogony
  • a)      1234
  • b)      1324
  • c)       1423
  • d)      1432

27) Opium poisoning produces ______ types of respiration

  • a)  Rapid and shallow
  • b)  Rapid and deep
  • c)  Shallow
  • d)  Diaphragmatic

28) Almond like bitter smell is positive in

  • a)  Chloral hydrate poisoning
  • b)  Hydrocyanic acid
  • c)  Hydrocyanic poisoning
  • d)  Oleander poisoning

29) Which of the following is used in forgeries as an ink removal solution

  • a)  Sulphuric acid
  • b)  Nitric acid
  • c)  Carbolic acid
  • d)  Oxalic acid

30) All of the following causes constriction of pupil except

  • a) Dhatura
  • b) Morphine
  • c) Organophosphorus poisoning
  • d) Pontine haemorrhage

31) Govannetti diet is used in

  • a) Hepatic coma
  • b) Obesity
  • c) Renal failure
  • d) Diabetes

32) In ca prostate with hemostasis which is raised

  • a) ESR
  • b) Alkaline phosphatase
  • c) Acid phosphatase
  • d) Bilrubin

33) Hormone dependent tumors are all except

  • a)      Ca prostate
  • b)      Ca breast
  • c)      Ca endometrium
  • d)      Ca ovary

34) Patient of heparin therapy should be monitored with

  • a)      Clotting time
  • b)      Bleeding time
  • c)      Prothrombin time
  • d)      Fibrinogen assay

35) People eating seafood diet have

  • a)      High prostacyclin
  • b)      High thromboxane A2
  • c)      Low thromboaxane A2
  • d)      Low prostacyclin

36) All are seen in emphysema except

  • a)      Decrease vital capacity
  • b)      Hyperinflation
  • c)      Ronchi
  • d)      Damage to alveoli

37) Most common precipitating factors for COPD

  • a)      Environment
  • b)      Smoking
  • c)       Allergen
  • d)      All

38) Which one of the following clinical features suggest alcoholism as cause of liver cirrhosis

  • a)      Spider angioma
  • b)      Ascitis
  • c)       Absence of ankle jerk
  • d)      Gynaecosmastia

39) Which of the following is not a feature of ketoacidosis

  • a)      Hyperventilation
  • b)      Abdominal pain
  • c)       Hypotension
  • d)      Bradycardia

40) A muscle biopsy is useful in the diagnosis all of the following except

  • a)      Forbe disease
  • b)      Pompe disease
  • c)      Von gierke disease
  • d)      Mac ardle disease

41) The most common cause of hydrocephalus in children is

  • a)      Posterior fossa tumors
  • b)      Congenital malformations
  • c)       Complicatiosn of meningitis
  • d)      Rupture of intracranial aneurysm

42) Bilateral facial palsy is seen in

  • a)      Myasthenia grevis
  • b)      Guillan barre
  • c)       Muscular dystrophy
  • d)      Duchenne muscular dystrophy

43) The phenomenon of sparing of macula is due to the collateral circulation of

  • a)      Middle and posterior cerebral arteries
  • b)      Anterior and middle cerbralarteries
  • c)       Anterior and posterior cerebral arteries
  • d)      Anterior, middle and posterior cerebral arteries

44) Autism is

  • a)      Neurodevelopmental disorder
  • b)      Social and language communication problem
  • c)       Metabolic disease
  • d)      Mainly due to hypothalamus damage

45) Hyperkinetic disorder is characterized by all axcept

  • a)      Impulsivity
  • b)      Distractibility
  • c)       Hyperactivity
  • d)      Hallucination

46) First sign after radiation therapy

  • a)      Erythema
  • b)      Necrosis
  • c)      Burns
  • d)      Deep ulcer

47) In aortic dissection the investigation of choice is

  • a)      ECG
  • b)      CT scan
  • c)      Aortography
  • d)      MRI scan

48) Most common muscle involoved in lower leg in polio is

  • a)      Anterior tibialis
  • b)      Posterior tibialis
  • c)      Extensor pollicis longus
  • d)      Flexor pollicis longus

49) In psoriatic arthropathy the characteristic joint involoved is

  • a)      Proximal interphalangeal joint
  • b)      Distal inetrphalangeal joint
  • c)      Metacarpophalangeal joint
  • d)      Wrist joint

50) Multiload device contains

  • a)      Zinc
  • b)      Copper
  • c)      Progesterone
  • d)      Silver

51) Demophraphic gap means

  • a)      Difference between birth and death rates
  • b)      Differnec between age specific birth and deatn rates
  • c)       Difference in sex ratio
  • d)      Difference in child women ratio

52) Commonest cause of death in ca cervixis

  • a)      Septicemia
  • b)      Haemorrhage
  • c)       Cahexia
  • d)      Renal failure

53) Which is the commonest ovarian tumor to undergo torsion

  • a)      Mucinous cystadenoma
  • b)      Srous cystadenoma
  • c)      Dermoid
  • d)      Brenner tumor

54) All are true about lepromatous leprosy except

  • a)      Presence of globi
  • b)      Subepidermal free zone
  • c)      Decreased cell mediated immunity
  • d)      Presence of granulomas epidermally

55) Gonococcus is

  • a)      Extracellular gram positive
  • b)      Intracytoplasmic gram positive
  • c)      Intracytoplasmic gram negative
  • d)      Intranuclear gram positive

56) The appropriate sign and symptoms of zinc deficiency

  • a)      Night blindness, keratosis of skin
  • b)      Glucose intolerance, peripheral neuropathy
  • c)       Alopecia, seborrhoeic dermatitis, neuritis
  • d)      Poor wound healing, impaired immunity

57)Tthe commonest cause of hoarseness of voice in elderly man of more than 3 months duration

  • a)      Acute laryngitis
  • b)      Ca larynx
  • c)      Chronic bronchitis
  • d)      Nodular goiter

58) Tracheostomy is indicated in all except

  • a)      Tracheal stenosis
  • b)      Uncomplicated bronchial asthma
  • c)       Bilateral vocal cord palsy
  • d)      Forign body in larynx

59) The most common cause of gastric outlet obstruction in India is

  • a)      Tuberculosis
  • b)      Ca stomach
  • c)      Duodenal lymphoma
  • d)      Peptic ulcer disease

60) Malignancy of testis most commonly occurs in

  • a)      Klinefilters disease
  • b)      Testicular feministaion syndrome
  • c)       Abdominal undescened testis
  • d)      Fliariasis

61) Which of the following miasm has the symptom- desire for cold food

  • a)      Psora
  • b)      Sycosis
  • c)       Syphilis
  • d)      Tubercular

62) The modus operandi of homeopathic medicine is explained in organon medicine

  •       a)26
  •       b)25
  •       c)29
  •       d)39

63) Dr Samuel Hahnemann has given ideas about case taking in

  • a)      1-70
  • b)      71-82
  • c)       83-104
  • d)      105-145

64) Action of the medicine upon prover is the _____ observation of kent

  •         a) 10
  •         b) 9
  •         c) 7
  •         d) 6

65) surrogates are

  • a)      Homoeopathic medicines
  • b)      Substitute medicines
  • c)       Allopathic medicines
  • d)      Antipathic medicine

66) Two dissimilar diseases when both are of chronic character and of equal strength meeting together in the human being will cause

  • a)      A new one will be repelled by the old one
  • b)      Old one to be suspended by the new one
  • c)      Complex disease
  • d)      Neutralization by each other

67) According  to stuart close, constitution of an individual develops as a result of the following

  • a) interaction between hereditary and environmental factors
  • b) interaction between simple substance and medicine
  • c) interaction between simple substance and disease
  • d) none

68) Acc to———-sycosis is contagious disease which results from suppression of chronic gonorrhea

  • a)      Hahnemann
  • b)      J T kent
  • c)       J H allen
  • d)      Stuart close

69) By which methods Hahnemann got the idea of similia similibus curentur

  •       a) deduction
  •       b) induction
  •       c) generalistaion
  •       d) individualization

70) Of the below which is correct

  • a)      Theory of vital force and drug dynamisation was elaborated first in 5th edition of organon
  • b)      Theory of vital force and drug dynamisation was elaborated first in 4 th edition of organon
  • c)       Theory of vital force and drug dynamisation was elaborated first in 3rd edition of organon
  • d)      Theory of vital force and drug dynamisation was elaborated first in 2nd edition of organon

71) of the below which is the suitable method to obtain the pathogenitic power of the drugs

  • a)      Animal experiments
  • b)      Experiments on plants
  • c)       Experiments on diseased person
  • d)      Experiment by the doctors taking the medicine internally

72) how many aphorisms are present in the 4 th edition of organon of medicine

  •       a)  292
  •       b)  320
  •       c)  259
  •       d)  318

73) the friend of health was written by

  • a)      Hahnemann
  • b)      Kent
  • c)      Park
  • d)      Socrates

74) the subjects of anatomy, physiology are not only life but only result of life is said by

  •     a) Dunham
  •     b) Close
  •     c) Kent
  •     d) Hahnemann

75) psychotherapy is indicate din which type of the following mental diseases

  • a)      Mental diseases originating from corporeal diseases
  • b)      Mental diseases of recent origin arsing from psychogenic causes
  • c)       Sudden outburst of insanity
  • d)      Mental diseases having physical or mental causes which are difficult to be ascertained

76) a patient suffers from asthma, can inspire but cannot expire , has severe suffocation relieved by lying on face and protruding tongue.however the frequency and the severity of suffocative attacks are remarkably less during his visit and stay with his son at coastal city.which one of the following is the likely remedy

  • a)      Bromium
  • b)      Medorrinum
  • c)       Corallium rub
  • d)      Asr alb

77) glonoine is drug prepared from

  • a)      Glycerine trichloride
  • b)      Triglycerides
  • c)       Nitroglycerin
  • d)      Benzene

78) most difficult task in a case recording is to obtain

  • a)      Individualizing characteristic symptoms
  • b)      Common symptoms
  • c)       Physical symptoms
  • d)      Mental symptoms

79) the source of theridion is

  • a)      White Cuban spider
  • b)      Cuban spider
  • c)      Spanish spider
  • d)      Orange spider

80) the condition which can affect or modify a symptom is called

  • a)      Aggravation
  • b)      Amelioration
  • c)      Modality
  • d)      Causa occasionalis

81) toothache from tobacco smoking is a symptom of

  • a)      Tabacum
  • b)      Nux vomica
  • c)      Coffea
  • d)      Spigellia

82) vomiting of any position except lying on the right side is a characteristic feature of

  • a)      Ars alb
  • b)      Bismuth
  • c)      Ipecac
  • d)      None

83) a patient is suffering from tonsillitis with a very offensive smell from the mouth.he can swallow liquid food, but solid food causes choking with no pain in the throat.which one of the following is the likely remedy

  • a)      Phytolacca
  • b)      Merc sol
  • c)      Baptisia tinct
  • d)      Baryta carb

84)  A 26 yr old man has premature graying of hair, he remains under constant mental strain.which one of the following is likely remedy for him

  •     a) Calcarea fluor
  •     b) Calcarea phos
  •     c) Lycopodium
  •     d) Calcarea sulphuricum

85) A patient cannot walk with eyes closed , trembles with general debility, has paralysis with mental and abdominal symptoms, has rigidity of calves with debility, walks and stands unsteady especially when unobserved.has numbness in arms and post diptheritic paralysis.remedy suitable for this patient is

  • a)      Gelsemium
  • b)      Causticum
  • c)      Chamomilla
  • d)      Argentums nitricum

86) Irresistible desire to talk in rhymes is the markes feature of

  • a)      Thuja
  • b)      Stramomium
  • c)      Lachesis
  • d)      Antim crudum

87) Craving for milk is found in

  • a)      Rhus tox and aethusa cynapium
  • b)      Sabadilla and natrum carb
  • c)       Rhustox and sabadilla
  • d)      Rhustox and natrum carb

88) Acc to william boericke, psorinum patient does not improve while using

  • a)      Coffee
  • b)      Cigarettes
  • c)       Tea
  • d)      Opium

89) During collapse, the body surface is cold to touch yet the patient cannot bear the covering this sia symptom of

  • a)      Camphor
  • b)      Medorrhinum
  • c)       Secale cor
  • d)      All

90) Which of the following drugs carves sympathy from others

  • a)      Ignatia
  • b)      Natrum mur
  • c)       Pulsatilla
  • d)      Arnica Montana

91) Which of the following medicine cannot tolerate tea

  •      a) Ars alb
  •      b) Natrum carb
  •      c) Arg nit
  •      d) Nux vom

92) Best tonic for debility after exhausting diseases-

  •      a) China
  •      b) Selenium
  •      c) Avena Sativa
  •      d) Psorinum

93.Painful cracks of the corners of the mouthwith cancer of the stomach-

  •      a) Nitric Acid
  •      b) Bismuth
  •      c) Antum Crudum
  •      d) Condurango

94.Which medicine is good for sterility due to atrophy of ovaries-

  •     a) Kali  brom
  •     b) Iodum
  •     c) Sepia
  •     d) Xanthoxylum

95) Vomiting of dark olive green colour during pregnancy is a feature of

  • a)      Carbolic acid
  • b)      Ipecac
  • c)      Sepia
  • d)      Symphocarpus

96) Complaints after eating melons and drinking impur water as per boericke

  • a)      Zingeber
  • b)      Pyrogen
  • c)      Dulcamara
  • d)      Nat sulph

97) Of the below which require change in diet regulations

  • a)      Indisposition
  • b)      Allopathic bungling
  • c)       Chronic disease
  • d)      Surgical disease

98) Which one of the following is the correct remedy for caries of fibula

  • a)      Acid fluor
  • b)      Sil
  • c)       Hepar sulph
  • d)      Calendula

99) Nitric acid is complementary to

  • a)      Ars alb
  • b)      Caldium
  • c)      Both
  • d)      None

100) who is the editor of synthesis repertory

  •     a)      Fredrick shroyens
  •     b)      George vithoukas
  •     c)      Hahnemann
  •     d)      Julian Winston

101)acridity and putridity of all the discharges from the mucus membrane is the keynote symptom of

  • a)      Kresote
  • b)      Lachesis
  • c)       Nitric acid
  • d)      All

102)Repertory of modalities was published in the year 1880 by

  •        a) Worcester
  •        b) Kent
  •        c) Lippe
  •        d) Boericke

103) Author of sensation as if

  • a)      Hahnemann
  • b)      H a Roberts
  • c)      W A Allen
  • d)      Boeninnghausen

104) Analytical repertory of hering was published in

  •     a)1881
  •     b)1825
  •     c)1870
  •     d)1921

105) Concordance repertories are those

  • a)      Written in provers language
  • b)      That do not have alphabetical arrangements of chapters and rubrics
  • c)      That do not contain rubrics
  • d)      Having a definite philosphoical background

106) In kents repertory shaving aggravates is found in th chapter

  • a)      Face
  • b)      Skin
  • c)      Generalities
  • d)      Conditions

107) Largest chapter in Kent’s repertory

  • a)      Mind
  • b)      Extremoities
  • c)      Generalities
  • d)      Genitalia

108) The word rubric originated from the word

  • a)      Rubra
  • b)      Rubus
  • c)      Rubera
  • d)      Rubrika

109) Necrosis of bones in kenta repertory is in chapter

  • a)      Generalities
  • b)      Extremities
  • c)      Both
  • d)      None

110) Hiccup after alcoholic drinks in kents repertory indicates

  • a)      Sulphuric acid
  • b)      Ranunculsos bulbosus
  • c)       Nux vom
  • d)      Lyco

111) Mind chapter in kent repertory was prepared by

  • a)      Lippe
  • b)      Lee
  • c)       Kent
  • d)      Mithel

112)Repertory of cough and expectoration by lee and clarcke is published in the year

  •      a)1878
  •      b)1884
  •      c)1865
  •      d)1892

113) A repertory of comparative material medica is made by

  • a)      Hering
  • b)      Hempel
  • c)      Bryant
  • d)      Lippe

114) BTPB was written in which language

  • a)      Latin
  • b)      English
  • c)       Greek
  • d)      German

115) Under mind section of BTPB undue importance is given to which drug

  • a)      Natrum mur
  • b)      Pulsatilla
  • c)       Verbescum
  • d)      Veratrum album

116) Relationship of remedies is a chapter named by

  • a)      T F Allen
  • b)      Boenninhausen
  • c)      Roberts
  • d)      None

117) Doctrine of causation and time is a fundamental concept of which repertory

  • a)      BTPB
  • b)      Kent
  • c)      Synthetic
  • d)      BBCR

118) Who is the father of clinical repertory

  •    a) Bogar
  •    b) Jahr
  •    c) Allen
  •    d) None

119) Night blooming cereus is the name for

  • a)      Helianthus
  • b)      Cactus grandiflorus
  • c)      Calendula
  • d)      Chamomilla

120) Santonine is active principle of

  • a)      Belladonna
  • b)      Santalum album
  • c)      Cina
  • d)      Puls

Download Answer Key : www.similima.com/pdf/delhi-university-md-2010-key.pdf

Prepared by Dr.Anil.K & Dr.Jithesh T.K. Authors ”Crack the Entrance”

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West Bengal PSC Homoeopathy Medical Officer Examinations 2010

Time allowed: 1 hour 30 minutes
Full marks : 200
Answer all the questions
Questions are of equal value
Test Booklet Series – A  

Candidates should read the following instructions carefully before answering the questions:

1. This booklet consists of 12 pages including this front page. Verify the Page Nos. and Test Booklet Series on each page and bring at once to the Invigilator’s notice any discrepancy.

2. Answers will have to be given in the Special Answer-Sheet supplied for the purpose.

3. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer-Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer-Sheet as per instructions sent to you in the Admit Card. Do not fold the Answer-Sheet as this will result in error in your marks.

4.All questions are of multiple-choice answer-type. You will find four probable answers (A), (B), (C) and (D) against each question. Find out which of the four answers appears to be correct or the best. Now darken the oval corresponding to the letter of the selected answer in the Answer-Sheet with Black Ball Point Pen as per instructions printed in the Admit Card and in the Answer-Sheet.

5. If more than one oval is encoded for a particular answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer.

6.There will be negative marking for wrong answers. Each question carries 2 marks. A deduction of 2/3 mark will be made for each wrong answer.

7. There are blank pages at the end of this booklet for Rough Work.

8. Work as fast and as carefully as you can. There are 100 questions.

9. The Special Answer-Sheet should be handed over to the, Invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall, You are permitted to take away the used Test Booklet after completion of the examination. 

1. Homoeopathic Pharmacopoeia first published in the year

  • (A) 1795
  • (B) 1825
  • (C) 1802
  • (D) 1798

2. When passing flatus, sensation as if stool would pass with it. Awkward, hasty, drops things from nervous weakness

  • (A) Apis Mellifica
  • (B) Bovista
  • (C) Aloe Socotrina
  • (D) Natrum Muriaticum

3. Normal level of Creatinine in the blood serum is

  • (A)1.2-2.4 mg %
  • (B) 0.8-2.6 mg %
  • (C) 0.2-3.2 mg %
  • (D) 0.6-1.2 mg %

4. Mention preventive medicine for Japanese Encephalitis on the following symptoms.-Nocturnal aggravation, restless, fear of death, anxiety, thirsty, headache better by cold, other symptoms worse

  • (A) Aconite-Nap
  • (B) Arsenic-Alb
  • (C) Gelsemium
  • (D) Bryonia-Alb

5. Placebo is discussed in the organon in the aphorism

  • (A) § 270
  • (B) § 272
  • (C) § 280
  • (D) § 281

6. Music is unbearable, makes her sad during menses

  • (A) Sabina
  • (B) Natrum Carbonicum
  • (C) Aurum Metallicum
  • (D) Aconitum Napellus

7. `Law of simplex’ means

  • (A) Similar medicine
  • (B) Single medicine
  • (C) Simple medicine
  • (D) Single medicine in simple form

8. Mental confusion, cannot find the right word for anything. Rash before the menses

  • (A) Conium Maculatum
  • (B) Bovista
  • (C) Zincum Metallicum
  • (D) Dulcamara

9. Half homoeopathic remedy is

  • (A) Half dram homoeopathic medicine
  • (B) Half pound homoeopathic medicine
  • (C) The form and appearance homoeopathic but selection and application unhomoeopathic
  • (D) Allopathic drug

10. Tabacum is under the family of

  • (A) Polygonaceae
  • (B) Ericaceae
  • (C) Umbelliferae
  • (D) Solanaceae

11. Which one of the following do not take part in the boundary of Inguinal triangle?

  • (A) Lateral border of Rectus abdominis
  • (B) Inguinal ligament
  • (C) Linea Semilunaris
  • (D) Inferior epigastric artery

12. Maximum absorption of water takes place in

  • (A) Collecting tubules
  • (B) Loop of Henle
  • (C) Proximal convoluted tubule
  • (D) Distal convoluted tubule

13. Adapted to indolent, “weary” persons; Averse to either mental or physical labor. Itch appears each year, as winter approaches

  • (A) Hepar Sulphuris
  • (B) Rumex Crispus
  • (C) Aloe Socotrina
  • (D) Graphites

14. What is not the criteria of 2nd prescription?

  • (A) After the 1st  prescription that has acted
  • (B) The 1st  prescription is always a right one
  • (C) The 1st  prescription may be right or wrong
  • (D) Sufficient time has been passed after the first prescription and produce some changes in the patient

15. The natural order of podophyllum peltatum is

  • (A) Berberidaceae
  • (B) Liliaceae
  • (C) Umbelliferae
  • (D) Ranunculaceae

16. Medicine for after effects of eating decayed food, drinking alcohol and polluted water with symptoms of vomiting, purging, weakness, restless, frequent thirst

  • (A) Arsenic-Alb
  • (B) Baptisia
  • (C) Nux-Vom
  • (D) Pulsatilla

17. Vertigo, sensation as if falling to the left. Pains come quickly and go away as quickly

  • (A) Colocyrithis
  • (B) Eupatorium Perfoliatum
  • (C) Belladona
  • (D) Magnesia Phosphorica

18. Promotes expulsion of retained placenta due to atony of uterus with constant urging to urinate. Burning, cutting pains in urethra with increased sexual desire

  • (A) Arnica-Mont
  • (B) Belladona
  • (C) Cantharis
  • (D) Murex

19. The 8th cranial nerve is

  • (A) Abducent
  • (B) Facial
  • (C) Vagus
  • (D) Auditory

20. Habitat of Acalypha indica is

  • (A) England
  • (B) America
  • (C) Germany
  • (D) India

21. Which is not the characteristic symptom?

  • (A) Key-notes symptom
  • (B) Negative general symptom
  • (C) Determinative symptom
  • (D) Basic symptom

22. Sudden flushes of heat, followed by great nervous weakness and irregular intermitting pulse, occurring at the climacteric by least motion. Fatal syncope may occur when being raised to upright position

  • (A) Lachesis
  • (B) Sulphur
  • (C) Cinchona
  • (D) Digitalis Purpurea

23. Postpartum Haemorrhage due to atony of uterus after prolonged malhandled labour with soreness in abdomen

  • (A) Arnica-Mont
  • (B) Caulophyllum
  • (C) China-Off
  • (D) Sepia

24. Great soreness of all the parts upon which one lies. Aggravation lying on affected side

  • (A) Nux Moschata
  • (B) Baptisia Tinctoria
  • (C) Pyrogen
  • (D) Arnica Montana

25. Sundew is the common name of

  • (A) Sabadilla
  • (B) Sarsaparilla
  • (C) Drosera
  • (D) Thlaspi bursa pastoris

26. The principles of diet during homoeopathic treatment should be based on except

  • (A) Considering the minuteness of the doses everything must be removed from the diet and regimen which can have any medicinal action
  • (B) Suitable, nutritious, unmedicinal food and drink are to be taken by the patient
  • (C) In all acute diseases, the diet should be given according to patient’s urgent desire
  • (D) The desire of the patient affected by an acute disease with regard to food and drink is certainly, chiefly for things that give palliative relief

27. What medicine you prefer to prescribe in uric acid diathesis with blue urine, joint pain, nausea?

  • (A) Ars-Alb
  • (B) Benzoic Acid
  • (C) Bryonia-Alb
  • (D) Colchicum

28. In a chronic alcoholic patient all the following may be seen in the liver except

  • (A) Fatty degeneration
  • (B) Chronic hepatitis
  • (C) Granuloma formation
  • (D) Cholestatic hepatitis

29. Haemorrhages; blood oozes from mouth, nose, anus or sexual organs; black, thick, tar like, rapidly decomposing. When Arsenicum or the best selected remedy fails to relieve the burning pain of carbuncle or malignant ulceration

  • (A) Lachesis
  • (B) Apis Mellifica
  • (C) Anthracinum
  • (D) Crotalus Horridus

30. Drugs which are prepared from the morbid product are called

  • (A) Drugs
  • (B) Medicines
  • (C) Sarcodes
  • (D) Nosodes

31. Acute hydrocephalus, with open sutures; stupor, sight of one eye lost; constant and voluntary motion of one arm and one leg. Excretions diminished, specially urine and sweat

  • (A) Bryonia Alba
  • (B) Apocynum Cannabinum
  • (C) Zincum Metallicum
  • (D) Apis Mellifica

32. Labour pains-violent, spasmodic caused urging to stool or to urinate in irritable patient

  • (A) Cantharis
  • (B) Nux-Vom
  • (C) Pulsatilla
  • (D) Sulphur

33. Which one is right?

  • (A) There is no specific remedy in homoeopathy (B) There is specific remedy to the disease in homoeopathy
  • (C) There is specific remedy to the case of disease in homoeopathy
  • (D) There is specific remedy to a person in homoeopathy

34. Hammering headache from exposed to sun better by perspiration. Great debility and emaciation while living

well in constipated patient. Mention the medicine

  • (A) Belladona
  • (B) Bryonia
  • (C) Nat-Mur
  • (D) Pulsatilla

35. From which triturated potency the drug is converted to liquid potency

  • (A) 4x
  • (B) 6x
  • (C) 8x
  • (D) 12x

36. What is not the character of typical intermittent disease?

  • (A) A morbid state of unvarying character
  • (B) The morbid state returns at a ,tolerably fixed period
  • (C) The pattern is typically found in febrile intermittent disease only
  • (D) In between the two outbreaks, the patient appears to be in good health

37. Traumatic Chronic neuritis; neuralgia of stump after amputation; burning and stinging pains. Aggravates predominantly in the evening and in warm room

  • (A) Pulsatilla
  • (B) Sulphur
  • (C) Carbo Animalis
  • (D) Allium Cepa

38. Rheumatism of the shoulder joint, or at insertion of deltoid-worse from raising arm laterally and at night better by daybreak. Used to wash hands several times even it is clean. There is hereditary tendency to alcoholism. Mention the medicine

  • (A) Pulsatilla
  • (B) Rhus-Tox
  • (C) Ruta-G
  • (D) Syphilinum

39. Severe left sided inframammary pains. Heart troubles from reflex symptoms of uterus or overies. Heart’s action ceases suddenly; impending suffocation; palpitation from least motion

  • (A) Digitalis Purpurea
  • (B) Ustilago
  • (C) Actaea Racemosa
  • (D) Glonoine

40. The meaning of the abbreviation O.m is used in prescription writing

  • (A) Every morning
  • (B) Morning and Evening
  • (C) Only in the morning
  • (D) Alternate day morning

41. Caries of mastoid, Bloody Saliva, Old people with great weakness and diarrhoea

  • (A) Aurum Met
  • (B) Mere S
  • (C) Acid Nit
  • (D) Baryta C

42. The cause is known when questioned privately to the patient or when carefully interrogated. They are causes of a disgraceful character. What is the actual name of the cause?

  • (A) Exciting cause
  • (B) Maintaining cause
  • (C) Obvious cause
  • (D) Fundamental cause

43. Mastitis-pain worse least jar in Galactorrhoea helps to dry up breast milk in very forgetful patient with history of alternating sides tonsilar pain

  • (A) Asafoetida
  • (B) Bufo
  • (C) Lac-caninum
  • (D) Lycopodium

44. Which is not the character of epidemic intermittent fever?

  • (A) It is of the nature of chronic disease
  • (B) It is composed of single acute paroxysm
  • (C) It occurs in situations where none are endemic
  • (D) Patients (in an epidemic) who are suffering from developed psora are affected and show their individual peculiarity

45. Preparation of Mother tincture of Thuja occ is underclass of

  • (A) I
  • (B) II
  • (C) III
  • (D) IV

46. In Appendicities-pain in right iliac fossa worse by slightest touch, during sleep, in morning of haemorrhagic diathesis patient. Suggest the medicine

  • (A) Arnica-Mont
  • (B) Belladona
  • (C) Lachesis
  • (D) Lycopodium

47. Rheumatic affections, with contraction of the flexors and stiffness of the joints; tension and shortening of muscles. Must move constantly but motion does not relieve. It affects the right side most prominently

  • (A) Ammonium Muriaticum
  • (B) Cimex
  • (C) Guaiacum
  • (D) Causticum

48. Palliation is done by homoeopathic medicine following

  • (A) Law of contrary
  • (B) Law of similia
  • (C) Law of simplex
  • (D) All of the above

49. Prolapsed and indurated uterus from over-reaching or straining; Vascular Cornea

  • (A) Rhus Tox
  • (B) Con Mac
  • (C) Aurum Met
  • (D) Ruta G

50. Should never be given in syphilis; always aggravates the condition. The medicine is¬

  • (A) Syphilinum
  • (B) Aurum Met
  • (C) Ferrum Met
  • (D) Mere Sol

51. Acute idiosyncrasy is due to

  • (A) Acute miasm
  • (B) Chronic miasm
  • (C) Telluric cause
  • (D) Mateoric cause

52. Puerperal mania-very suspicious, talkative,obscene, lascivious, uncovers private parts, jealous, great hilarity, laughing mania

  • (A) Belladona
  • (B) Hyoscyamus
  • (C) Lachesis
  • (D) Sepia

53. Varicose veins and ulcers, obstinate long standing cases, in women who have borne many children having increased ability to exercise without danger. She is having cavities in tooth and likes cold drinks. Who is she?

  • (A) Acid-Fluor
  • (B) Arnica-Mont
  • (C) Coca
  • (D) Phosphorus

54. `Take the minimum symptoms of maximum importance’ is said by

  • (A) Dr. P. Schmidt
  • (B) Dr. Stapf
  • (C) Dr. Weir
  • (D) Dr. Gross

55. This medicine antidotes the bad effects of mercury

  • (A) Podophyllum
  • (B) Rhus Tox
  • (C) Ledum P
  • (D) Anacardium

56. Heels and balls of feet tender; time passes too slowly

  • (A) Stron C
  • (B) Medorrhinum
  • (C) Can Sat
  • (D) Lac Can

57. `Happy-go-lucky’ operation is written in Organon of Medicine in aphorism No.

  • (A) 37
  • (B) 51
  • (C) 59
  • (D) 156

58. Which is not true?

  • (A) Susceptibility is prior to contagion
  • (B) Psora is the sole fundamental cause of all chronic maladies
  • (C) The state of the disposition of the patient often chiefly determines the selection of the homceopathic remedy
  • (D) None of the above

59. Inactivity of rectum, even soft stool requires great straining. After lead poisoning, of emigrants

  • (A) Alumina
  • (B) Platina
  • (C) Silicea
  • (D) Ledum Palustre

60. All of them belong to Solanaceae except

  • (A) Dulcamara
  • (B) Stramonium
  • (C) Capsicum
  • (D) Veratrum Alb

61. A patient of post surgical operations; having stinging, smarting. Pains like the cutting of knife with history of onanism. Mention the medicine

  • (A) Arnica-Mont
  • (B) Chamomilla
  • (C) Nitric-Acid
  • (D) Staphisagria

62. Selection of potency depends on

  • (A) Susceptibility of the patient
  • (B) Nature, intensity, stage, duration and seat of the disease
  • (C) Previous treatment
  • (D) All of the above

63. Leucorrhoea-worse by mental depression happier when leucorrhoea is worse in weak rundown patient with violent sexual excitement

  • (A) China-off
  • (B) Nat-Mur
  • (C) Staphisagria
  • (D) None of the above

64. What is the similarity between antipathically chosen medicine with that of homoeopathically chosen medicine in a case?

  • (A) They are used both in small doses
  • (B) They touch precisely the same diseased point
  • (C) They are both called symptomatic treatment
  • (D) None of the above

65. Spluttering diarrhoea with forcible expulsion of noisy flatus

  • (A) Nat Sulph
  • (B) Aloe S
  • (C) Acalypha Ind
  • (D) Podophyllum

66. Qualification necessary for comprehending the image of a disease is described in Organon in aphorism No.

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 3, 4
  • (C) 83
  • (D) 83, 98

67. Patients crave things that make them sick. Epistaxis in daily attacks, with pale face

  • (A) Opium
  • (B) Carbo Veg
  • (C) Stanum Met
  • (D) Ipecac

68. Vertigo spreading from the occiput with diplopia, dim vision, loss of sight seems intoxicated when trying to move. Sensation of band around the head above eyes, scalp sore to touch

  • (A) Carbolic Acid
  • (B) Sulphur
  • (C) Silicea
  • (D) Gelsemium

69. Fistula in and with constipation, Abdominal Colic after anger-a relapse case after operation. Craving for tobacco of very sensitive patient to slightest mental impression; having spermatorrhoea with sunken feature; guilty abashed look. Select a medicine

  • (A) Acid-Phos
  • (B) Ignatia
  • (C) Sulphur
  • (D) None of the above

70. Kali Carb will bring on the menses, when Nat Mur though apparently indicated fails. It is the statement of

  • (A) Dr. T.F. Allen
  • (B) Dr. H.C. Allen
  • (C) Dr. Nash
  • (D) Dr. Hahnemann

71. A medicine was given to a child of nocturnal convulsion. He was irritable, cross, ill humoured averse to caresses, having naval pain, nausea, clean tongue, desire for sweets. Hungry but refuses mother’s milk. Convulsion stopped after passing lots of intestinal worms, what was the medicine?

  • (A) Bryonia-Alb
  • (B) Chamomilla
  • (C) Cina
  • (D) Staphisagria

72. Veratrum and cuprum alternately week about for the prevention of Asiatic cholera-was recommended by

  • (A) Hahnemann
  • (B) Boenninghausen
  • (C) Kent
  • (D) Aegedi

73. Diarrhoea as soon as he drinks. Swashing sensation in intestine, as from water, before stool. Constant urging to stool followed by sudden evacuation, which is shot out of the rectum

  • (A) Arsenicum Album
  • (B) Croton Tiglium
  • (C) Podophyllum
  • (D) Thuja Occidentalis 

74. Constipation from inactivity of rectum always before and during menses of sweaty and chilly patient. Unhealthy skin. Likes cold drinks

  • (A) Bryonia-Alb
  • (B) Lycopodium
  • (C) Nat-Mur
  • (D) Silicea

75. Cold bathing causes violent headache

  • (A) Tubercullinum
  • (B) Antim Crud
  • (C) Belladona
  • (D) Rhus Tox

76. Spinal irritation due to sexual excesses. Single vertebra sensitive to touch. Extremely sensitive to cold air

  • (A) Calcarea Ostrearum
  • (B) Psorinum
  • (C) Kali Phosphoricum
  • (D) Agaricus Muscarius

77. `The more I see a particular disease, the more I am able to treat it’, this is

  • (A) Expression
  • (B) Speculation
  • (C) Prejudices
  • (D) Egotism

78. Asthma in children, Piles swollen, pain most severe when sitting, Worse at night from heat of bed

  • (A) Nat Sulph
  • (B) Collinsonia
  • (C) Thuja oc
  • (D) Syphilinum

79. Which one is correct?

  • (A) Alternating action is a type of primary action
  • (B) Rheumatism alternates with dysentery-an example of alternating action
  • (C) The medicines having alternating action are mentioned in Aph. 115 of Organon of Medicine
  • (D) All of the above

80. Very forgetful in business but during sleep dreams of what he had forgotten

  • (A) Medorrhinum
  • (B) Selenium
  • (C) Nux Mos
  • (D) Arg Nit

81. Coition prevented by extreme sensitiveness of the vagina with left ovaritis and cystitis

  • (A) Lachesis ,
  • (B) Platina
  • (C) Sepia
  • (D) Thuja-Occ

82. Breast is full, stony, hard and painful, especially when suppuration is inevitable. Great exhaustion and profound prostration of the patient. Emaciation, chlorosis; loss of fat. The medicine hastens suppuration

  • (A) Hepar Sulphuris
  • (B) Silicea
  • (C) Mercurius Solubilis
  • (D) Phytolacca

83. In intermittent fever Nat Mur follows this medicine well when type changes

  • (A) China
  • (B) Kali Bi
  • (C) Lachesis
  • (D) Ignatia

84. Constipation: Since puberty; since last confinement; when away from home; of infants; with ineffectual urging; rectum contracts and protrudes during stool, developing piles. Canine hunger; the more he eats, the more he craves. Headache if he does not eat

  • (A) Anacardium
  • (B) Cina
  • (C) Lac Defloratum
  • (D) Lycopodium Clavatum

85. Restless fidgety starts at least noise. Disgust for meat and warm food

  • (A) Silicea
  • (B) Theridion
  • (C) Phosphorus
  • (D) Nux vom

86. Dr. Mahendralal Sarkar was greatly influenced and converted to Homoeopathy by reading

  • (A) Organon of Medicine by Dudgeon
  • (B) Organon of Medicine by Boericke
  • (C) Philosophy of Homoeopathy by Hahnemann
  • (D) Philosophy of Homoeopathy by Morgan

87. Symptoms following sour food and drink. Thirst for cold milk. Follows well after Nux in fainting

  • (A) Sulphur
  • (B) Antim C
  • (C) Acid Phos
  • (D) Mag Cark

88. Headache ceases during menses; returns when flow disappears with fidgety feet

  • (A) Lachesis
  • (B) Nat-Mur
  • (C) Sepia
  • (D) Zinc-Met

89. Leucorrhoea; transparent, but staining linen yellow; passes imperceptibly from the very relaxed parts

  • (A) Syphilinum
  • (B) Natrum Phosphoricum
  • (C) Agnus Castus
  • (D) Cyclamen Europaeum

90. Which one is incorrect for Lycopodium?

  • (A) Baby cries all day, sleeps all night
  • (B) Waking in morning feeling hungry
  • (C) Complementary Iodine
  • (D) Burning between scapulae as of hot coals

91. According to Aph. 247 of Organon of Medicine, in acute diseases medicine can be repeated at

  • (A) Every 24, 8, 6 hourly
  • (B) Every 24, 12, 8, 4 hourly
  • (C) Every 24, 8, 6, 4 hourly
  • (D) Every 24, 12, 8 hourly

92. Hahnemann’s 1st , 2nd and 3rd chronic criiasms are

  • (A) Syphilis, Psora and Sycosis
  • (B) Syphilis, Sycosis and Psora
  • (C) Psora, Syphilis and Sycosis
  • (D) Sycosis, Syphilis and Psora

93. Pain in pit of stomach; worse by bending forward; relieved by sitting erect. Severe stitching pain in right eye and orbit

  • (A) Bry Alb
  • (B) Kalmia Lat
  • (C) Dioscorea Vil
  • (D) Sang Nit

94. Large dose of specific medicine is advised to be used in¬

  • (A) Primary manifestations of chronic miasms
  • (B) Secondary manifestations of chronic miasms
  • (C) Incurable diseases
  • (D) None of the above

95. Sweats while eating, infallible for stooping, a cold commencing with sneezing and numbness tingling of tongue; the medicine

  • (A) Ignatia
  • (B) Nat Mur
  • (C) Sanicula
  • (D) Capsicum

96. Convulsion, with blue face and clenched thumbs; Clonic spasms; beginning in fingers and toes, and spreading over entire body; during pregnancy; puerperal convulsions; after fright or vexation; from metastasis from other organs to brain

  • (A) Zincum Metallicum
  • (B) Cuprum Metallicum
  • (C) Aethusa Cynapium
  • (D) Helleborus Niger

97. Uterine inertia during labor. Constipation in children with nocturnal enuresis

  • (A) Kreosotum
  • (B) Caulophyllum
  • (C) Causticum
  • (D) All of the above

98. Menopausal flashing and hot perspiration with loquacity, great sensitiveness to touch

  • (A) Acid-Nit
  • (B) Graphites
  • (C) Lachesis
  • (D) Sulphur

99. The four epochal figures in the history of Medicine are¬

  • (A) Hippocrates, the observer; Galen, the disseminator; Paracelsus, the assailer; Hahnemann, the experimenter
  • (B) Hahnemann, the observer; Hippocrates, the assailer; Galen, the experimenter; Paracelsus, the disseminator
  • (C) Hahnemann, the observer; Paracelsus, the experimenter; Galen, the disseminator; Hippocrates, the assailer
  • (D) Hippocrates, the observer; Galen, the assailer; Paracelsus, the disseminator; Hahnemann, the experimenter

100. The medicine indicated in diseases where the system has been injured by the abuse of Mercury

  • (A) Podophyllum        (B) Hepar Sulph
  • (C) Merc Sol                  (D) Puls Nig

We are  thankful to Dr. Jehan Ara PGT NIH Kolkatta for this question paper

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Madhyapradesh PSC Homoeopathy Medical Officer Exam 2008

1. The Scapula is a thin bone placed on the :
(A) Anterolaterral aspect of the thoracic cage
(B) Superiolateral aspect of the thoracic rage
(C)  Posterolateral aspect of the thoracic cage
(D) None of’ the above

2. The articular  surface of the clavicle is covered with :

  • (A) muscle                             (B) cartilage
  • (C) fibrous tissue                (D) fibrocartilage

3. Muscles of the first layer of the sole is :

  • (A) flexor hallucis longus                   (B) lumbricals
  • (C) flexor digitorum longus               (D) flexer digitorum brevis

4. Arch of Aorta lies behind the –

  • (A) Lower half of manubrium sterni
  • (B) Xiphoid process sternum
  • (C) Middle one-third manubrium sterni
  • (D) Jugular notch

5.  The facial bones are

  • (A) 10 in number
  • (B) 20 in number
  • (C) 13 in number
  • (D) 14 in number

6. It is dangerous when :

  • (A) diastolic value is high
  • (B) systolic value is high –
  • (C) both systolic and diastolic value is high
  • (D) value is low

7. FSH acts on the :

  • (A) Leydig cells                    (B) Macrophages
  • (B) Sartoli cells                     (D) Purkinje cells

8. In Myopia :

  • (A) image  falls on the back of the retina
  • (B) usually the  anteroposterior diameter is shorter
  • (C) image  falls in front of the retina
  • (D) use of convex lens is advisable

9. Sympathetic stimulation has no major effect on the vessel of ;

  • (A) skin                  (B) kidney
  • (C) brain                (D) lung

10. Class VI (a) includes those drug substances which are only soluble in

  • (A) purified water                (B) strong alcohol
  • (C) alcohol                            (D) none of these

11. The quality of an ideal prover

  • (A) sick                  (B) emotional
  • (C) idle                   (D) trustworthy

12.Centesimal scale was introduced by Hahnemann in 5th  edition Organon of Medicine

  • (A) Sec. 269          (B) Sec. 268
  • (C) Sec. 271          (D) Sec. 270

13. Triturition is done in :

  • (A) unglazed glass mart                      (B) glazed Porcelain mortar
  • (C) glazed iron mortar                        (D)unglazed porcelain mortar

14. The fifth edition of `Organon of Medicine’ contained :

  • (A) 294 aphorisms               (B) 293 aphorisms
  • (C) 292 aphorisms               (D) 291 aphorisms

15. Homoeopathy is a product of :

  • (A) deductive logic              ( B) inductive logic
  • (C) both (A) and (B)            (D) none of these

16. The first edition of Organon of Medicine was published in

  • (A) 1828                (B) 1805
  • (C) 1810                (D) 1817

17. Fundamental cause is due to :

  • (A) acute miasm
  • (B) fixed niiasm
  • (C) non-recurreent miasm
  • (D) chronic miasm

18. Cure has some special meaning in homoeopathic practice. Cure means :

  • (A) removal of common symptoms
  • (B) removal of symptoms of disease
  • (C) removal of the whole of the perceptible signs and symptoms of the disease
  • (D) removal of the disease symptoms in some extent

19. Natural  law of Cure was discussed in :

  • (A) Section 26      (B) Section 18
  • (C) Section 19      (D) Section 25

20. Proximate cause means :

  • (A)  main cause                    (B) internal cause
  • (C) immediate cause           (D) first cause

21. The necessary point which comprise the operation of curing is as follows

  • (A) cause determination
  • (B) investigation of disease
  • (C) investigation of medicine
  • (D) none of the above

22. ‘Organon of Medicine’ was originally written in :

  • (A) English            (B) Latin
  • (C) French             (T) German

23. Psora is the cause

  • (A) non-venereal chronic disease
  • (B) venereal chronic disease
  • (C) all acute and chronic diseases
  • (D) both, venereal and non-venereal chronic disease

24. Natural chronic diseases are those which are primarily caused by :

  • (A) fixed miasm                                      (B) acute  miasm
  • (C) both acute and chronic miasm    (D) chronic miasm

25. Secondary symptoms of psora is as follows :

  • (A) slow recovery of all complaints
  • (B) all  kinds of functional complaints when arising from emotional disturbances
  • (C) melancholy and condemn themselves
  • (D) desire of food hot or cold

26. Hahnemann described in sixth edition of  Organon of Medicine’ that the most commonly affected part by the medicine is :

  • (A) any part of the body    (B) nails
  • (C) tongue                              (D) blood vessels

27. Homoeopathy is a :

  • (A) Science            (B) Science and art
  • (C) Art                    (D) None of these

28. General quality of all the organism is to receive a stimulus and to react accordingly is

  • (A) irritability        (B) sensitivity
  • (C) indisposition   (D) susceptibility

29. Genuine medicine denotes :

  • (A) adulterated                     (B) unadulterated
  • (C) both (A) and (B)            (D) none of these

30. Complex disease means :

  • (A) mixture of many similar diseases
  • (B) mixture  of a dissimilar disease with a similar disease
  • (C) mixture of more than one dissimilar disease
  • (D) mixture of many dissimilar diseases

31. A slight alteration of health manifested by one or more trivial symptoms is : ,

  • (A) epidemic disease           (B) idiosyncrasy
  • (C) sporadic disease            (D) indisposition

32. Pseudochronic disease is :

  • (A) artificial chronic disease
  • (A) local disease
  • (C) chronic disease
  • (D) inappropriately named chronic disease

33. Alternate constipation and diarrhea : lienteria:

  • (A) Kali.sulp                           (B) Abrotanurn
  • (C) Ferrum Phos                    (D) Cina

34. Adapted to the strumous constitution; glands enlarged, indurated, scirrous or open caner :

  • (A) Sepia               (B) Borax
  • (C) Apis                 (D) Chamomilla

35. Dropsy : after suppressed sweat; suppressed eruptions; exposure to cold :

  • (A) Calcarea carb                (B) Baryta carb
  • (C) Merc. sol                         (D) Dulcmara

36.Sensation of growing larger in every direction :

  • (A) Nux vomica                   (B)Phosphorus
  • (C) Ipecacuanha                 (D) Platina

37. The skin feels cold to touch, yet the patient cannot tolerate covering :

  • (A) Arnica montana
  • (B) Lachesis
  • (C) Secale cor
  • (D) Silicea

38. Aggravation—at night; from heat at bed; at 3 A.M. and 5 P.M.; from cold, damp air; narcotics :

  • (A) Thuja occidentalis
  • (B) Sulphur
  • (C) Kali carbonicum
  • (D) Rhus toxicidendron

39. Bad effects from loss of vital fluids; haemmohrage  from any broken down condition of mucous membrane :

  • (A) Belladonna
  • (B) Hyoscyamus
  • (C) Conium maculatum
  • (D) Carbo vegetabilis

40. Great sadness and weeping :

  • (A) Bryonia
  • (B) Sepia
  • (C) Pulsatilla
  • (D) Natrum sulph

41. Diphtheria aggravated after sleep and cold drinks :

  • (A) Podophyllum                 (B) Nitric acid
  • (C) Lachesis                           (D) Lycopodium clavatum

42. Follows well after Calcarea carb in obesity of young women with large amount of unhealthy adipose tissue :

  • (A) Sulphur           (B) Lachesis
  • (C) Graphites        (D) Podophyllum

43. Patient is very chilly yet all the  complaints are relieved by cold application :

  • (A) Phosphoric acid             (B) Apis mel
  • (C) Natrum carb                    (D) Ledum Pal

44. Bad effects of re-percussed eruptions :

  • (A) Bovista
  • (B) Cuprum metallicum
  • (C) Lac caninum
  • (D) Sarsaparilla

45. The secretion is not diminished, the bladder is full but fullness is unrecognized :

  • (A) Strarmonium                 (B) Opium
  • (C) Sabina                              (D) Iodum

46. Headache : always hungry  during :

  • (A) Glonoine         (B) Kreosotum
  • (C) Psorinum        (D) Syphillinum

47. Stammering, repeat: first syllable three or four times; with abdominal ailments, with helminthiasis ;

  • (A) Ruta graveolens            (B) Spigelia
  • (C) Rumex crispus               (D) Variolinum

48. Headache of school girls from eve strain or overuse of’ eves :

  • (A) Phosohoric acid             (B) Cactus
  • (C) Sanguinaria                    (D) Fluoric acid

49. Frequently called for after abuse of mercury :

  • A) Petroleum        (B) Rhododendron
  • (C) Psorinurn        ‘D) Sarsaparilla

50. The burning feet of Sulphur and restless fidgety legs and feet of Zincum Metallicum are both found at the same time in :

  • (A) Syphillinum                    (B) Medorrhinum
  • (C) Sambucus                        (D) Causticum

52. Menses : flow on lying down:

  • (A) Hydrastis                        (B) Lac caninum
  • (C) Natrum carbo                (D) Kreosotum

52.  Convulsion with pale face, no heat, except perhaps in occiput, no increase  in temperature :

  • (A) Camphora                        (B) Conium mac
  • (C) Zincum metallicum      (D) Stannum metallicum

53. The benign epithelia  tumor is :

  • (A) Adenoma                       (B) Liposarcprna
  • (C) Mesothelioma               (D) Neuroblastoma

54. The Polycystic kidney disease occurs :

  • (A) young                              (B) adult
  • (C) old                                   (D) none of these

55. The lesions of Bacillary Dysentery is mainly found in :

  • (A) duodenum                      (B) stomach
  • (C) colon                               (D) rectum

56. The common name of Ascaris lumbricoids ;

  • (A) Threadworm                  (B) Tape worm
  • (C) Guineaworm                  (D) Roundworm

57. Coroner is only a court of :

  • (A) trial                                      (B) inquiry
  • (C)both trial and inquiry    (D) none of these

58. Suicidal strangulation is :

  • (A) rare                  (B) commen
  • (C) uncommon    (D) none of these

59. Where dose rigor mortis starts    from :

  • (A) kidney             (B) Heart
  • (C) Stomach         (D) Eye

60. The local action of carbolic acid :

  • (A) burning                            (B) painless condition
  • (C) painful condition          (D) tingling

61. Medico legal importance of abrasion helps :

  • (A) to know the age of  abrasion
  • (B) to know the type of weapon used
  • (C) to detect the direction of’ force
  • (D) none of the above

62. External atmosphere means :

  • (A) the space inside the room of a building
  • (B) the space outside the room of a building
  • (C) both A and B
  • (D) none of the above

63. Direct water borne disease is :

  • (A) Gunea worm                  (B) Schistasomiasis
  • (C) Ascariasis                       (D) Hepatitis

69. Smallpox was eradicated in the year :

  • (A) 1977                (B) 1978
  • (D) 1989                (D) 1980

65. Primary prevention included :

  • (A) rehabilitation                  (B) early  diagnosis and treatment
  • (C) disability limitation       (D) health promotion

66. The Medical Termination of  act passed by Parliament of India

  • (A) 1905                (B)1865
  • (C) 1960                (D) 1971

67. Neurogenic ulcer is :

  • (A) Varicose ulcer                (B) post thrombotic ulcer
  • (C) Gravitational                   (D) Diabetic ulcer

68. The initial typical pain of Acute Appendicitis is

  • (A) localized and aching                    (B) diffused arid burning
  • (C) widespread and pressive              (D) diffused and dull

69. Benign tumour of breast is usually localized at :

  • (A) upper part of breast
  • (B) upper quadrant of’ breast
  • (C) outer quadrant of breast
  • (D) lower part of breast

70. The rare form of hernia is :

  • (A) inguinal           (B) obturator
  • (C) incisional        (D) umbilical

71. Fever in Pyogenic Liver Abscess usually is :

  • (A) intermittent type           (B) relapsing type
  • (C) hectic type                      (D) continuous type

72. Pruritus vulvae is present in :

  • (A) Bratholine cyst                              (B) vulvo vaginitis
  • (C) Non-specific hectictype             (D) senile vaginitis

73. The cause of Retroversion of  uterus is .

  • (A) inflammatory
  • (B) congenital
  • (C) inflammatory and congenital
  • (D) congenital and acquired

74. The incidence of Primary Dysmenorrhea is found commonly in

  • (A) middle age                      (B) old age
  • (C) adolescents                   (D) none of these

75. The odor of  Lochia is :

  • (A) odorless           (B) offensive fleshy
  • (C) irritating          (D) none of these

76. Preterm labour is defined as one where the labour starts before

  • (A) 36th completed week   (B) 37th completed week
  • (C) 35th completed week    (D) 30th completed week

77. Atrial septal defect is common in :

  • (A) males                               (B) females
  • (C) both male and female (D) none of these

78. The serious complications of a rupture of tuberculous lesion into the pleural space is :

  • (A) Bronchitis
  • (B) Bronchial asthma
  • (C) Pleural effusion
  • (D) Empyema

79. The most conrmon cause of Chronic diarrhea is :

  • (A) malabsorption                                   (B) dyspepsia
  • (C) irritable bowel syndrome             (D) none of these

80.The incubation period in men with Gonoeocccal urethritis is :

  • (A) 2-5 days                         (B) 3-7 days
  • (C) 2-15 days                       (D) 2-10 days

81.Pigmentation in Addion’s disease is usually seen on :

  • (A) eyelid                               (B) forearm
  • (C) Knee                                (D) Leg

82. Dietary management in diabetes mellitus included :

  • (A) abolish symptoms of hyperglccaemia
  • (B) low protein intake
  • (C) high fat intake
  • (D) none of the above

83.A high MCV suggests :

  • (A) Iron deficiency anaemia             (B) Vitamin B12 deficiency
  • (C) Acute blood loss                            (D) Thalassaemia

84. A diagnosis of Scabies is confirmed by :

  • (A) Blood test
  • (B) scraping the mite out of burrow
  • (C) Urine test
  • (D) none of the above

85. The investigation for Simple Mechanical Low Back Pain is :

  • (A) Blood test                                            (B)Radiograph
  • (C) No blood test or radiograph        (D) MRI

86. The CSF of meningitis contains

  • (A) less lymphocytes
  • (B) excess lymphocyte
  • (C) normal lymphocyte
  • (D) none of the above

87. The lesion of cerebellar hemisphere leads to :

  • (A) lack of co-ordination on the opposite side of the body
  • (B) lack of co-ordination on both the sides of the body
  • (C) lack of co-ordination on the same side of the body
  • (D) none of the above

88. Bell’s Palsy is a common condition affecting

  • (A) male                                   (B) female
  • (C) both (A) and (B)            (B) none of these

89.The common variety of leukaemia is

  • (A) Acute myeloblastic Leukaemia
  • (B) Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia
  • (C) Chronic Lympoblastic  Leukaemia
  • (D) Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia

90. The blood picture of Dengue is :

  • (A) thrombocytosis
  • (B) leucocytosis
  • (C) monocytosis
  • (D) thrombocytopenia

91. Hahnemann told that the duty of physician after case taking should be as follows :

  • (A) he will pick up the common symptoms
  • (B) he will pick up the mental symptoms
  • (C) he  will pick up the characteristic symptom
  • (D) he will pick up the general symptoms

92. The eliminating symptoms must come from :

  • (A) basic symptoms
  • (B) particular symptoms
  • (C) common symptoms
  • (D) general symptoms

93. Minute peculiarities are :

  • (A) drug symptoms          (B) disease symptom
  • (C) clinical symptoms     (D) patients symptoms

94.Necessity of record keeping is :

  • (A) selection of potency
  • (B) selection of medicine
  • (C) portrait formation
  • (D) none of the above

95. First Alphabetical Pocket Repertory was written by :

  • (A) Weber Peschier
  • (B) Adolph Von Lippe
  • (C) Glazer
  • (D) James Tyler Kent

96. “I’he biggest chapter of Kent’s Repertory is :

  • (A) extremities
  • (P) Mouth
  • (C) skin
  • (D) larynx and trachea

97.First card repertory appeared in the form of :

  • (A) disc
  • (B) strip
  • (C) slip
  • (D) spindle

98. Dr. C.M. Boger explained that the peculiarity of the symptoms are judged on :

  • (A) 3 considerations
  • (B) 5 considerations
  • (C) 2 considerations
  • (D) 7 considerations

99. Some  of the emotional rubrics have been placed in Boenninghausen’s repertory under the chapter :

  • (A) fever
  • (B) sleep
  • (C) sensations and complaints
  • (D) aggravation

100. The sources of Boger-Boenninghausen’s Repetory is :

  • (A) Aphorism’s of Hippocrates
  • (B) Jhar’s Repertory
  • (C) Lippe’s Repertory
  • (D) Bigger’s Repertory

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Rajasthan PSC Homoeopathy Medical Officer Exam Questions 2008

Question Paper of Rajasthan Public Service Commission Homeopathy Medical Officer Exam 2008

1.British Homoeopathic Pharmacopoeia” by British Homoeopathic society was published in
(1) 1690
(2) 1774
(3) 1870
(4) 1940

2. The science that deals with different aspects of drug is

  • (1) Pharmacy                           (2) Pharmacology
  • (3) Pharmacochemistry      (4) Pharmacogenetics

3. Desire to be let alone; wants to lie down and sleep

  • (1) Aloes                (2) Caps.
  • (3) Ign.                   (4)Zinc

4. Children ; impudent, teasing, laugh at reprimands

  • (1) Croc.                                (2) Ign.
  • (3) Graph.                              (4) All

5. Feels badly, week before menstruation.

  • (1) Puls                                   (2) Kali C.
  • (3) Sab.                                  (4) Sep.

6. Baby cries all day, sleeps all night.

  • (1) Psor.                 (2) Jalapa
  • (3) Lyco                  (4) Borax

7. Progressive pernicious anaemia, neurasthenia

  • (1) Crat.                 (2) Fern Met.
  • (3) Val.                   (4) Pic-acid.

8. Delirium alternating with colic

  • (1) Coloc.              (2) Cina
  • (3) Plumb.             (4) All

9. Sexula desire absent in fleshly people

  • (1) Cal.c                 (2) Kali. bich
  • (3) Both                 (4) All

10. Severe headache before and during menses

  • (1) Sil                      (2) Ferr. M.
  • (3) Actea. R            (4) Kreos

11. Headache alternates with diarrhoea, headache in winter, diarrhea in summer

  • (1) Ptero                 (2) Led.
  • (3) Staph.               (4) Podo.

12. Palpitation of ‘heart is fe.lt in the face

  • (1) Bell                   (2) Lil.
  • (3) Mur, ac.         (4) Glon.

13. Breast cold as ice to touch, esp. the nipple, rest of body warm (during menses).

  • (1) Medo.              (2)Sil
  • (3) See.                   (4)Merc.

14.Boger was a student of

  • (1) Boenninghaussen          (2) Kent
  • (3) Hahnemann                   (4) Jahr

15. Mental disease is due to

  • (l) Psora                 (2)Pseudo psora
  • (3) Sycosis             (4)Syphilis

16. Mention the drug which is prepared from the normal section of living  animal,

  • (1) Adrenalin                        (2) Adonis vernalis
  • (3) Actaea shicats                (4) Agraphis nutans

17. ldiosyncracy is helpful in

  • (1) Assessment of prognosis              (2) Drug proving
  • (3) Management of  cases                 (4) Case taking

18.Extreme hungry even when stomach is full of’ food

  • (1) Iodium             (2 Cina
  • (3) Staph               (4) Calc. C.

19. The meaning of abbreviation  H.S. is

  • (1) At bedtime                            (2) in the morning
  • (3) Tomorrow evening            (4) every hour

20. A sycotic patient desire for

  • (1) Sweet               (2) Narcotics
  • (3) Beer                  (4) Cold food

21. Mntion which one is published by Authority of Government of India ?

  • (1 ) Pharmacy                      (2) Pharmacology
  • (3) Pharmacodynamics         (4) Pharmacopeia

22. At the end of  treatment  the anti-miasmatic medicine required is

  • (1) anti syphilitic                    (2) antisycotic
  • (3) anti-psoric                       (4) antipseudopsoric

23. Mapped tongue, with involuntary urination when coughing, walking, laughing

  • (1) Causticum                      (2) Nat. Mur.
  • (3) Taraxacum                     (4) Squilla

24.Mention the name of  drug which is to be triturated from liquid substance.

  • (1) Acid benzoic                     (2) Guaiacum
  • (3) Petroleum                        (4) Iodine

25. Repertorisation starts  from

  • (1) Case taking                     (2) Evaluation
  • (3) Calculation                      (4) Rubric hunting

26. “Causam Tolle” means

  • (l) Remove the cause          (2) Total cause of the disease
  • (3) Totality of  symptoms    (4) Proximate cause

27. The  father of repertory  is

  • (1) Hahnemann                  (2) Boenningahusen
  • (3) Kent                                 (4) Boger

28. Mention the vehicle by which you can prepare liniment.

  • (1)  Distilled water                 (2) Alcohol
  • (3) Glycerin                             (4) Olive oil

29. Surgical removal of an organ  causes

  • (1) Palliation                         (2) Suppression
  • (3) Temporary relief         (4) Cure

30. Cough  > by lying on abdomen

  • (1) Medo                               (2) Staph
  • (3) Cup met                          (4) Acet. Acid

31. Largest  source of drug substances in homoeopathy is from

  • (1)  Animal kingdom           (2) P1ant Kingdom
  • (3) Mineral kingdom           (4) Synthetci chemicals

32. Menstruation is a……..symptom.

  • (1) Particular                                (2) Common general
  • (3) Peculiar Particular             (4) Peculiar general

33. Fidgety of hands

  • (1) Zinc                  (2) Kaii Br.
  • (3) Cicuta. v         (4) Medo

34. Which  is indicated  for vertigo after fright ?

  • (1) gels                   (2) Conium
  • (3) Silicia                (4) Acon. Nap.

35. Concordance  means

  • (l) Relatioship between two remedies
  • (2) Concomitant
  • (3) characteristic  symptom
  • (4) All

36.  Drug power of class-III is

  • (1) 1/6                    (2) 1/2
  • (3) l/10                   (4) 1/100

37. Mercury’s vegetable analogue is

  • (1) Podo                (2) Mez.
  • (3) Sil                    (4) Phyto

38.”Spanish fly” is the common name of

  • (1) Causticum      (2) Cantharis
  • (3) Terebinth       (4) Tarantula C.

39. All are  complementary except

  • (I) Ignatia.-  Nat.mur          (2) Mere. – Sil
  • (3) Bell – Cal.                          (4) Apis. Nat.m

40.Hears better in a  noise

  • (1) Aconite                            (2) Thuja
  • (3) Grap                                (4) Bella donna

41. Cannot bear the smell  or sight of food

  • (1) Arsenic alb                      (2) Ammon carb
  • (3) Cal. Cartb                       (4) Aethusa cynapium

42. Bed feels hard

  • (1) Pyrogen           (2) Bap
  • (3) Arnica              (4) Opium

43.Anaemia is found in chapter………….of BBCR.

  • (1) Circulation                      (2) Blood
  • (3) Generalities                     (4) Sensation

44. Teeth decay at edges

  • (1) Staph.              (2) Thuja
  • (3) Kreosote        (4) Mag C.

45. Chronischen Krankheiten means

  • (1) Chronic diseases            (2) Chronic miasm
  • (3) Deep acting drugs          (4) Crude drugs

46. Aura begins from heart, medicine in Kent’s repertory

  • (1) Cal. ars.                           (2) Lachesis
  • (3) Bufo Rana                      (4) Aur. Met.

47. Which of the  is not a common feature of Anorexia  Nervosa

  • (1) Binge eating
  • (2) Amenorrhea
  • (3) Self  perception of being “fat”
  • (4) Underweight

48.Which of the following is the  most common presenting symptom of non-cirrhotic portal hypertension

  • (1) Chronic liver failure
  • (2) Ascitis
  • (3) Upper gastro intestinal bleeding
  • (4) Encephalopathy

49.Joint erosions are not a feature of

  • (1) Rheumatoid arthritis
  • (2) Psoriasis
  • (3) Multicentric reticulohystocytes
  • (4) SLE

50. Apart from eschrerichia coli, the other most common organism implicated in acute suppurative bacterial peritonitis

  • (1) Bacteriods                          (2) Klebsiella
  • (3) Pepto streptococcus      (4) Pseudomonas

51. The most common cause of gastric Outlet obstruction in India as

  • (1) Tubercuulosis                 (2) Cancer of stomach
  • (3) Duodenal lymphoma   (4) Peptic ulcer disease

52. Which vitamin deficient is most commonly seen in a pregnant mother  who is on phenytoin therapy for epilepsy?

  • (1) Vitamin B6                     (2) Vitamin B 12
  • (3) Vitamin                           (4) Folic acid

53. The following complications during pregnancy increase the risk of PPH  except

  • (1) Hypertension                  (2) Macrosomia
  • (3) Twin pregnancy             (4) HYdramnios

54.palpabale  purpura could occur in the following conditions, except

  • (1) Thrombocytopenia
  • (2) Small vessel vasculitis
  • (3) Disseminated gonococcal infection
  • (4) Acute menigiococcemia

55. All the following  can cause osteoporosis, except

  • (1) Hyprthyrodism                              (2) Steroid use
  • (3) Fluorosis                                          (41) Thyrotoxicosis

56. All the  following conditions are known to cause diabetes insipidus  except

  • (1) Multiple sclerosis                           (2) Head injury
  • (3) Histocytosis                                    (4) Viral encephalitis

57. All of  the following CSF findings are present in tuberculous meningitis, except

  • (1) Raised protein levels                     (2) Low chloride levels
  • (3) Cob web formation                       (4) Raised sugar levels

58. Vitamin B12 deficiency can give rise to all of the following, except

  • (1) Myelopathy                                    (2) Optic atrophy
  • (3) Pherpheral  Neuropathy          (4) Myopathy

59.  A blood stained discharge from the nipple indicates one of the following

  • (1) Breast abscess                                (2) Fibroadenorna
  • (3) Duct papilloma                              (4) Fat necrosis of breast

60. The most  common complication seen in hiatus hernia is

  • (1) Oesophgitis                     (2) Aspiration pneumonitis
  • (3) Volulus                            (4) Esophageal stricture

61.All are the cause of intrauterine growth retardation except

  • (1) Anemia
  • (2) Pregnancy induced hypertension
  • (3) Maternal heart disease
  • (4) Gestational diabetes

62. Use of one of the following vaccination is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy

  • (1) Hepatitsi B                      (2) Cholera
  • (3) Rabies                             (4) Yellow fever

63. The most common  cause of secondary amenorrhoea in  India is

  • (1) Endometrial tuberculosis
  • (2) Premature ovarian failure
  • (3) Polycystic ovarian syndrome
  • (4) Sheehan’s syndrome

64. All the following  are used as proxy measure for incubation period, except

  • (1) Latent period
  • (2) Period of communicability
  • (3) Serial interval
  • (4) Generation time

65. All of the  following are the mode of transmission of leprosy, accept

  • (1) Breast milk
  • (2) Insect bite
  • (3) Transplacental spread
  • (4) Droplet infection

66. The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of tuberculosis infection in a community is

  • (1) Mass Miniature Radiotherapy
  • (2) Sputum Examination
  • (3) Tubcrculin Test
  • (4) Clinical Examination

67. Bone marrow transplantation can be used as a treatment for all, except

  • (1) Osteoprosis
  • (2) Adrenoleukodystrophy
  • (3) Hurler’s syndrome
  • (4) Hemochromatosis

68. Polycystic disease  of  the kidney may have cysts in all of the following organs, except

  • (1) Lung                 (2) Liver
  • (3) Pancreas          (4) Spleen

69. Persistent vomiting most likely causes

  • (1) Hyperkalemia
  • (2) Acidic urine excretion
  • (3) Hypochloremia
  • (4) Hyperventilation

70. In Budd chiari syndrome, the site of venous thrombosis is

  • (1) lntrahepatic inferior vena cava
  • (2) Intrarenal inferior vena cava
  • (3) Hepatic veins
  • (4) Portal veins

71. Estimation of the following hormones is useful while investigating a case of gynaccomastia, except

  • (1) Testosterone                   (2) Prolactin
  • (3) Estradiol                          (4) Lutenizing hormnone

72. The most  common site of intestinal obstruction in gall stone ileus

  • (1) Jejanum                          (2) Ileum
  • (3) Transverse  colon     (4) Sigmoid colon

73.  Which of the following types of pancreatitis has the best prognosis

  • (1) Alcoholic pancreatitis
  • (2) Gall stone pancreatitis
  • (3) Post operative pancreatitis
  • (4) Idiopathic pancreatitis

74. Which one of the following is not  an important cause hyponatremia

  • (1) Gastric fistula
  • (2) Excessive vomiting
  • (3) Excessive sweating
  • (4) Prolonged Ryle’s tube aspiration

75. All  the following conditions are risk factor for urinary tract infections in pregnancy,except

  • (1) Diabetes                      (2) Hypertension
  • (3) Sickle cell anemia  (4) Vesiscoureteral relflux

76. In one single visit,  a  9-months old, unimmunized child can he given the  following vaccination

  • (1) Only BCG
  • (2) BCG, DPT-I, OPV-l
  • (3) DPT-1, OPV-1, Measles
  • (4) BCG,  DPT-l, OPV-1, Measles

77. The organism most commonly causing genital filariasis in most part Bihar and Eastern UP is

  • (1) Wichercriat bamcrofti                  (2) Brugia malayi
  • (3) Onchocera volvulus                      (4) Dirofilaria

78. Magnum opus is the work of

  • (1) Hahnemann                   (2) Lord Bacon
  • (3) Aristotle                           (4) Hippocrates

79. Fragemnta de viribus medicamentarum positivis humano observitus was published in

  • (1) 1810                                 (2) 1796
  • (3) 1805                                 (4) 1821

80. Mental  diseases are …..diseases

  • (1) Acute                               (2) Chronic
  • (3) Local                                (4) One sided

81. Electrotherapy deals with sec………..of 6th edition

  • (1) 285                   (2) 285-286
  • (3) 286                   (4) 284

82. The name  50 millisimal  potency was given by

  • (l) Hering               (2) Hahnemann
  • (3) Boericke          (4) Dr. P. Schmidt

83. With a family history of tubercuiosis a few dose of  tuberculinum act as …………..remedy

  • (1) Complementary            (2) Intercurrent
  • (3) Cognate                           (4) Antimiasmatic

84. Who says, “There is no disease, but sick people” ?

  • (1) Hahnemann                   (2) Kent
  • (3) Stuart Close                    (4)Hippocrates

85. The 5th edition of organon  was published from

  • (1) Leipsic             (2) Kothen
  • (3) Paris                 (4) Meisson

86. Cullen was a professor in

  • (1) Botany            (2) Zoology
  • (3) Medicine         (4) Veterinary

87. Autocracy means

  • (1) Self powered                   (2) Powerless
  • (3) Empower                        (4) Self knowledge

88. ‘Rubric’ – word originated  from

  • (1) Rubrica            (2) Rubrik
  • (3) Rubrecea         (4) Rubrika

89. Symptom is derived from the……….word symptoma.

  • (1) Latin                 (2) Greek
  • (3) German           (4) French

90. First English repertory written by

  • (1) Hering              (2) Cipher
  • (2) Lippe                (4) Bryont

91. Boenninghausen born in the year

  • (1) 1812                 (2) 1785
  • (3) 1793                 (4) 1801

92. Who is the father of clinical repertory?

  • (1) Boger               (2) Jahr
  • (3) Allen                (4) None

93. Diarrhoea found in the chapter _______ in Kent’s repertory. Abdomen, IOiarrhvc,w Abdomen

  • (1) Rectum          (2) Abdomen, Diarrhoea
  • (3) Stool                 (4) Generalities

94. Yawning is found in chapter of Kent’s repertory.

  • (1) Respiration                     (2) Larynx & trachea
  • (3) S1eep                               (4) Generalities

95. Boericke repertory is a ………repertory

  • (1) Clinical            (2)Pathological
  • (3) General            (4) Nosological

96. The size of globule vary from

  • (1) 6 to  80            (2) 8 to 80
  • (3) 8 to 90             (4) 10 to 80

97. Pulstilla is included underclass

  • (I) I                         (11) IV
  • (2) III                     (4) II

98. For 1st fifty millisimal scale potency………potency of titration is needed

  • (1) 8X.                    (2)4 X
  • (3) 3 C                    (4) 4 C

99. Decimal scale was introduced by

  • (1) Dr. C. Hering                   (2) Hahnemann
  • (3) Hart Laub                       (4) None

100. Rx   stands for the…….. word “Recipe”.

  • (1) Greek                               (2) Latin
  • (3) German                           (4) None

We are thankful to Dr.Anil.K for providing this question booklet

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Tamilnadu PSC Homoeopathy Examination Questions 2009

Time : 3 hours
Marks : 100
Number of questions : 200

Read the following before you begin to answer

  • The booklet  has a cover which should not be opened till the invigilator give signal.
  • This booklet contains 200 questions
  • Answer all questions
  • All questions carry equal marks
  • Answer sheet will be supplied separately
  • Each questions comprises four responses A B C & D. You are to select only one correct response and mark in your answer sheet. Mark the answer you considered the best. In any case choose only one response for each question.
  • Mark with ball point pen only one bracket of your choice – by darkening the entire bracket
  • Do not tick mark or mark the answers in the question booklet

1.  Never repeat the remedy

  • A) when the patient is improving
  • B) when symptoms follow the Hering’s Law of cure
  • C) when discharge or eruption follows
  • D) all of these.

2 . Second prescription means

  • A) prescription given in the second time
  • B) placebo
  • C) the one after the previous remedy that is acted
  • D) well selected remedy.

3. Selection of antidotal second prescription is based on

  • A) original symptoms               ‘
  • B) disease aggravation
  • C) return of original symptoms
  • D) original symptoms and new symptoms.

4. Sleep is considered as

  • A) rare symptom
  • B) particular symptom
  • C) physical  general symptom
  • D) mental symptom.

5. Body secretions and discharges belonging to

  • A) III grade general
  • B) II grade general
  • C) common symptom
  • D) objective symptom.

6. 50 millesimal potency is included in

  • A) 4th edition of organon
  • B) 6th edition of organon
  • C) 5th edition of organon
  • D) none of these.

7. In tonsillitis, purple colour of throat began on left side. This is symptom of

  • A) Lachesis
  • B) Ruta
  • C) Conium
  • D) Hep. sulph.

8. Atrophic rhinitis is the main symptom in

  • A) Lemna Minor
  • B) Ledum
  • C) Mer, sol.
  • D) Kali carb.

9. Nodular swellings in joints is the symptom of

  • A) Lithium carb
  • B) Bryonia
  • C) Conium
  • D) Allium cepa

10.Diarrhoea of green watery frothy like a frog pond’s scum is the symptom of

  • A) Mag. carb
  • B) Mag. mur
  • C) Arnica
  • D) Aconite.

11. Pain of psoric Miasm is made better by

  • A) cold application
  • B) warmth
  • C) dryness
  • D) none of these.

12. Mental diseases are due to

  • A) sudden fright
  • B) fault of education
  • C) superstition
  • D) all of these.

13. All the structural changes are belonging to

  • A) Sycotic Miasm
  • B) Tubercular Miasm
  • C) Syphilitic Miasm
  • D) All of these.

14. Idiosyncrasy is explained in

  • A)  Aphorism 120
  • B)  Aphorism 117
  • C)  Aphorism 115
  • D)  Aphorism 116.

15. Intermittent fever appears in the form of

  • A)  Sporadic type
  • B)  Endemic type
  • C)  Pernicious type
  • D)  All of these. .

16. Time of administration of the remedy in intermittent fevers is

  • A)  at the commencement of apyrexial period
  • B)  at the stage of apyrexia
  • C)  in the chill stage
  • D)  none of these.

17. Migrane is

  • A)  due to acute miasm
  • A)  due to acute miasm
  • B)  epidemic
  • C)  one-sided disease
  • D)  occupational.

18. Susceptibility is modified by

  • A)  age
  • B)  constitution
  • C)  habit and temperament
  • D)  all of these.

19. Vitamin deficiency diseases are

  • A)  one-sided ‘diseases .
  • B)  acute diseases
  • C)  miasmatic diseases
  • D)  none of these.

20. After the administration of the remedy, if the aggravation is short and violent

  • A)  it is favourable
  • B)  it is palliation
  • C)  it is proving the remedy
  • D)  none of these.

21. Fragmenta de Viribus Medicamentorum Positivis was written in which year ?

  • A)  1845
  • B)  1830
  • C)  1805
  • D)  1800.

22. How many volumes are there in Synthetic Repertory ?

  • A)  Five
  • B)  Seven
  • C)  Two
  • D)  Three.

23. In which year was Kent’s Indian sixth edition published ?

  • A)  1970
  • B)  1961
  • C)  1958
  • D)  1972

24. Impulse on coughing is present in all the following except

  • A)  Hydrocele
  • B)  Inguinal hernia
  • C)  Varicocele
  • D)  Lymph varix.

25.How many chapters are there in Kent’s Repertory ?

  • A)  39
  • B)  27
  • C)  32
  • D)  37

26. Boenninghausen Repertory is arranged under how many sections ?

  • A)  Nine
  • B)  Ten
  • C)  Seven
  • D)  Six.

27. Synthetic Repertory was published by whom ?

  • A)  Kent
  • B)  Dr. Barthel and Dr. Klunker
  • C)  Knerr. C. B.
  • D)  Boericks  O. E.

28. Lachesis in Tonsillitis is indicated by

  • A)  right sidedness
  • B)  shiny glazed appearance
  • C)  dark purple appearance mottled
  • D)  none of these.

29.One sided diseases are

  • A)  diseases with only physical symptom
  • B)  diseases with only mental symptom
  • C)  none of these
  • A)  both (A) & (B)

30. Removal of  local affections by tropical administration leads to

  • A)      suppression
  • B)      persistence of local affection
  • C)      incompleteness. of cure
  • D)      all of these.

31. Milk in the breast instead of menses is the symptom of

  • A)      Silicea
  • B)      Pulsatilla
  • C)      Phytolacca
  • D)      Mercurius sol.

32. Complaints of fluoric acid are better by

  • A)      Warmth
  • B)      open air
  • C)      cold application
  • D)      all of these.

33.  Antidote for snake poisoning characterized by neuralgias with clock like periodicity is

  • A)      Kalmia
  • B)      Spigelia
  • C)      Cedron
  • D)      Natrum mur.

34. The characteristic tongue of Ipecac is

  • A)      clean
  • B)      thickly coated
  • C)      mapped
  • D)      red tipped.

35. Misanthropic wants to fly away from his own family, mistrustful are the symptom of

  • A)      Hepar sulph
  • B)      Lycopodium
  • C)      F1uorlc acid
  • D)      all of these.

36. Remedies for Leucorrhoea at night are

  • A)      Ambra grisea, Causticum
  • B)      Pulsatilla, Natrum carb
  • C)      Natrum mur, Kreosote
  • D)      Hepar sulph, Silicea.

37. The relationship of nitric acid with lachesis is

  • A)      complementary
  • B)      antidote
  • C)      inimical
  • D)      none of these.

38.  Foulness, chilliness and hunger are the key note symptoms of a great anti psoric

  • A)      Sulphur
  • B)      Calcarea carb
  • C)      Phosphorus
  • D)      Psorinum.

39. Calcarea carb is adapted to constitution of

  • A)      Leucophlegmatic
  • B)      Scrofulous
  • C)      Phlegmatic
  • D)      None of these.

40. Surgeon’s friend in anti-doting chloroform is

  • A)      Chamomilla
  • B)      Nux vomica
  • C)      Coffea
  • D)      Phosphorus

41.  Asthma relieved by rocking in a chain is the symptom of

  • A)      Sepia.
  • B)      Hepar sulph
  • A)      Pulsatilla
  • B)      Kali carb.

42. The pain of La.c caninum is confined to

  • A)      right side
  • B)      left side
  • C)      alternating sides from left to right, then from right to left
  • D)      left to right.

43. Pneumonia 3rd stage with foetid expectoration, cold breath, cold sweat with desire to be fanned with threatened paralysis of lungs, are the symptom of

  • A)      Pyrogen
  • B)      Carbo veg
  • C)      Arsenicum album
  • D)      all of these.

44.Gelsemium is indicated in ………………         type of fever.

  • A)      intermittent
  • B)      remittent
  • C)      cerebrospinal
  • D)      all of these.

45. Timorous,anxiety, always anticipating some dreadful event, fears that some will happen to his family are the symptom of

  • A)      Argentum nitricum
  • B)      Aconite
  • C)      Gelsemium
  • D)      Causticum

46. Potatoes and starchy food disagree to

  • A)      calcarea carb
  • B)      colocynth
  • C)      both of these
  • D)      none of these.

47. Hyoscyamus cough is characterised by

  • A)      nervous cough,
  • B)      aggravated by lying down when head touches the pillow
  • C)      caused by elongated uvula all of these.
  • D)      all of these

48. Red tipped nose as if frost bitten is seen in

  • A)      ledum Pal
  • B)      lachesis
  • C)      Agaricus
  • D)      all of these

49. In  Cuprum met convulsion, the aura begins in

  • A)      lower extremities
  • B)      upper extremities
  • C)      abdomen
  • D)      face.

50.The remedy for dreams of falling, nightmare and fright in cardiac affection characterized by slow pulse with irregular beat is

  • A)      Cactus
  • B)      Kalmia
  • C)      Digitalis
  • D)      all of these

51. Uterine hemorrhage before puberty indicate

  • A)      Convallaria
  • B)      Cina
  • C)      Euphrasia
  • D)      Ferrum met.

52. Diarrhoea always forcibly shot  out with gargling in intestines indicate

  • A)      Croton tig.
  • B)      Crategus
  • C)      Conium
  • D)      Convallaria.

53. In incontinence of urine …………… patient feels no desire when lying on sides, passes involuntarily when attempts to lie on back.

  • A)      Sepia
  • B)      Gelsemium
  • C)      Pulsatilla
  • D)      None of these.

54. Toothache aggravation by drawing cold air into mouth or cold drinks, teeth turn black, crumble and decay on edges. Drug is

  • A)      Mercurlus
  • B)      Mezerium
  • C)      Staphysagni
  • D)      None of these.

55. Headache or nuralgia begin lightly, increase gradually to the highest point and then gradually decline seen in

  • A)      Kali bichromicum
  • B)      Pulsatilla
  • C)      Stannum met.
  • D)      None of these.

56. Epilepsy at the time of menses indicates

  • A)      Bufo
  • B)      Bryonia
  • C)      Bell.
  • D)      Borax

57. In cough, spongea follows well after

  • A)      Bryonia
  • B)      Kali bichromicum
  • C)      Aconite
  • D)      All of these.

58. Sensation as if a thread was hanging down the throat, a hysterical tendency is  seen in

  • A)      Sepia
  • B)      Lac coninum
  • C)      Valeriana
  • D)      None of these.

59. A Haemorrhagic remedy with- passive haemorrhage from every outlet of body, with common name Shepherd’s purse. The drug is

  • A)      Sabina
  • B)      Viburnum
  • C)      Thlaspi Barsa
  • D)      None of these.

60.  Angina pectoris, pain radiate from the centre of sternum, acute dilatation caused by shock indicate

  • A)      Tabcum
  • B)      Thyroidinum
  • C)      Valertana
  • D)      Drosera.

61. Umbilical hernia of infants indicates

  • A)      Nux. Vomica
  • B)      Aconite
  • C)      Arnica
  • D)      Bryonia.

62. Pulses paradoxus is seen in

  • A)      Mitral stenosis
  • B)      Atrial fibrillation
  • C)      Aortic  stenosis
  • D)      Asthma.

63. Recurrent gastralgic, stomach pain is temporarily relieved by eating .               .

  • A)      Lemna minor
  • B)      Ruta
  • C)      Rhus tax
  • D)      Graphitis.

64. Albuminuria during pregnancy indicates

  • A)      HeIonias
  • B)      Hepar sulph
  • C)      Aconite
  • D)      Belladonna.

65. Stool hard, round balls like sheep’s dung: the drug is

  • A)      Opium
  • B)      Plumbum
  • A)      Chelidonium
  • B)      All of these.

66. The aggravating factor of Causticum in weather condition is

  • A)      damp wet weather
  • B)      clear, fine weather
  • C)      warm air
  • D)      all of these.

6 7. In Argentum nitricum, the symptoms are aggravated

  • A)      during menses
  • B)      during intermenstrual period
  • C)      before menses
  • D)      after menses.

68. Uterine inertia during labour indicates

  • A)      Causticum
  • B)      Gelsemium
  • C)      Kali carb
  • D)      Bryonia.

69.Puerperal metritis  with inflammation of bladder indicates

  • A)      Convallaria
  • B)      Cantharis
  • C)      Croccus sat
  • D)      Cup. met.

70. Abdominal muscles weak, it seems as if a hernia would take place indicate

  • A)      Nux. Vomica
  • B)      Cocculus
  • C)      Dulcamara
  • D)      Gelsemium.

71. Pre-eclampsia is characterised by all, except

  • A)      raise in blood pressure
  • B)      oedema
  • C)      proteinuria
  • D)      glycosuria.

72. ‘Infertility’ means

  • A)      absolute’ inability to conceive
  • B)      apparent failure to conceive
  • C)      impotency
  • D)      none of these.

73. Monilial infection is due to

  • A)      Candida aibicans
  • B)      Tichomoniasis
  • C)      Oxyuris vermicularis
  • D)      none of these.

74. Menorrhagia with disposition to faint indicates

  • A)      Moschus
  • B)      Bryonia
  • C)      Aconite
  • D)      Allium cepa.

75. Haemorrhoids during pregnancy sensitive to touch indicate

  • A)      Muriatic acid
  • B)      Bryonia
  • C)      Aconite
  • D)      Hep. sulph.

76.Metorrhagia after parturition indicates

  • A)      Nitric acid
  • B)      Cocculus
  • C)      Bryonia
  • D)      Aconite.

77. The least mental excitement causing profuse return of menstrual flow indicate

  • A)      Calc. carb.
  • B)      Capsicum.
  • C)      Hyocyamus
  • D)      Mercurius.

78. Menses flow only at night not in the day time indicate

  • A)      Borax
  • B)      Bovista
  • C)      Bromium
  • D)      Conium.mac

79. Climacteric disturbances following excision of ovaries indicate

  • A)      Oophorinum
  • B)      Kali carb.
  • C)      Nat. Mur.
  • D)      Sepia.

80.Remedy that prevents tendency to abort at 3rd month is

  • A)      Nit. acid
  • B)      Sepia
  • C)      Plumbum met
  • D)      Naja.

81.  Hollow of the knee is painful on ‘motion in arthritis is the symptom of

  • A)      Nat. carb
  • B)      Sepia
  • C)      Cal. Carb
  • D)      Pulsatilla.

82. Asthma  at  4AM and 5 AM. is the symptom of

  • A)      Bryonia
  • B)      Aconite
  • C)      Ars. alb.
  • D)      Nat. sulph

83. Cough often ends in sneezing is the symptom of

  • A)      Conium
  • B)      Bryonia
  • C)      Sepia
  • D)      Senega.

84.  The following remedies are used in renal calculi, except

  • A)      Berberis vul
  • B)      Lycopodium
  • C)      Hydrangia
  • D)      Drosera.

85. Neuritis in lacerated wounds is the symptom of

  • A)      Camphor
  • B)      Calendula
  • C)      Croton tig.
  • D)      Crotalus hor.

86. Contracture of muscles and tendons either ~due to an injury or burn is the symptom of

  • A)      Hep. sulph.
  • B)      Silicea
  • C)      Caulophyllum
  • D)      Causticum.

87. Travelers diarrhoea is caused by all, except

  • A)      Giardia tambile
  • B)      Vibria’cholerae
  • C)      Salmonellae
  • D)      Staphylococci.

 88. Menstrual flow only when moving about is the symptom of

  • A)      Liliurn tig.
  • B)      Sepia
  • C)      Pulsatilla
  • D)      Arnica.

89. In ‘DUB’, bleeding is too early, too profuse; partly fluid and partly clotted with labour like pain indicate

  • A)      Ipecac
  • B)      Sabina
  • C)      Phos
  • D)      Sepia

90. Infertility due to the weakness of reproductive organ or atonicity indicates

  • A)      Sepia
  • B)      Caulophyllum
  • C)      Nux. vom.
  • D)      Kali Bich.

91. Tuberculous lesions are called

  • A)      Koch’s
  • B)      Loeffler’s
  • C)      Pasteur’s
  • D)      Wilde’s.

92. Hydrochloric acid is

  • A)      prismatic crystals
  • B)      pungent, colourless liquid
  • C)      black liquid
  • D)      none of these.

93. Fatal dose of ammonia is

  • A)      10-20g
  • B)      15 – 20g
  • C)      30 g
  • D)      50 g.

94. Examples of diplococci are

  • A)      gonococci
  • B)      meningococci
  • C)      both of these
  • D)      none of these.

95. Professional secrecy of a doctor is

  • A)      obliged- to keep secrets of patient
  • B)      maintain the secrets of their family
  • C)      keeping the secrets of infectious disease
  • D)      none of these.

96. Cerebral malaria is by

  • A)      Plasmodium vivax
  • B)      Plasmodium falciparum
  • C)      Plasmodium sickle
  • D)      Plasmodium malariae.

97.  Oblique fissure of the left lung arises opposite to the level of

  • A)      6th rib
  • B)      right second intercostal space
  • C)      4th thoracic vertebra
  • D)      sternal angle.

98.  The spleen underlies posteiorly between

  • A)      9th to 11th  rib
  • B)      10th to 12th  rib
  • C)      8th to 10th  rib
  • D)      7th to 9th  rib.

99. Citrate is added to conventional Oral Rehydration Solution (ORS) in order to

  • A)      correct acidosis
  • B)      increase its shelf life .
  • C)      improve glucose absorption
  • D)      improve sodium chloride absorption.

100. Entamoeba causes

  • A)      amoebic liver abscess
  • B)      typhlitis
  • C)      colitis
  • D)      all of these.

101. Healing is best done by

  • A)      first order intention
  • B)      second order intention
  • C)      tertiary intention
  • D)      all of these.

102. Material suitable for analysis of corrosive poisons is’

  • A)      Blood
  • B)      Urine
  • C)      Material found in the stomach
  • D)      Brain.

103. Employees State Insurance Act was framed in the year of

  • A)      1936
  • B)      1948
  • C)      1923
  • D)      1964.

104. Repair is done by

  • A)      fibrosis
  • B)      scar tissue
  • C)      fibrocytes
  • D)      all of these.

105.Ankylosis in bony healing is due to

  • A)      excess calcification
  • B)      fibroblast deposition
  • C)      weak healing
  • D)      scar formation.

106. Inflammation is a

  • A)      response of vascular tissue
  • B)      destructive phenomenon
  • C)      protective response
  • D)      both, (A) & (C).

107. Administration of  D.P.T. Vaccine is contraindicated in .

  • A)      URI
  • B)      diarrhoea
  • C)      fever
  • D)      none of these.

108. In fatty acid synthesis, which of the following is required ?

  • A)      Niacin
  • B)      Pantothenic acid
  • C)      Biotin
  • D)      All of these.

109. Necrosis is defined as

  • A)    cell death
  • B)    cell degeneration
  • C)    atrophy
  • D)    hypertrophy.

110. Infarction is a type of

  • A)      Inflammation
  • B)      cell death
  • C)      gangrene
  • D)      narcolepsy.

111. Fatal dose of oxalic acid poison is

  • A)      15 – 20 gm
  • B)      20 – 30 gm
  • C)      25 – 40 gm
  • D)      30 – 40 gm.

112. All the muscles of face are supplied by facial  nerve except ?

  • A)      Levator palpebrae superioriy
  • B)      Risorius
  • C)      Corrugator supercilli
  • D)      Levator anguli oris.

113. The muscle stylopharyngeus gets nerve supply from

  • A)      hypoglossal nerve
  • B)      glossopharyngeal nerve
  • C)      lingual nerve
  • D)      vagus nerve.

114. Wet gangrene is an example to

  • A)      Raynaud’s phenomena
  • B)      T.A.O.
  • C)      Buerger’s disease
  • D)      none of these.

115.  Gangrene may be caused by

  • A)      Clostridium welchii
  • B)      Clostridium botuUndM
  • C)      Tetanus
  • D)      None of these.

116. Dichotomy means

  • A)      disclosing secrets of a patient
  • B)      running an open shop
  • C)      receiving or giving commission
  • D)      selling scheduled poison.

117. Keloid is

  • A)      hypertrophied scar
  • B)      hyperplastic scar
  • C)      inflamed scar
  • D)      atrophic scar.

118. Amyloidosis is a

  • A)   Degeneration
  • B)   Regeneration
  • C)   Neurosis
  • D)  Healing method.

119.. Ochronosis is a type of

  • A)      necrosis
  • B)      pigment disorder
  • C)      degeneration
  • D)      jaundice.

120. Excessive fibroin in sclerosis is

  • A)   scar tissue
  • B)  fibrocytosis
  • C)  fibrolysis
  • D)  calcinosis.

121. The base of the heart is related to

  • A)      azygos vein
  • B)      tracheal bifurcation
  • C)      descending aorta
  • D)      central tendon of diaphragm.

122. Poorest source of Vit-D is

  • A)      shark liver oil        –
  • B)      fish fat
  • C)      cod liver oil
  • D)      halibut liver oil.

123. Embolism can be a case of

  • A)      caisson Disease
  • B)      stroke in evolution
  • C)      infarction
  • D)      all of these.

124. Thromboembolic phenomena lead to

  • A)      cerebral stroke
  • B)      myocardial ischemia
  • C)      both (A)& (B)
  • D)      none of these.

125. Anaemia along with leukaemia is –

  • A)      hypochromic
  • B)      hyperchromic
  • C)      macrocytic
  • D)      microcytic.

126. Tympanic plexus is formed by

  • A)      tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve
  • B)      vagus nerve
  • C)      facial nerve
  • D)      mandibular nerve.

127. HIV may spread through

  • A)      sexual contact
  • B)      hand shake
  • C)      blood
  • D)      both,(A) & (C).

128. Following are ketogenic except

  • A)      Alanine
  • B)      Tyrosine
  • C)      Glycerol
  • D)      Fatty Acid.

129. Recommended daily dietary allowance of protein for an average 70 kg male is

  • A)      110 gm
  • B)      65 gin
  • C)      13 gm
  • D)      20 gm.

130. Penal erasure means

  • A)      after the death of the registered practitioner
  • B)      entries which are made in error
  • C)      main cause is serious professional misconduct
  • D)      absconding from service.

131. Stapedius muscle is supplied by the nerve

  • A)      Facial
  • B)      Vagus
  • C)      Glossophaxyngeal
  • D)      Trochlear.

132. Loco parentis is / are

  • A)      an emergency consent taken from the person in charge of child
  • B)      the relatives of child
  • C)      a police person
  • D)      none of these.

133. Bleeding diathesis is   ,

  • A)      Thrombocytopenia
  • B)      Christmas factor deficiency
  • C)      Stuart factor deficiency
  • D)      All of these

134. Parasympathetic fibres that pass through the vagus nerve supply the

  • A)      stomach
  • B)      spleen
  • C)      ileum
  • D)      all of these.

135. Inferior surface of the heart is formed by

  • A)      right and left ventricles
  • B)      separated from base by right ventricle
  • C)      posterior AV groove
  • D)      right and left atria.

136. Nucleus in brain common to LX, X and XI cranial nerves is

  • A)      nucleus solitaries
  • B)      nucleus ambiguous
  • C)      dentate nucleus
  • D)      red nucleus.

137. Saphenous opening is situated

  • A)      just below the pubic tubercle
  • B)      below and lateral to pubic tubercle
  • C)      above and medial to pubic tubercle
  • D)      just above the pubic tubercle.

138. Which nerve does not arise from the medulla ?

  • A)      Facial
  • B)      Glossopharyngeal
  • C)      Vagus
  • D)      Hypoglossal.

139. Which vertebra has the most prominent spine ?

  • A)      C2
  • B)      C7
  • C)      T 10
  • D)      T12

140. The facial nerve

  • A)      arises from the medulla oblongata
  • B)      transverses through parotid gland
  • C)      supplies muscles of mastication
  • D)      carries no taste fibres.

141. Cardinal signs of inflammation are

  • A)      rubor, callor, tumour, dolor & loss of  ferulin
  • B)      dolor; pallor, tumour.
  • C)      bleeding, congestion, haematoma
  • D)      inflammation, healing.

142. Metastasis is a phenomenon in

  • A)      benign neoplasm
  • B)      malignant neoplasm
  • C)      both of these
  • D)      none of these.

143. From lung to tissues oxygen transported is

  • A)      70%
  • B)      86%
  • C)      91%
  • D)      97%

144. Right upper motor neuron lesion of facial nerve causes

  • A)      loss of taste sensation in right anterior part of tongue
  • B)      loss of corneal reflex on right side
  • C)      loss of wrinkling of forehead on left side
  • D)      paralysis of lower facial muscles on left side.

145. Severe hypertension may cause

  • A)      pulmonary oedema
  • B)      reduced visual acuity
  • C)      rise in coronary flow
  • D)      all of these.

146. Protein deficiency leads to

  • A)      inflammation
  • B)      necrosis
  • C)      kwashiorkor.
  • D)      oedema.

147. Anasarca is a type of

  • A)      inflammation
  • B)      nutritional disorder
  • C)      oedema
  • D)      none of these.

148. Degeneration follows

  • A)      Inflammation
  • B)      necrosis
  • C)      disease
  • D)      regeneration.

149. Which nerve passes through Menke’s cave’?

  • A)      Abducens
  • B)      Facial
  • C)      Trigeminal
  • D)      Trochlear.

150. The posterior 1/3rd  of the tongue is supplied by

  • A)      hypoglossal
  • B)      chorda tympani
  • C)      lingual
  • D)      glossopharyngeal

151. In Laryngitis, painless hoarseness of voice, vocal cords are fired with tubercular tendency are the symptom of

  • A)   Belladona
  • B)   Phosphorus
  • C)   Calcarea carb
  • D)  All of these.

152. In nursing women, when the child is nursing, there is pain in the opposite breast, are the symptom of

  • A)   Phytolacca
  • B)   Mercuricus
  • C)   Borax
  • D)   Conium.

153. The cough immediately getting worse from dust, handling old books from the shelf aggravates. The suggestive drug is

  • A)      Pulsatilla
  • B)      Bromium
  • C)      Arsenicum album
  • D)      All of these.

154. Baryta carb is incompatible after ………..:. in scrofulous affection

  • A)      Sulphur
  • B)      Tuberculinum
  • C)      Mercurius
  • D)      Calcarea carb.

155. Ferrum met. patient is of …………… temperament.

  • A)      sanguine
  • B)      melancholic
  • C)      mild
  • D)      nervous

156. Child cries all day and sleeps all night. The choice of drug is

  • A)      Psorinum
  • B)      Cina
  • C)      Lycopodium
  • D)      Chamomilla.

157. Every change of weather to every draft taking new cold, spasmodic cough and every cough ends in belching, heat in palms and soles are characterised by

  • A)      Hepar sulph
  • B)      Carbo veg
  • C)      Kali carb
  • D)      Sanguine

158. Digitalis patient complains of palpitation, which is aggravated from

  • A)      lying on left side
  • B)      least movement
  • C)      lying on abdomen
  • D)      bending forward.

159. Which is the drug for injuries to spinal cord, bad effects of spinal concussion and pains after fall on coccyx ?

  • A)      Symphytum
  • B)      Ruta
  • C)      Arnica
  • D)      Hypericum.

160. The objective symptom of Ignatia is

  • A)      Contradiction
  • B)      Irritability
  • C)      Mildness
  • D)      Long involuntary sigh.

161. In anaemias

  • A)      there is hurried breathing
  • B)      there is normal breathing
  • C)      hypopnoea
  • D)      hypertension.

162. Heparin plays a role in

  • A)      cellular phase
  • B)      humoral phase
  • C)      vascular phase
  • D)      all of these.

163. Euthanasia is

  • A)      killing a criminal
  • B)      giving punishment
  • C)      producing, painless death
  • D)      none of these.

164. Chemotaxis is defined as

  • A)      attracting cellular elements to the site of inflammation
  • B)      chemicals involved in various phases
  • C)      both (A) & (B)
  • D)      only (B).

165. Section 201 IPC deals in

  • A)      causing disappearance of evidence of offence
  • B)      fabricating false evidence
  • C)      omission to give notice to public
  • D)      giving false evidence.

166. Cellular phase follows

  • A)      vascular phase
  • B)      prostaglandins
  • C)      cellular elements
  • D)      none of these.

167. Lewis described

  • A)      vascular phase
  • B)      triple’ response
  • C)      cellular phase
  • D)      humoral phase.

168. Fatal dose of sulphuric acid poison is

  • A)      5 -10 ml
  • B)      10 – 20 ml
  • C)      15 – 20 ml
  • D)      20 – 30 ml.

169 .The recommended ideal dose(s) of tetanus toxoid in an unimmunized pregnant mother is / are

  • A)      two doses
  • B)      four doses
  • C)      single dose
  • D)      three doses

170. In a cross-section of thorax at T4, which of the following is found ?

  • A)      Azygos vein
  • B)      Brachiocephalic artery
  • C)      Arch of Aorta
  • D)      Left subclavian.

171. The oesophagus commences at which of the following levels ?

  • A)      Lower end of cricoids
  • B)      C5vertebra
  • C)      10 cm from incisor teeth
  • D)      C 7 vertebra.

172. Teratoma is ……:….:.. malignant than sarcoma.

  • A)      more
  • B)      Less
  • C)      slower
  • D)      faster.

173. Vitriolage means

  • A)      throwing of carbolic acid
  • B)      throwing of water
  • C)      throwing of sulphuric acid
  • D)      throwing of kerosene.

174. Fibroadenoma is a

  • A)      benign neoplasm
  • B)      not a neoplasm
  • C)      malignant
  • D)      systemic disease.

175. Fatal dose of carbolic acid poison is

  • A)      5- 10g
  • B)      3-5g
  • C)      1-2g
  • D)      10-15g.

176. First heart sound occurs during the period of

  • A)      Isotonic relaxation
  • B)      Isovolumetric relaxation
  • C)      Isovolumetric contraction
  • D)      Isotonic contraction.

177. Neoplasm is defined as

  • A)      new growth
  • B)      malignancy
  • C)      benign growth
  • D)      all of these.

178. In carcinoma base of tongue pain is referred to the ear through

  • A)      hypoglossal nerve
  • B)      vagus nerve
  • C)      glossopharyngeal nerve
  • D)      lingual nerve.

180. The smallest cranial nerve is the

  • A)      Olfactory
  • B)      Oculomotor
  • C)      Trochlear
  • D)      Accessory

181. Cause of death in carbolic acid poison  is

  • A)      brain damage
  • B)      asphyxia
  • C)      renal failure
  • D)      none of these.

182. Toxoids are

  • A)    inactivated toxins of micro-organisms
  • B)    produced by micro-organisms
  • C)    produced by host in reaction to toxins
  • D)    those which give passive immunity.

182. DPT is stored at

  • A)      4°C
  • B)      14°C
  • C)      0°C
  • D)       40C.

183. Xiphisternal junction is usually at the level of disc between which of the following thoracic vertebrae ?

  • A)      9 and 10
  • B)      7 and 8
  • C)      1 and 12
  • D)      None of these

184. Treatment for sulphuric acid is to

  • A)      avoid gastric lavage -and emetics
  • B)      give demulcent
  • C)      correct circulatory shock
  • D)      all the above

185.  Hydropic degeneration is also called

  • A)      Apoptosis
  • B)      Calcinosis
  • C)      Orchronosis
  • D)      SLE.

186. Kulchitsky cells are seen in

  • A)      Rheumatic fever
  • B)      Syphilis
  • C)      Tuberculosis
  • D)      Multiple sclerosis.

187. Which of the following is not a feature of occulomotor nerve palsy ?

  • A)  Miosis
  • B)  Difficulty in accommodation
  • C)  Superior gaze palsy
  • D)  Diplopia.

188. Cranial accessory nerve supplies

  • A)   Sternomastoid
  • B)   Trapezius
  • C)   Splenius capitis
  • D)  Soft palate.

189. Calcium requirement during pregnancy per day is

  • A)      100 mg
  • B)      400 mg
  • C)      1400 mg
  • D)      800 mg.

190. Which one of the following is a branch of the facial nerve ?

  • A)      Deep petrosal nerve
  • B)      Lesser superficial petrosal nerve
  • C)      External petrosal nerve
  • D)      Greater superficial petrosal nerve.

191.The transpyloric plane corresponds with  the level of .

  • A)      T11
  • B)      T12
  • C)      L1
  • D)      L2

192. Leucine true is

  • A)      non polar
  • B)      polar
  • C)      non-essential amino acid
  • D)      aromatic.

193. Amino acid involved in creatine synthesis is

  • A)      Glycine
  • B)      Lysine
  • C)      Glutamic acid
  • D)      Threonine.

194. Increased pressure within carotid sinus produces

  • A)      reflex increase in venous pressure
  • B)      reflex hyperpnoea
  • C)      reflex bradycardia
  • D)      increase in heart rate.

195. Parasympathetic stimulation of heart causes

  • A)      decreased rate of S. A node
  • B)      increased excitability of A. V. fibres
  • C)      prevents ventricular contraction
  • D)      none of these.

196.. Mycobacteria are

  • A)      gram – ve
  • B)      acid –fast
  • C)      non -acid fast
  • D)      none of these.

197. Sampling in village of 200 houses and 1000 population to screen 100 persons is best taken by

  • A)      selecting every tenth person
  • B)      selecting every fifth person
  • C)      selecting randomly any 100 patients from a random chart
  • D)      selecting one person per house.

198. Streptococcus occurs in

  • A)      Cluster
  • B)      Grape like clusters
  • C)      Chains
  • D)      None of these.

199. Of the following which is an inactivated vaccine ?’

  • A)      BCG
  • B)      Salk
  • C)      17-D Vaccine
  • D)      Mumps.

200. Which of the following has highest protein content ?

  • A)      Soyabean
  • B)      Egg
  • C)      Milk
  • D)      Mutton.

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